Foundations of Biological Science Pre-Test
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Course Introduction
Foundations of Biological Science introduces students to the fundamental principles underlying the study of living organisms. The course covers key topics including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, energy transformation, and the diversity of life. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, experimental design, and critical thinking as students explore the basic concepts that unite all biological sciences. This foundational knowledge provides the basis for understanding more advanced topics in biology and equips students with the skills necessary for success in further scientific study.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman
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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Current understanding of the evolutionary relationships among organisms _____.
A)are always based only on molecular data
B)may change,as more species are discovered and studied
C)represent a complete and unchanging data set
D)tell us nothing about the history of life on Earth
Answer: B
Q2) Recall the giraffe experiment that suggested longer necks gave a reproductive advantage to males.Which of the following could counteract or negate this advantage?
A)the presence of only short plants in the environment
B)the presence of only tall plants in the environment
C)a drought that reduced the amount of food available in the environment
D)female preference for short-necked males
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following statements about cells is true? A cell is _____.
A)only found in multiples of two,because single cells cannot exist independently
B)always between 200 and 500 micrometers in diameter
C)characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms
D)characteristic of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Gibbs free-energy relationship,why is the T term necessary?
A)The free-energy change caused by a change in entropy is a function of temperature.
B)The free-energy change caused by a change in potential energy is a function of temperature.
C)The free-energy change caused by a change in electrical charge is a function of temperature.
Answer: A
Q2) The structural formula for a certain molecule includes a group symbolized -O.The dash next to the oxygen atom means that a single bond exists to another atom,such as a carbon.Based on the valence of oxygen and the number of bonds it normally forms,what is the charge on the oxygen atom in this case?
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) What is the pattern component of the theory of chemical evolution?
A)Both heat and electrical discharges are required for chemical evolution to occur.
B)Most chemical evolution occurred at black smokers.
C)The process occurred at black smokers,in the atmosphere and oceans,and in outer space.
D)Increasingly complex carbon-containing molecules formed early in Earth history.
Answer: D
Q2) Which one of the following is not a component of each monomer used to make proteins?
A)a phosphorus atom,P
B)an amino functional group,NH
C)a side chain,R
D)a carboxyl group,COOH
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) Which of these scientists was not directly involved in the discovery of DNA's structure?
A)James Watson
B)Rosalind Franklin
C)Sidney Altman
D)Francis Crick
E)Maurice Wilkins
Q2) Which of the following is a difference between RNA and DNA?
A)One is typically single stranded and the other is typically triple stranded.
B)One contains uracil and the other does not.
C)One contains ribose sugar and the other contains a deoxyribose sugar.
D)One is made from nucleotide monomers and the other one is not.
Q3) You have a polymer of DNA with 10 adenine bases followed by 10 cytosine bases.If that strand bonded to a strand of 20 thymine bases,how would the double helix shape vary from a typical DNA double helix?
A)The double helix would be longer than normal.
B)The double helix would be shorter than normal.
C)One strand of the double helix would be longer than the other strand.
D)The width of the double helix would vary as you moved down the strand.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) Carbohydrates have been shown to form _____.
A)only in biotic conditions (inside living cells)
B)in biotic and abiotic conditions,but only if nucleotides and RNA have already formed
C)in biotic and abiotic conditions,including outer space
D)only in biotic conditions,when enough free energy is available to allow their formation
Q2) Glucose (C H O )has a single carbonyl group (-C=O)in its linear form.Based on the number of oxygen atoms in glucose,how many hydroxyl groups (-OH)would you expect glucose to have?
A)6
B)5
C)3
D)1
Q3) You isolate an organic molecule that contains C,H,O,N,and S.This molecule _____.
A)is definitely a sugar
B)could be a glycoprotein
C)is definitely a nucleic acid
D)is definitely a protein that is not glycosylated
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) What region of a steroid is hydrophilic?
A)the methyl (-CH )groups
B)the terminal hydroxyl group
C)the ring structures
D)the long hydrocarbon chain
Q2) What preserves the structural integrity of phospholipid bilayers?
A)Peptide bonds form between the phosphate groups of the phosopholipids.
B)Sugars associated with the cell membrane covalently cross-link.
C)hydrophobic and hydrophilic interactions between nearby phospholipids
D)van der Waals interactions between the glycerol molecule and fatty acids of a single phospholipid
Q3) Where would you most likely find an integral membrane protein?
A)on the inside surface of the cell membrane
B)on the outside surface of the cell membrane
C)floating freely in the cytoplasm
D)spanning the cell membrane,with parts of the protein visible from both the inside and the outside of the cell
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8
Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following cytoskeletal proteins are important in changing cell shape or location (any type of cell movement)?
A)Microfilaments are the only cytoskeletal proteins important in cell movement.
B)Microfilaments and myosin are among the cytoskeletal proteins important in cell movement.
C)Microfilaments,microtubules,and intermediate filaments are equally important in cell movement.
D)Microfilaments and intermediate filaments are the only cytoskeletal proteins important in cell movement.
Q2) Which of the following statements would be true about lysosomes that lack mannose-6-phosphate receptors?
A)They receive "modified" enzymes,so are unable to break down carbohydrates.
B)They do not receive enzyme shipments from the Golgi apparatus.
