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This course provides an in-depth exploration of the origins, principles, and development of American government. Students will examine the philosophical and historical foundations of the U.S. political system, including the influence of Enlightenment thought, colonial experiences, and the drafting of key documents such as the Declaration of Independence and the Constitution. The course covers the structure and functions of the federal government, the system of checks and balances, federalism, and the evolution of civil liberties and rights. Through analysis of primary sources and case studies, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how American governmental institutions operate, adapt, and impact society.
Recommended Textbook
MindTapR in Action American Government 1st Edition by Cengage
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15 Chapters
750 Verified Questions
750 Flashcards
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Q1) Which Supreme Court case reversed the earlier decision of Bowers v. Hardwick?
A) Marbury v. Madison
B) Lawrence v. Texas
C) Plessy v. Ferguson
D) Brown v. Board of Education
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the Federalist Papers addressed the issue of the strength of the state government under the Constitution?
A) Number 10
B) Number 46
C) Number 51
D) Number 84
Answer: B
Q3) What action precipitated the Intolerable, or Coercive, Acts?
A) The Boston Tea Party
B) The publication of Common Sense
C) The signing of the Declaration of Independence
D) The convening of the Stamp Act Congress
Answer: A
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Q1) Sovereignty is best defined as the
A) authority and power to govern the people within the territory of a nation-state.
B) right to govern regardless of the will of the people.
C) intent to govern within the territory and colonies of a nation-state.
D) absolute authority that derives from a constitutional monarchy.
Answer: A
Q2) What part of the Constitution could be interpreted to support the idea of state-centered federalism?
A) Article I
B) Article VI
C) The Tenth Amendment
D) The Eleventh Amendment
Answer: C
Q3) What issue was impacted in the case United States v. Lopez?
A) Gun control legislation
B) Segregation in schools
C) Federal health care
D) Immigration law
Answer: A
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Q1) How many amendments were in the original draft of the Bill of Rights?
A) Six
B) Eight
C) Ten
D) Twelve
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following violates the establishment clause?
A) A short prayer held at the beginning of the school day in a public school
B) A private prayer a student makes prior to taking an exam
C) A prayer group that meets before the school day begins at a private school
D) A required student prayer in a religiously affiliated private school
Answer: A
Q3) The National Firearms Act
A) established taxation and regulation of certain firearms.
B) mandated federal background checks prior to a handgun purchase from a federally licensed dealer.
C) settled the debate about whether individuals not belonging to a militia could own handguns.
D) clearly defined the Second Amendment phrase "bear arms."
Answer: A
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Q1) The Americans with Disabilities Act was signed in A) 1943.
B) 1968.
C) 1990.
D) 2011.
Q2) When was the Equal Pay Act signed?
A) 1948
B) 1952
C) 1963
D) 2009
Q3) Redistricting is the process of drawing new legislative boundaries in response to A) voter turnout in the previous election.
B) the decennial census.
C) favoritism for a candidate.
D) immigration patterns.
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Q1) Reapportionment
A) calculates the number of senators each state gets.
B) results in some states gaining and some states losing seats.
C) rarely results in redistricting.
D) directly impacts funding for congressional races.
Q2) Which of the following statements about rules of debate on legislation is <b><u>true</b></u>?
I. In the House, any member who wishes to speak about a particular issue is given a specific amount of time to talk by the Speaker.
II. In the House, once debate is closed, final conversation can occur in a specific amount of time before the vote is called.
III. In the Senate, a member may keep discussing a bill after debate is closed to keep it from coming up for a vote.
IV. Three-fifths of the Senate must vote to decide to close debate for a legislative matter.
A) Statements I, II, and III
B) Statements II and III
C) Statements I and II
D) Statements I, III, and IV
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Q1) After September 11, 2001, President George W. Bush shifted the focus of American foreign policy to protecting the United States
A) by rebuilding the allied forces.
B) by returning to isolationism.
C) from domestic security leaks.
D) from terrorists and declaring a "war on terrorism."
Q2) The Marshall Plan was made possible by the
A) development and use of the atomic bomb through executive order.
B) reorientation of U.S. foreign policy through the Truman Doctrine.
C) increased spending on the military by the Office of Management and Budget.
D) maintenance of U.S. foreign policy through the Truman Doctrine.
Q3) What is the National Security Council?
A) It is a committee for domestic security issues.
B) It is a committee that is charged with helping the president implement military strategies.
C) It is a committee for foreign policy and military issues.
D) It is a committee for policies related to the right to privacy and national security.
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Q1) How was the bureaucracy affected under Roosevelt's New Deal?
A) Government growth was curtailed until the Great Depression ended.
B) Government growth was curtailed until the end of World War II.
C) The government extended its role in the economy and created federal programs in response to the Great Depression.
D) The government extended its role in the economy and created local programs in response to World War II.
Q2) What office has the responsibility to support Congress in meeting its constitutional responsibilities and to help improve the performance and ensure the accountability of the federal government?
