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Foundations of Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Foundations of Anatomy and Physiology introduces students to the fundamental principles underlying the structure and function of the human body. This course explores the organization of cells, tissues, and organ systems, emphasizing the interrelationships between anatomical form and physiological processes. Students will examine major body systems such as the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and integumentary systems. Through a combination of theoretical study and practical applications, this course provides a comprehensive understanding essential for further study in health and biomedical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy Physiology 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) This is the sum of all chemical processes that occur in the body.
A)metabolism
B)anabolism
C)catabolism
D)auscultation
E)palpation
Answer: A
Q2) The brain is located in the
A)cranial cavity.
B)vertebral cavity.
C)abdominal cavity.
D)pericardial cavity.
E)pleural cavity.
Answer: A
Q3) List the basic processes of life.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Describe a feedback system and list its general components.
Answer: No Answer
Q5) Describe the anatomical position.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the major significance of the element nitrogen in the human body?
A)ionized form makes body fluids acidic
B)ionized form is most plentiful anion in extracellular fluid
C)ionized form is needed for action of many enzymes
D)is a component of all proteins and nucleic acids
E)ionized form is most plentiful cation in extracellular fluid
Answer: D
Q2) This type of protein is involved with shortening of muscle cells to produce movement.
A)contractile
B)structural
C)regulatory
D)catalytic
E)transport
Answer: A
Q3) Define mixture and then distinguish between the three types of mixtures called solutions,colloids and suspensions.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles is the site of synthesis of membrane proteins and secretory proteins?
A)rough endoplasmic reticulum
B)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)nucleus
D)centrosome
E)Golgi complex
Answer: A
Q2) How long does the G phase normally last?
A)8 to 10 hours
B)4 to 6 hours
C)2 to 4 hours
D)24 hours
E)1 to 2 days
Answer: B
Q3) Briefly describe the driving force for the movement of water across plasma membranes.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Briefly state the functions of the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: No Answer
Page 5
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the difference(s)between an endocrine and an exocrine gland.
Q2) Which of the following types of tissues is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body?
A)skeletal muscle
B)smooth muscle
C)cardiac muscle
D)intercalated cells
E)myoblasts
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the main tissue types found in the human body?
A)epithelial
B)connective
C)myocardial
D)muscle
E)nervous
Q4) Name and briefly describe the different categories of epithelial tissues based on cell shape and number of layers of cells found in the tissue.
Q5) Briefly describe the four parts of an osteon.
Q6) Name and briefly describe the two types of growth seen in cartilage.
Q7) Discuss how a damaged tissue is repaired.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus,which is the thickening of the ________ of the epidermis.
A)stratum basale
B)stratum spinosum
C)stratum granulosum
D)stratum lucidum
E)stratum corneum
Q2) This pigment secreted by specialized cells in the skin is capable of absorbing ultraviolet light.
A)Keratin
B)Melanin
C)Melatonin
D)Carotene
E)Collagen
Q3) This type of exocrine gland is a simple,branched acinar gland connected to a hair follicle.
A)Sebaceous gland
B)Sudoriferous gland
C)Both sebaceous gland and sudoriferous gland
D)None of these answers are correct
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) This is the region of a long bone that articulates with other bones.
A)diaphysis
B)epiphysis
C)metaphysis
D)periosteum
E)dmarrow
Q2) One function of this long bone structure is the storage of energy in the form of triglycerides.
A)diaphysis
B)epiphysis
C)metaphysis
D)periosteum
E)marrow
Q3) Which of the following statements about bone remodeling is FALSE?
A)It occurs throughout your lifetime.
B)It involves bone resorption.
C)It involves bone deposition.
D)It occurs at different rates at different locations.
E)It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone.
Q4) Briefly,explain how blood calcium level is regulated.
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
A)fissure.
B)foramen.
C)fossa.
D)meatus.
E)sulcus.
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A)The axial skeleton has 80 bones.
B)The appendicular skeleton has 126 bones.
C)The axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of the body.
D)Children have more bones than adults.
E)The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles.