C)They have unstable membranes.
D)They stick to transport vesicles and impede the transfer of enzymes.
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9
Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) Not all intercellular signals require transduction.Which one of the following signals would be processed without transduction?
A)a lipid-soluble signal
B)a signal that is weakly bound to a nucleotide
C)a signal that binds to a receptor in the cell membrane
D)a signal that binds to the ECM
Q2) Intercalated discs are cell-cell junctions found between cardiac muscle cells.One feature of these intercalated discs is that they contain a large number of gap junctions,which means that _____.
A)an extension of smooth endoplasmic reticulum goes through the gap junction,making it continuous from one cardiac muscle cell to the next
B)water ions and small molecules can readily pass from one cardiac muscle cell to the next
C)cardiac cells can function independently when necessary
D)RNA from one cardiac muscle cell can be transported into an adjacent cell through the gap junction
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Following glycolysis and the Krebs cycle,but before the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation,the carbon skeleton of glucose has been broken down to CO with some net gain of ATP.Most of the energy from the original glucose molecule at that point in the process,however,is in the form of _____.
A)acetyl-CoA
B)glucose
C)pyruvate
D)NADH
Q2) Refer to Figure 9.1 in the text.What characteristic of this molecule (ATP)is responsible for its high energy level?
A)the three phosphate groups
B)the phosphorus atoms in the phosphate groups
C)the C-H bonds of the ribose sugar
D)the closely spaced negative charges associated with the phosphate groups
Q3) What is the function of coenzyme A in the Krebs cycle?
A)It is the coenzyme of carboxylation reactions.
B)It is the coenzyme of redox reactions.
C)It is a coenzyme of decarboxylation reactions.
D)It is the coenzyme of acetylation reactions.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Purple photosynthetic bacteria do not contain chloroplasts.They have an antenna system that includes two light-harvesting protein complexes,both of which are integral membrane proteins.The bacteriochlorophyll a molecules contain Mg² and absorb light at 800 nm.Which of the following statements comparing photosynthesis in purple bacteria and plant chloroplasts is true?
A)Because purple bacteria do not have chloroplasts,there is no electron transport associated with photosynthesis.
B)Bacteriochlorophyll a is a molecule containing Mg² ,whereas chlorophyll a from chloroplasts contains Fe² .
C)Bacteriochlorophyll a absorbs light most efficiently in the ultraviolet range,at a significantly shorter wavelength than that for chlorophyll a of chloroplasts.
D)Plant chlorophyll a absorbs in the visible light range,whereas purple photosynthetic bacteriochlorophyll a absorbs light at a longer wavelength.
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) In human and many other eukaryotic species' cells,the nuclear membrane has to disappear in order for what to take place?
A)cytokinesis
B)attachment of mitotic spindle to kinetochores
C)splitting of the centrosomes
D)disassembly of the nucleolus
Q2) Which of the following statements about cancer is not true?
A)Cancer is very often associated with problems at the G checkpoint.
B)For a tumor to be defined as "cancer," it must first metastasize.
C)Cancer cells often have a defective form of the tumor repressor p53.
D)Many cancer cells have defective forms of the signal transduction protein Ras that do not become deactivated.
Q3) Regulatory proteins that serve to prevent a cell from entering the S phase under conditions of DNA damage are also known as _____.
A)cyclins
B)cyclin-dependent kinases
C)antibodies
D)tumor suppressors
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Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) In the snail Pomacea patula catemacensis n = 13.What is the diploid number for this organism?
A)13
B)26
C)52
D)7
Q2) The bulldog ant has a diploid number of two chromosomes.Therefore,following meiosis,each daughter cell will have a single chromosome.There is/are _____ different possible combination(s)of genes in the daughter cells of meiosis because _____.
A)one;there is only one chromosome per cell
B)two;there are two homologous chromosomes per cell prior to meiosis
C)more than 2;the two homologues cross over
Q3) In Figure 12.3,what major event is taking place during this phase of meiosis?
A)anaphase II
B)anaphase
C)homologues separate
D)separation of sister chromatids
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14
Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) In humans,blue eyes are inherited as a recessive autosomal trait and color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait.A woman with blue eyes and normal color vision whose father was color blind marries a man who also has normal color vision.He has brown eyes but his mother had blue eyes.Which of the following do you expect to be true for their daughters?
A)One-half of their daughters will have normal color vision and brown eyes;1/2 of their daughters will have normal color vision and blue eyes.
B)Their daughters will all have normal color vision and brown eyes.
C)One-fourth of their daughters will be color blind and have blue eyes,1/4 of their daughters will be color blind and have brown eyes,1/4 of their daughters will have normal color vision and blue eyes,1/4 of their daughters will have normal color vision and brown eyes.
D)Their daughters will all have normal color vision and have blue eyes.
E)One-half of their daughters will be color blind and have blue eyes;1/2 their daughters will be color blind and have brown eyes.
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) In the mismatch repair process,enzyme complexes replace bases that were incorrectly inserted into the newly synthesized DNA strand.To function,they must be able to distinguish between the parent DNA strand and the new strand.How is this accomplished?
A)The new strand contains the diphosphate bases.
B)The parent strand is methylated.
C)The new strand contains ribose sugars.