A) The Office of Personnel Management
B) The Government Accountability Office
C) The Congressional Research Office
D) The Office of Special Counsel
Q3) Who creates bureaucratic agencies and provides oversight?
A) The judicial branch
B) The cabinet
C) The executive branch
D) The legislative branch
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Q1) The Supreme Court is the only court allowed to hear all of the following cases <b><u>except</u></b> those
A) affecting the military.
B) affecting ambassadors.
C) affecting other public ministers.
D) in which a state is a party.
Q2) Appeals to the U.S. Circuit Court are
A) trials showing that the original case was handled improperly.
B) retrials of the original case.
C) local cases involving original jurisdiction.
D) federal cases involving original jurisdiction.
Q3) The Constitution states that federal judges and justices are to be
A) elected by the people.
B) appointed by the House of Representatives, subject to confirmation by the Senate.
C) appointed by the president, subject to confirmation by the Senate.
D) appointed and confirmed by the president.
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Q1) The tools of content analysis are used to understand
A) the impact of policy initiatives on a particular group.
B) mass public opinion.
C) the opinion of a particular interest group.
D) the broader policy agenda, especially the preferences and agenda of elites.
Q2) ________ tends to be cited as the critical factor determining Americans' opinions on social issues, such as same-sex marriage.
A) Religion
B) Gender
C) Age
D) Ethnicity
Q3) In line graphs, the horizontal axis is called the ________, and it is often used to
A) X-axis; display demographic categories
B) X-axis; demonstrate change over time
C) Y-axis; display demographic categories
D) Y-axis; demonstrate change over time
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Q1) Which of the following was <b><u>not </b></u>a cause of the "advocacy explosion"?
A) Decreasing startup costs for new interest groups
B) Increased affluence and education since World War II
C) Response to the turmoil of the 1960s that exposed areas of great conflict
D) Increased influence of the news media
Q2) Which description encompasses trade associations, labor unions, and professional associations?
A) Issue interest groups
B) Business interest groups
C) Political action committees
D) Public interest groups
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a professional association?
A) Democratic Governor's Association
B) American Conservative Union
C) American Medical Association
D) National Rifle Association
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Q1) Which of the following is <b><u>not</b></u> a role of the media?
A) To report the news and inform the public
B) To function as a watchdog for the political system
C) To educate policymakers about the legislative process
D) To serve as an agent of political socialization
Q2) Which of the following statements about members of the media is <b><u>not </b></u>true?
A) Members of the media tend to report poll numbers.
B) Members of the media tend to focus on third-party candidates.
C) Members of the media tend to report debate strategies of major party candidates.
D) Members of the media tend to report debate styles of major party candidates.
Q3) The Cable News Network broadcasts news for
A) 8 hours per day.
B) 12 hours per day.
C) 16 hours per day.
D) 24 hours per day.
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Q1) What were political party machines?
A) A type of entertainment developed to bring potential voters into the fold
B) Voting methods designed to garner the greatest number of votes in a specific election
C) Local organizations capable of mobilizing or manufacturing large numbers of votes on behalf of candidates
D) Groups of political parties that worked against one another in order to inspire voters to contribute time and money
Q2) Why was instant runoff voting (IRV) developed?
A) To provide fairness in local elections, such as those for school boards and city councils
B) To ensure that the winning candidate has the support of the majority of the voters in the district
C) To offer representation for single-issue preferences, as they relate to stringent ideological views
D) To distribute multiple seats fairly in a district to correspond to the proportion of the total votes cast
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Q1) "The extent to which an individual pays attention to politics and understands what he or she has encountered" is the definition of political
A) impact.
B) behavior.
C) awareness.
D) participation.
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the three characteristics generally shared by people who participate in unconventional methods of political participation?
A) Distrust of the political system
B) Highly developed sense of group consciousness
C) Strong sense of political efficacy
D) Desire to use representative channels of government
Q3) What is the predominant voting system in Western Europe?
A) Mixed
B) Majoritarian
C) Plurality-majority
D) Proportional representation
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Q1) Which statement about voter initiatives is <b><u>not</u></b> accurate?
A) The effect of initiatives is stronger for congressional elections.
B) Initiatives have a positive effect on voter turnout in both high and low elections.
C) It is clear that initiatives originated long before the beginning of the Progressive era.
D) There may be an overall decline in trust in government as voters are exposed to more popular initiatives.
Q2) Which of the following is <b><u>not</u></b> one of the main functions served by the media in covering the news?
A) Priming
B) Identifying sources
C) Framing
D) Setting the agenda
Q3) Which of the following is commonly referred to as a swing state?
A) Florida
B) Illinois
C) Louisiana
D) Arizona
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Q1) Tying health care benefits to employment is most commonly associated with labor conditions during
A) World War II.
B) the Great Depression.
C) the Korean War.
D) Reconstruction.
Q2) Medicare can best be described as a comprehensive health program for Americans who are
A) infants.
B) noncitizens.
C) unemployed.
D) senior citizens.
Q3) Which type of public policymaking tends to involve the highest levels of conflict?
A) Distributive
B) Regulatory
C) Business
D) Redistributive
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