Q3) Briefly describe the five categories of bones found in the human body based on the shape of the bones.
Q4) Briefly describe the six fontanels of the infant skull including their location,shape and time of closure.
Q5) Briefly discuss the main structural features of the temporal bones.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each lower limb has
A)30 bones found in 3 locations.
B)30 bones found in 4 locations.
C)32 bones found in 3 locations.
D)32 bones found in 3 locations
E)34 bones found in 4 locations
Q2) Which of the following structures on the ulna receives the trochlea of the humerus?
A)Olecranon fossa
B)Coronoid process
C)Trochlear notch
D)Radial notch
E)Capitulum
Q3) This bone has an S-shape that includes the medial half of the bone being convex anteriorly and the lateral half being concave anteriorly.
A)Sternum
B)Scapula
C)Humerus
D)Clavicle
E)Ileum
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The joint between the first rib and the manubrium of the sternum is classified as A)a synchondrosis.
B)a synarthrosis.
C)a cartilaginous joint.
D)All of these choices.
E)None of these choices.
Q2) Disuse of a limb,like would occur when the limb is in a cast,leads to muscular atrophy and __________ of the affected joint.
A)increased range of motion
B)decreased range of motion
C)increased fluid accumulation in bursa
D)loosening of the tendons
E)chronic inflammation
Q3) List and briefly describe the three common types of arthritis.
Q4) Briefly describe what is happening when a person "cracks their knuckles".
Q5) List the three functional classifications of joints,and briefly describe the basis for the functional classification of joints.
Q6) What unique characteristics would a person who is "double-jointed" possess?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the structural characteristics of the three different types of muscular tissue.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT seen in exercise-induced muscle damage?
A)torn sarcolemmas
B)damaged myofibrils
C)sore muscles
D)progressive degeneration of muscles
E)disrupted Z-discs
Q3) Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytosol
A)at the beginning of a contraction.
B)in response to acetylcholine binding to Ca2+ release channels.
C)by active transport using Ca2+ pumps in the SR membrane.
D)after the contraction ends.
E)All of these answers are correct.
Q4) How much of the total body weight of an average adult is muscle tissue?
A)20-30%
B)30-40%
C)40-50%
D)50-60%
E)60-70%
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This type of fascicle arrangement has the fascicles spread over a broad area and converges at a thick central tendon.
A)triangular
B)pennate
C)circular
D)fusiform
E)multipennate
Q2) In which of the following body regions,would you find the external anal sphincter?
A)peritoneum
B)perineum
C)pelvic cavity
D)abdominal cavity
E)thoracic cavity
Q3) Briefly describe the three categories of levers based on the position of their fulcrum.Give an example of each type of lever and state whether the lever works at a mechanical advantage,disadvantage or both.
Q4) Discuss the roles of agonists,antagonists,synergists,and fixators in movement.
Q5) Briefly describe four main benefits of stretching before exercising.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of neurons is exclusively found in the cerebellum?
A)bipolar neuron
B)multipolar neuron
C)Purkinje cells
D)unipolar neuron
E)pyramidal cells
Q2) An excitatory neurotransmitter _________ the postsynaptic membrane.
A)depolarizes
B)repolarizes
C)hyperpolarizes
D)does not affect the polarity of E)moves across channels in
Q3) Which of the following types of electrical signals allow rapid long-distance communication within the nervous system?
A)resting potential
B)nerve action potential
C)muscle action potential
D)graded potential
E)long-term potentiation
Q4) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the clinical significance of dermatomes.
Q2) A reflex pathway having only one synapse in the CNS is called a A)visceral reflex arc.
B)somatic reflex arc.
C)polysynaptic reflex arc.
D)autonomic reflex arc.
E)none of these choices
Q3) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc would have a cell body in the posterior root ganglion?
A)Sensory receptor cell
B)Sensory neuron
C)Motor neuron
D)Effector
E)Interneuron
Q4) Which region of the spinal cord carries nerve impulses for proprioception?
A)Posterior white column
B)Anterior gray horn
C)Anterior white column
D)Lateral white column
E)Dermatome tract
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) An electroencephalogram (EEG)measures brain waves primarily generated by
A)neurons in the pons.