D)The parent strand is usually radiolabeled.
Q2) Which of the following would be least likely to cause DNA damage in an individual suffering from xeroderma pigmentosum?
A)natural lighting
B)low-level ultraviolet lights
C)incandescent lightbulbs
D)reflected sunlight
Q3) Which of the following are important in reducing the errors in DNA replication in E.coli organisms?
A)proofreading activity of the epsilon subunit of DNA polymerase III
B)mismatch repair
C)nucleotide excision repair
D)All of the above minimize errors in DNA replication in E.coli.
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) How might a single base substitution in the sequence of a gene affect the amino acid sequence of a protein encoded by the gene,and why?
A)Only a single amino acid could change,because the reading frame is unaffected.
B)The amino acid sequence would be substantially altered,because the reading frame would change with a single base substitution.
C)All amino acids following the substitution would be affected,because the reading frame would be shifted.
D)It is not possible for a single base substitution to affect protein structure,because each codon is three bases long.
Q2) According to the central dogma,what molecule should go in the blank?
DNA _____ Proteins
A)mRNA because it makes proteins directly
B)rRNA because it makes proteins directly
C)mRNA because it transfers information from DNA
D)tRNA because it transfers information from DNA
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17
Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation
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Q1) Which of the following occurs in prokaryotes,but not eukaryotes?
A)post-transcriptional splicing
B)concurrent transcription and translation
C)translation in the absence of a ribosome
D)gene regulation
Q2) A primary transcript in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell is _____ the functional mRNA,while a primary transcript in a prokaryotic cell is _____ the functional mRNA.
A)the same size as;the same size as B)larger than;the same size as C)larger than;smaller than D)the same size as;larger than
Q3) Which molecule or reaction supplies the energy for polymerization of nucleotides in the process of transcription?
A)the interaction between RNA polymerase and the promoter
B)the phosphate bonds in the nucleotide triphosphates that serve as substrates
C)the energy released when hydrogen bonds are broken as the DNA molecule is unwound
D)ATP only
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) Recall from Chapter 11 that cyclin-dependent kinases are activated when they bind to a cyclin protein.This form of regulation is _____.
A)constitutive control
B)transcriptional control
C)translational control
D)post-translational control
Q2) Suppose several genes are grouped together in a genome and the group results in a single enzyme.If one of these genes is mutated and the enzyme is no longer produced,this gene must be part of _____.
A)an intron
B)an operon
C)a repressor
D)an activator
E)an inducer
Q3) The product of the lacI gene is _____.
A)an enzyme
B)a transport protein embedded within the membrane
C) -galactosidase
D)the repressor
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) If a pharmaceutical company wishes to make a protein-based drug from yeast with a particular carbohydrate tag to ensure correct tissue delivery,which stage of gene expression would be altered to change the tag on the protein?
A)transcription
B)translation
C)post-translation
D)alternative splicing
Q2) Gene expression is often assayed by measuring the level of mRNA produced from a gene.If one is interested in knowing the amount of a final active gene product,a potential problem of this method is that it ignores the possibility of _____.
A)chromatin condensation control
B)transcriptional control
C)alternative splicing
D)translational control
Q3) Regulatory transcription factors _____.
A)influence the binding of sigma factor to DNA
B)influence the assembly of the basal transcription complex
C)influence the degree of unwinding of DNA at the promoter
D)open the two strands of DNA so RNA polymerase can begin transcription
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) In the current form of dideoxy DNA sequencing,the primer is unlabeled and each dideoxynucleotide is labeled with a different fluorescent marker.This method _____.
A)eliminates the need to run sequencing reaction products on a gel
B)allows a DNA sequence to be determined from four separate sequencing reactions,each run on a separate lane of a gel
C)allows a DNA sequence to be determined from one sequencing reaction that is run on a single lane of a gel
D)eliminates the need for sophisticated machines to read the output of each sequencing reaction
Q2) Many identical copies of genes cloned in bacteria are produced as a result of _____.
A)plasmid replication
B)bacterial cell replication
C)transformation
D)plasmid and bacterial cell replication
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21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) Like DNA microarrays,Northern blots analyze the levels of mRNA.However,Northern blots are almost always prepared with a probe tagged with one label,whereas DNA microarrays almost always use two groups of probes,each one tagged with a different fluorescent label.What advantage is conferred by using two labels for the microarray probes?
A)The two labels increase the sensitivity of the microarray.
B)The two labels allow the analysis of the expression of more genes.
C)The two labels allow simultaneous assay of levels of DNA and RNA.
D)The two labels allow comparison of gene expression between two samples.
E)Probing the array with two labels is equivalent to doing two experiments at once.
Q2) If one wished to test the hypothesis that humans and chimps differ due to differences in the expression of a large set of shared genes,the technique to use would be _____.
A)Southern blotting
B)PCR
C)DNA sequencing
D)protein-protein interaction assays
E)DNA microarray analysis
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Suppose you found several Drosophila mutants that possessed additional legs growing out of their head segments.The probable mutation would be found in _____.
A)segment-polarity genes
B)gap genes
C)pair-rule genes
D)homeotic genes
Q2) All of the following are true of embryonic stem cells except _____.
A)they can be found in human blastocysts
B)they retain the potential to become different types of cells
C)they continue to undergo mitosis when most cells have stopped dividing
D)they are terminally differentiated
Q3) Gene expression in developing organisms is regulated on several different levels.In many developing animals,regulation of gene expression is influenced by the action of Hox genes.Which of the following regulatory elements is produced by many Hox genes?
A)transcriptional factors
B)cell-surface molecules for cell-cell interactions
C)signals from maternal cytoplasm,such as bicoid
D)mRNA processing factors
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) The allele D codes for right-handed coiling in a species of snail,while allele d codes for left-handed coiling.Assuming the proteins encoded by these two alleles are cytoplasmic determinants,if a dd female mates with a DD male,what percentage of offspring snails will develop shells that are left-handed coils?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q2) During cleavage the size of individual cells _____,while the overall size of the embryo _____.
A)increases;increases
B)increases;decreases
C)decreases;increases
D)decreases;decreases
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24
Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) What does the ABC model of flower development attempt to explain?
A)how different combinations of gene products trigger the formation of different floral organs
B)why petals are found on the inside of the whorl of sepals instead of on the outside
C)why the four types of floral organs occur in whorls
D)why apical meristems are converted to floral meristems in response to specific cell-to-cell signals
Q2) Organs in developing flowers include all of the following except _____.
A)whorls
B)sepals
C)petals
D)carpels
E)stamens
Q3) Each of the following describes a similarity between yolk and endosperm except
A)yolk and endosperm both provide nutrition for embryos
B)yolk and endosperm both contain proteins
C)yolk and endosperm are both the result of a second fertilization process
D)yolk and endosperm are both cellular products
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) The figure above shows the distribution of pocket-mouse coat colors in several Arizona populations found either on light-colored granite substrate or on dark volcanic rock (dark substrate).The Melanocortin-1 receptor (Mc1r)alleles,D and d,differ by four amino acids.Mice with DD and Dd genotypes have dark coats,whereas mice with the dd genotype are light colored.What sort of genotype frequencies might you expect to find in the Xmas,Mid,and O'Neill populations?
A)Xmas high DD frequency;Mid high Dd frequency,O'Neill high dd frequency
B)Xmas high Dd frequency;Mid high DD frequency,O'Neill high dd frequency
C)Xmas high Dd frequency;Mid high dd frequency,O'Neill high DD frequency
D)Xmas high dd frequency;Mid high Dd frequency,O'Neill high DD frequency
E)Xmas high dd frequency;Mid high DD frequency,O'Neill high Dd frequency
Q2) Explain how one of the following supports the idea that species change through time: artificial selection,extinction,transitional forms,vestigial traits,antibiotic resistance.
Q3) An individual with a novel adaptation has evolved that adaptation.
A)True
B)False
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26
Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) Three-spined stickleback fish (Gasterosteus aculeatus)show substantial heritable variation in gill-raker length.Fish caught in open water tend to have longer gill rakers and eat different foods than do those caught in shallower water.Longer gill rakers appear to function better for capturing open-water prey,while shorter gill rakers function better for capturing shallow-water prey.Which of the following types of selection is most likely to be found in a large lake (open water in middle and shallow water around the sides)with a high density of these fish?
A)directional selection
B)stabilizing selection
C)disruptive selection
D)sexual selection
E)no selection
Q2) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
Q3) A beneficial point mutation occurs in a plant ovule,which is fertilized.The seed matures,falls to the ground,and starts to grow.Is the plant's population likely to show evolutionary change as a result of this mutation? Why or why not?
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) Which of the following statements about human races is correct?
A)Africans are genetically much closer to Asians than to Caucasians.
B)Humans are one of only a few mammal species with clearly defined genetic races.
C)Very little genetic divergence occurs among different human populations.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above is correct.
Q2) Which of the following statements explains why animals are less likely than plants to speciate by polyploidy?
A)Animals self-fertilize less often than plants,so diploid gametes are less likely to fuse.
B)Animals have better mechanisms for repairing chromosomes than plants have.
C)Animals are more mobile,so have more effective prezygotic isolating mechanisms.
D)Animals are more mobile,so populations get separated far less often.
E)Animals use a more rigorous form of meiosis than plants,making diploid gametes much harder to form.
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) Which of the following are typically responsible for island extinctions?
A)habitat destruction
B)overharvesting and introduction of nonnative predators and herbivores
C)earthquakes followed by tsunamis
D)increased CO levels and global warming
Q2) Which listing of geological periods is in the correct order,from oldest to most recent?
A)Cambrian,Devonian,Permian,Cretaceous
B)Devonian,Cambrian,Permian,Cretaceous
C)Cambrian,Permian,Devonian,Cretaceous
D)Permian,Cambrian,Cretaceous,Devonian
Q3) All of the following events can trigger an adaptive radiation except _____.