B)neurons in the medulla oblongata.
C)neurons in the thalamus.
D)neurons in the cerebral cortex.
E)neurons in the cerebellum.
Q2) Together the lentiform and caudate nuclei are known as the A)globus pallidus.
B)putamen.
C)medial geniculate nucleus.
D)corpus striatum.
E)internal capsule.
Q3) Which of the following cranial nerves carries sensory information coming from the nasal cavity to the olfactory area of the cerebrum?
A)cranial nerve I
B)cranial nerve V
C)cranial nerve VI
D)cranial nerve VIII
E)cranial nerve X
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response.
Q2) Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activities by?1.increasing activities in effector tissue.?2.decreasing activities in effector tissue.?3.changing the direction of impulse conduction across synapses.
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)Both 1 and 2
E)None of these choices
Q3) Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?
A)Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve.
B)Has myelinated axons.
C)Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
D)Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
E)Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.
Q4) Based on your knowledge of ANS receptors,explain how beta blockers are able to manage conditions such as hypertension (high blood pressure)?
Q5) Compare and contrast the overall responses of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorder is characterized by difficulty in falling asleep and staying asleep?
A)narcolepsy
B)insomnia
C)sleep apnea
D)coma
E)amnesia
Q2) Infants spend approximately 50% of their sleeping time in
A)stage one NREM sleep.
B)stage two NREM sleep.
C)stage three NREM sleep.
D)stage four NREM sleep.
E)REM sleep.
Q3) Which of the following are proprioceptors found in the articular capsules of synovial joints?
A)Tendon organs
B)Gamma motor neurons
C)Muscle spindles
D)Kinesthetic receptors
E)Tactile receptors
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lens is made of layers of proteins called A)choroids.
B)ciliary bodies.
C)crystallins.
D)cones.
E)rods.
Q2) How many days after fertilization do the eyes begin to develop?
A)5
B)150
C)10
D)22
E)55
Q3) Which of the following nerves conducts impulses associated with the sense of gustation?
A)Vestibulocochlear
B)Oculomotor
C)Vagus
D)Trigeminal
E)Spinal accessory
Q4) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of hormone that is secreted from an endocrine gland in response to a chemical change in the blood?
A)Parathyroid hormone release from the parathyroid gland.
B)Insulin release from the pancreas.
C)Glucagon release from the pancreas.
D)ADH release from the posterior pituitary gland.
E)All the answer selections are correct.
Q2) Which of the following hormones is an amine hormone derived from serotonin?
A)Melatonin
B)Melanin
C)Glucose
D)Glucocorticoid
E)Eicosanoid
Q3) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol?
A)Leutinizing hormone
B)Prolactin
C)Insulin-like growth factors
D)Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
E)Adrenocorticotropic hormone
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells is not an agranular leukocyte?
A)Monocytes
B)Macrophage
C)Lymphocyte
D)Basophil
E)All of these choices
Q2) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance?
A)Albumin
B)Globulins
C)Fibrinogen
D)Myoglobin
E)Hemoglobin
Q3) The process of a white blood cell squeezing between endothelial cells to exit a blood vessel is called
A)emigration.
B)diaphysis.
C)adhesion.
D)opsonization.
E)phagocytosis.
Q4) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outermost layer of the pericardium,which consists of inelastic dense irregular connective tissue,is called the
A)parietal layer of pericardium.
B)serous pericardium.
C)fibrous pericardium.
D)epicardium.
E)endocardium.
Q2) Which of the following conditions would lead to an increase in the afterload for the ventricles thus lowering stroke volume and cardiac output?
A)hypotension
B)hypertension
C)increased venous return
D)decreased venous return
E)positive inotropic agents
Q3) Briefly describe why cardiac tissue cannot repair itself after damage?
Q4) Why is the myocardium of the left ventricle thicker than the myocardium of the right ventricle?
Q5) Explain how the heart pumps blood into two separate closed circuits that are arranged in series.