A)a vicariance event splitting the habitat
B)the evolution of a new morphological feature
C)the colonization of a new habitat
D)the extinction of competitors
E)gene duplication events
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Bacteria able to perform the NH + NO N + 2H O reaction have been discovered laboratory bioreactors and wastewater treatment systems.Researchers predicted that these bacteria should exist in oceans.They measured the concentration of NH ,NO ,NO ,and O in the Black Sea as a function of water depth (M.Kuypers et al.2003 Anaerobic ammonium oxidation by anammox bacteria in the Black Sea.Nature 422: 608-11)to determine where in the sea the bacteria might live.Analyzing data presented in Figure 28.1 above,at what depth would you expect to find the bacteria? (Note: In the figure,different scales are used to show concentrations of NH ,NO ,NO ,and O . )
A)in the top 5 meters
B)in the top 50 meters
C)at a depth of 75 meters
D)at a depth of 92 meters
E)below 100 meters
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Refer to the study by Poulsen et al.and Figure 29.3.The data graphed in Figure 29.3 could be an artifact if latrunculin A kills this species of diatoms (i.e. ,that may be why the cells are not moving).Which of the following would be the best evidence that latrunculin A is not killing the cells?
A)When the toxin was washed off the culture,the cells began to move again.
B)There were still a small percentage of motile cells in the culture treated with the toxin.
C)Most of the cells in the control were moving,indicating that they were alive.
D)When the toxin was applied to another species of diatom,25% of them continued to move.
Q2) According to the phylogenetic tree in Figure 29.1,Giardia intestinalis constitutes a _____ group.
A)paraphyletic
B)monophyletic
C)polyphyletic
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Chapter 30: Green Plants
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Q1) The closest relatives of the familiar pine and spruce trees are _____.
A)ferns,horsetails,lycophytes,club mosses
B)hornworts,liverworts,mosses
C)gnetophytes,cycads,ginkgoes
D)elms,maples,aspens
Q2) The retaining of the zygote on the living gametophyte of land plants _____.
A)protects the zygote from herbivores
B)evolved concurrently with pollen
C)helps in dispersal of the zygote
D)allows it to be nourished by the parent plant
E)is found only in seed plants
Q3) Which of the following is true of stomata?
A)Stomata occur in all land plants and define them as a monophyletic group.
B)Stomata open to allow gas exchange and close to decrease water loss.
C)Stomata occur in all land plants and are the same as pores.
D)Stomata open to increase both water absorption and gas exchange.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Why is it important that ectomycorrhizal fungi (EMF)have peptidase enzymes?
A)These enzymes are necessary to break through the tough lignin layers in plants.
B)These enzymes assist with the breakdown of cellulose.
C)These enzymes are needed to release nitrogen from dead plant material in colder environments.
D)These enzymes catalyze the formation of the compounds used during decomposition.
Q2) Based on graphs (e)and (f)in Figure 31.5,which is the most well-supported prediction for the effect on total plant biomass if AMF diversity were increased to eight species?
A)No effect is predicted,because the dominant species is unaffected by AMF diversity.
B)Total biomass for eight species would double in comparison to that for four species.
C)Rare species would produce more biomass compared to the case when fewer AMF are present.
D)No effect is predicted,because the dominant species is non-mycorrhizal.
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33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) You find a new species of worm and want to classify it.Which of the following lines of evidence would allow you to classify the worm as a nematode and not an annelid?
A)It undergoes protostome development.
B)It is segmented.
C)It is triploblastic.
D)It has a coelom.
E)It sheds its external skeleton to grow.
Q2) Why are healthy corals brightly colored?
A)Corals secrete colorful pigments to warn predators that they are poisonous.
B)Corals secrete colorful pigments to attract mates.
C)Corals host symbionts with colorful photosynthetic pigments.
D)Corals build their skeletons from colorful minerals.
E)Corals secrete colorful pigments to protect themselves from UV light.
Q3) Which tissue type,or organ,is not correctly matched with its germ layer tissue?
A)nervous-mesoderm
B)muscular-mesoderm
C)stomach-endoderm
D)skin-ectoderm
E)skeletal-mesoderm
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) Look at the graph for Scutigerina weberi (note the scale of the y-axis)in Figure
33.2.What is the best interpretation of these results?
A)The centipede had its spiracles open the entire time.
B)The centipede had its spiracles closed the entire time.
C)The centipede had its spiracles open when CO emission peaked and closed when CO emission was low.
D)The centipede had its spiracles closed when CO emission peaked and open when CO emission was low.
Q2) A _____ is comprised of a mouth surrounded by ciliated tentacles.
A)trochophore
B)lophotrochozoan
C)lophophore
D)cuticle
E)ecdysozoan
Q3) The body cavity type for arthropods and mollusk can best be described as _____.
A)coelom
B)pseudocoelom
C)reduced coelom
D)no coelom
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Why do skates and rays have flattened bodies,while sharks are torpedo shaped?
A)Sharks have a strong cartilaginous skeleton that helps them maintain a tubular shape,while skates and rays lack such a skeleton.
B)Sharks are more closely related to the tubelike lampreys than skates and rays are.
C)Skates and rays need enlarged pectoral fins to help them stay level in turbulent water,while sharks do not.
D)Skates and rays exchange gases across their skin and thus require a high surface-area-to-volume ratio,while sharks use gills to respire.
E)Sharks are streamlined for active hunting,while skates and rays wait on the ocean bed to ambush prey.
Q2) What group of mammals have (a)embryos that spend more time feeding through the placenta than the mother's nipples,(b)young that feed on milk,and (c)a prolonged period of maternal care after leaving the placenta?
A)Eutheria
B)Marsupiala
C)Monotremata
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following viruses would be the most likely to have reverse transcriptase?
A)an RNA-based lytic virus
B)an RNA-based lysogenic virus
C)a DNA-based lytic virus
D)a DNA-based lysogenic virus
Q2) You isolate a cell infected with an adenovirus.What must you see when you examine the cell?
A)It is a bacterium.
B)It is undergoing mitosis.
C)Reverse transcriptase is present in the nucleus.
D)It does not have a nucleus.
Q3) The virus genome and viral proteins are assembled into virions during _____.
A)both the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle in all host organisms
B)the lysogenic cycle only
C)the lytic cycle only
D)the lytic cycle in all host organisms but the lysogenic cycle only in bacteria
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) In a meristematic region,the cell plate during mitosis is perpendicular to the side of the stem.In what direction will the stem grow?
A)laterally in width
B)vertically in height
Q2) Plant leaf epidermal cells have an amazing array of trichomes.What is not a function of trichomes?
A)impale insects that try to lay eggs on the leaves
B)reflect sunlight in sunny locations
C)open and close for gas exchange
D)repel or trap insects with toxic compounds
E)decrease water loss from leaves
Q3) What best describes the shape of the entire vascular cambium system in trees? Visualizing a pine tree helps with this question.
A)hollow cylinder with a smaller diameter at the base of the tree
B)hollow cylinder with a smaller diameter at the top of the tree
C)solid column of cells with a smaller diameter at the base of the tree
D)solid column of cells with a smaller diameter at the top of the tree
Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Which of the following supports the finding that sugar translocation in phloem is an active (energy-requiring)process?
A)Sucrose occurs in higher concentrations in companion cells than in the mesophyll cells where it is produced.
B)Movement of water occurs from xylem to phloem and back again.
C)Strong pH differences exist between the cytoplasm of the companion cell and the mesophyll cell.
D)H -ATPases are abundant in the plasma membranes of the mesophyll cells.
E)All of the above apply.
Q2) Water potential of plants during night is _____ compared to day water potential due to _____.
A)increased;open stomata
B)increased;closed stomata
C)decreased;open stomata
D)decreased;closed stomata
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Questions
Q1) Why do plants use cotransporters instead of ion channels to transfer anions into cells?
A)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the membrane potential gradient,but ion channels cannot.
B)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the concentration gradient,but ion channels cannot.
C)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the proton gradient,but ion channels cannot.
D)Anions are too bulky to be transported by ion channels.
Q2) What soil composition would be best for availability of nutrients,water,and root development?
A)equal amounts of sand,clay,and humus
B)higher proportion of humus,lower amounts of clay and sand
C)higher proportion of clay,lower amounts of humus and sand
D)higher proportion of sand,lower amount of humus and clay
Q3) What is the charge on the inside of a plant cell plasma membrane?
A)positive
B)negative
C)neutral
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) Why does Arabidopsis have five genes that code for phytochrome?
A)They mediate different types of responses to red/far-red light.
B)Several of them sense red light and the others sense far-red light.
C)All five phytochrome absorb different types of light,maximizing sensitivity of a plant to it.
D)Some of the phytochromes do not function in light absorption but regulate other processes.
Q2) A caterpillar eats a leaf of a plant.The next day it crawls to a nearby leaf to eat.But after eating the second leaf,the caterpillar gets very sick and falls off the plant.Which of the following molecules were involved in the plant's ability to defend itself against the second attack?
A)proteinase inhibitors
B)systemin
C)jasmonic acid
D)proteinase inhibitors,systemin,and jasmonic acid
E)proteinase inhibitors and jasmonic acid
Q3) Refer to Table 39.1.Plant C is a long-day plant.
A)True
B)False
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) Which of these events occurs first in seed germination?
A)Cell division occurs in the embryo,and growth starts.
B)Mitochondria multiply and provide energy for growth processes.
C)Water is taken up.
D)Oxygen is produced and proteins are synthesized.
E)New mRNAs and proteins are produced.
Q2) Suppose that 100 pollen grains land on a stigma,and 50 mature seeds are formed in the fruit.What does this indicate about the pollination process and success?
A)50% success: 100 pollen grains grew to 50 ovules,and double fertilization occurred
B)50% success: evidently,only 50 sperm pollinated 50 anthers
C)50% success: 50 sperm fertilized 50 eggs,and 50 sperm fused with 50 polar nuclei
D)50% success: 50 sperm fertilized 50 eggs,and 50 sperm fused with 100 polar nuclei
Q3) Plants in crop fields such as corn are genetically very similar.What are benefits of this phenomenon? What are pitfalls of this phenomenon?
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42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Chum salmon (Oncorhynchus keta)are born in freshwater environments and then migrate to the sea.Near the end of their lives,they return to the freshwater stream where they were born to spawn.In freshwater,water constantly diffuses into the body and ions are lost from the body.In salt water,body water diffuses out of the body and excess ions are gained from the water.A salmon's gills have special cells to pump salt in or out of the body to maintain homeostasis.In response to the salmon's moves between freshwater and salt water,some cells in the gills are produced and others are destroyed.These changes made in the cells of the gills during the lifetime of an individual salmon are an example of which of the following?