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The myogenic response of smooth muscle results in A)more forceful contractions when stretched.
B)more forceful contractions when relaxed
C)tetany.
D)relaxation of smooth muscle when stretched.
E)formation of new desmosomes.
Q2) Which of the following blood vessels carries blood away from the heart to other organs?
A)arteries
B)capillaries
C)venules
D)arterioles
E)veins
Q3) Elastic arteries function as A)vasodilators.
B)conduits to the tissues of the trunk only.
C)barriers to microcirculation.
D)pressure reservoirs.
E)vasoconstrictors.
Q4) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Q1) Natural passive immunity is associated with which of the following?
A)Vaccination
B)Exposure to a microbe resulting in antibody formation
C)Receiving booster shots
D)Transfer of IgG from mother to fetus
E)Intravenous injection of antibodies
Q2) In which part of the thymus are T cells thought to die?
A)Capsule
B)Trabeculae
C)Epithelial cells
D)Hassall's corpuscles
E)T cells do not die in the thymus
Q3) Which class of antibodies indicates a recent invasion?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgM
D)IgD
E)IgG
Q4) List the five actions of antibodies.
24
Q5) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following small intestine cells secrete lysozyme?
A)Goblet cells
B)Absorptive cells
C)Mucosa cells
D)Paneth cells
E)S cells
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the large intestine?
A)Mechanical digestion
B)Chemical digestion
C)Absorption
D)Feces formation
E)Regulation of blood glucose
Q3) Which of the following pancreatic enzymes digests lipids?
A)Trypsin
B)Elastase
C)Lipase
D)Pepsin
E)All of these choices
Q4) Describe the structural characteristics of the small intestine that enhance its function as the major absorber of nutrients.
25
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Chapter 24: Metabolism
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Q1) Identify the different types of lipoproteins and describe the function of each.
Q2) Lipogenesis occurs when
A)More calories are consumed than required for ATP need
B)Less calories are consumed than required for ATP need
C)More cholesterol is consumed than required for ATP need
D)Less cholesterol is consumed than required for ATP need
E)Gluconeogenesis fails
Q3) This process is the synthesis of triglycerides.
A)Gluconeogensis
B)Lipogenesis
C)Phosphorylation
D)Glycolysis
E)Lipolysis
Q4) This reaction oxidizes acetyl CoA to produce carbon dioxide,ATP,NADH+H+ and FADH2.
A)Glycolysis
B)Formation of acetyl co-A
C)Krebs cycle
D)Electron transport chain
E)Phosphorylation
26
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Q1) This is smooth dense irregular connective tissue that is continuous with the outer coat of the ureter.
A)adipose capsule
B)renal capsule
C)renal hilus
D)renal cortex
E)renal medulla
Q2) Which is not a major function of the kidney?
A)regulation of blood ionic composition
B)regulation of blood cell size
C)regulation of blood volume
D)regulation of blood pressure
E)regulation of blood pH
Q3) This is the formation of a new glucose molecule.
A)glycolysis
B)gluconeogenesis
C)glucosamine
D)glucose
E)calcitriol
Q4) Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Describe the functions of testosterone.
Q2) This is secreted by the corpus luteum after ovulation.
A)Progesterone
B)Relaxin
C)LH
D)FSH
E)HGH
Q3) This is composed of three cylindrical masses of erectile tissue each surrounded by a fibrous tissue.
A)Testes
B)Prostate
C)Bladder
D)Penis
E)Urethra
Q4) Female reproductive system arises from
A)Mullerian ducts
B)Wolffian ducts
Q5) Describe the positive feedback loop involved in ovulation.
Q6) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
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Chapter 27: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy characterized by at least 3 X chromosomes (XXX)?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Metafemale syndrome
C)Turner's syndrome
D)lethal gene
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q2) Clubfeet is an example of which condition listed?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Deformation
C)Turner's syndrome
D)breech presentation
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q3) This is a series of functional changes that sperm go through when they are in the female reproductive tract.
A)Acrosomal reaction
B)Maturation
C)Fertilization
D)Capacitation
E)Polyspermy
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