A)evolution
B)trade-off
C)acclimatization
D)adaptation
Q2) Which of the following structural features of epithelial tissues are related to the function of these cells?
A)They have polarity.
B)They have a long life span.
C)low rates of mitosis and cytokinesis
D)The cells are loosely packed.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Q1) A potassium ion gradient is set up in the Malpighian tubules through an active transport process.As a result,potassium concentration is higher in the lumen of the tubules than in hemolymph.How would the potassium gradient affect water movement?
A)Water would be forced out of the lumen of the Malpighian tubules through an osmotic gradient.
B)The potassium gradient would have no effect on water movement.
C)There would be a net movement of water into the lumen of the tubules.
D)Water would be conserved,forming a hypertonic solution in the Malpighian tubules.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of osmoregulation?
A)two solutions that are isotonic
B)the contractile vacuole of a Paramecium
C)type 2 diabetes mellitus
D)all of the above
Q3) Figure 42.1 shows a nephron.Where does filtration take place in the nephron?
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44
Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major enzyme involved in protein digestion is _____.
A)pancreatic lipase
B)amylase
C)pepsin
D)lingual lipase
Q2) Amino acids,dipeptides,and sugars are transported from intestinal epithelial cells into circulation.Lipids are transported from the intestinal epithelium into _____.
A)smooth muscles that make up the core of the villi of the intestinal epithelium
B)the lymph system
C)the liver
D)the gallbladder
Q3) Glucose is transported from the intestinal lumen into epithelial cells through _____ and from the intestinal epithelium into circulation by _____.
A)facilitated diffusion;primary active transport
B)cotransport with sodium;cotransport with sodium
C)cotransport with sodium;facilitated diffusion
D)active transport;active transport
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) Which of the four muscular chambers of the human heart directly propels blood into the pulmonary circulation?
A)right atrium
B)right ventricle
C)left atrium
D)left ventricle
Q2) Which of the following conditions would be the most likely result of an abnormally high blood pressure in an animal like a reptile possessing a closed circulatory system?
A)hemorrhage in the capillary beds
B)hemorrhage in the aorta
C)reversal of normal blood flow direction in the veins
D)all of the above
Q3) What is the QRS complex in an ECG tracing?
A)ventricular depolarization
B)depolarization spreading from the SA node throughout the atria
C)ventricular repolarization
D)the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur
E)one full cardiac cycle
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Stem cell transplants may someday be used to treat Parkinson's disease.Researchers are hopeful that these cells would alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease by _____.
A)preventing temporal lobe seizures
B)repairing sites of traumatic brain injury
C)replenishing missing ion channels
D)secreting the neurotransmitter dopamine
E)preventing temporal lobe seizures and secreting the neurotransmitter dopamine
Q2) If you experimentally increase the concentration of Na outside a cell while maintaining other ion concentrations as they were,what would happen to the cell's membrane potential?
A)The membrane potential would decrease.
B)The membrane potential would increase.
C)The membrane potential would be unaffected.
D)The answer depends on the thermodynamic potential.
Q3) A large meal is likely to result in activity in which set of nerves?
A)parasympathetic nerves
B)somatic nerves
C)sympathetic nerves
D)both the somatic and sympathetic nerves
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) What is the function of the cochlea?
A)to amplify the sound vibrations
B)to collect sound pressure waves
C)to detect the frequency of sounds
D)to amplify the sound vibrations and collect sound pressure waves
E)to amplify the sound vibrations,collect sound pressure waves,and detect the frequency of sounds
Q2) Corneal surgery is now routinely performed to improve vision.This surgery _____.
A)improves the circulation of nutrients to the eye
B)improves the focusing of light onto the retina
C)increases the amount of light entering the eye
D)increases the sensitivity of the photoreceptors
E)both improves the focusing of light onto the retina and increases the amount of light entering the eye
Q3) The amount of depolarization that occurs in a sound-receptor cell is proportional to the volume (loudness)of the sound.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Signal transduction occurs when a chemical message at the cell surface elicits a response inside the cell.Which one of the following events is not associated with signal transduction?
A)protein phosphorylation
B)cell-surface receptor binding
C)internal receptor binding
D)second messenger activation
Q2) Which of the following is true during a typical cAMP-type signal transduction event?
A)The second messenger is the last part of the system to be activated.
B)The hormone activates the second messenger by directly binding to it.
C)The second messenger amplifies the hormonal response by attracting more hormones to the cell being affected.
D)Adenylyl cyclase is activated after the hormone binds to the cell and before phosphorylation occurs.
Q3) Which of the following hormones does not act using a second messenger system?
A)glucagon
B)leptin
C)testosterone
D)growth hormone
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following is not an example of asexual reproduction?
A)parthenogenesis in lizards
B)budding in sponges
C)binary fission in Amoeba
D)fertilization in Daphnia
Q2) You decide to study two species of birds,both of which form monogamous pairs (one male and one female).In species 1,you find that the eggs in a pair's nest are in fact almost always the offspring of that pair.In species 2,you are surprised to find that many of the eggs in a nest were actually fathered by males of neighboring pairs.Apparently,mating outside of monogamous pairings is widespread in species 2.Given this information,what would be the logical prediction to make before comparing testis size of males of the two species?
A)Testes of species 1 are larger than testes of species 2.
B)Testes of species 2 are larger than testes of species 1.
C)There is no relationship between this observation and the size of testes.
Q3) Asexual reproduction results in offspring that are genetically identical to their parent.What type of cell division occurs to generate this type of offspring?
A)mitosis
B)meiosis
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is a difference between Class I and Class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC)proteins?
A)Class I MHC proteins can be found on most cell types and signals that this cell has been compromised,while Class II proteins are found on cells of the immune system and are designed to activate immune responses.
B)Class I MHC proteins are added to antigens in the cytoplasm,while Class II proteins are added to antigens in the Golgi apparatus.
C)Class I MHC proteins signal the immune system to activate the cell displaying the message,while Class II proteins signal the immune system to destroy a particular cell.
D)Class I and Class II MHC proteins have the same basic role,but individuals with particularly strong immune systems will have both types while most individuals have just one or the other.
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true of epitopes?
A)B-cell receptors bind to epitopes.
B)T-cell receptors bind to epitopes.
C)There can be 10 or more different epitopes on each antigen.
D)There is a one-to-one correspondence between antigen and epitope.
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding temperate grasslands is false?
A)Prairie fires can result from lightning strikes.
B)Grassland soils are not very fertile.
C)Grasslands are lower in productivity than tropical forest communities.
D)Grasslands have too little precipitation to support abundant tree growth.
Q2) Using the Bhatla et al.(2004)reference and your knowledge about the Hadley cell,would you expect a difference in thermodynamic parameters with monsoon magnitude and variability with latitude?
A)Yes
B)No
C)From the information given,it is impossible to tell if there will be a difference in thermodynamic parameters with monsoon magnitude and variability with latitude.
Q3) What would happen to the seasons if the Earth were tilted 35 degrees off its orbital plane instead of the usual 23.5 degrees?
A)The seasons would disappear.
B)Winters and summers would be more severe.
C)Winters and summers would be less severe.
D)The seasons would be shorter.
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Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) Any process in which a signal from one individual modifies the behavior of a recipient individual is termed _____.
A)cognition
B)communication
C)reflex
D)perception
E)conditioning
Q2) If you ask a question about behavior that concerns how it works,or what its mechanism is,you are asking a question that involves _____.
A)ultimate causation
B)proximate causation
C)adaptive significance
D)survival value
E)the neurological,hormonal,and skeletal-muscular level of analysis
Q3) In Figure 51.2,do the data support the hypothesis that females need spring-like light conditions to produce mature follicles?
A)yes
B)no
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) In Figure 52.1,which of the following survivorship curves applies to most plant species?
A)curve A
B)curve B
C)curve C
D)none of the above
Q2) The graph (b)in Figure 52.8 shows the normal fluctuations of a population of grouse.Assuming graph (a)in Figure 52.8 is the result of some experimental treatment in the grouse population,what can be concluded?
A)The experimental treatment exacerbated the population cycling.
B)The experimental treatment did not affect population cycling in this species.
C)The experimental treatment has most likely identified the cause of population cycling.
D)None of the above answers applies.
Q3) In Figure 52.4,which of the arrows represents the most rapid population growth?
A)arrow A
B)arrow B
C)arrow C
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54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) What does the graph in Figure 53.7 tell you about the definition of a keystone species?
A)A keystone species has little interaction with other species in an environment.
B)Removing a keystone species from the community drastically reduces diversity.
C)Adding a keystone species to the community will make it more robust.
D)A keystone species added to the community can make it more robust.
E)Removing a keystone species from the community will eventually allow for the invasion of a new species.
Q2) Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics.As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates,birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants.What is the specific benefit relationship?
A)Birds benefit from the association but have no impact on the ants.
B)Birds benefit from the association and harm the ants.
C)Birds and ants benefit from the association.
D)Birds do not benefit from the association,but the ants do.
E)Neither birds nor ants benefit from the association.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of the following human activities is impacting the water cycle the least?
A)increase in asphalt and concrete surfaces
B)conversion of grasslands and forests into agricultural fields
C)increased processing of salt water to freshwater
D)increases in irrigated agriculture
Q2) Considering the global carbon cycle,where are humans having a large impact?
A)terrestrial ecosystems
B)oceans
C)atmosphere
D)beneath the surface of the Earth
E)in both terrestrial ecosystems and the atmosphere
Q3) Which of the following could be a cause of eutrophication?
A)adding a large amount of a limiting resource to an aquatic ecosystem
B)adding a large amount of a limiting resource to a terrestrial ecosystem
C)removing a limiting resource from an aquatic ecosystem
D)removing a limiting resource from a terrestrial ecosystem
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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39 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the true statement regarding species diversity and taxonomic diversity?
A)Species diversity measures the relative frequency of all alleles present in a species.
B)In taxonomic diversity,the evolutionary relationships of species in a lineage are important.
C)In species diversity,the number of animals in a particular lineage is important.
D)The variety of species in a given area represents taxonomic diversity.
Q2) Based on Figure 55.2,what snake antivenom would you administer to a person bitten by a king brown snake?
A)taipan
B)common brown snake
C)red-bellied black snake
D)death adder
E)tiger snake
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