Foundations of Abnormal Behavior Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Abnormal Behavior provides an in-depth exploration of the origins, symptoms, classification, and treatment of psychological disorders. The course examines historical and contemporary perspectives on abnormal psychology, highlighting the biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors that contribute to mental health conditions. Students will analyze diagnostic systems, such as the DSM, and study specific disorders including anxiety, mood, psychotic, and personality disorders. Through case studies and evidence-based research, the course fosters critical thinking about the ethical, cultural, and practical issues involved in assessing and addressing abnormal behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by Jill M. Hooley
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17 Chapters
2107 Verified Questions
2107 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: Overview and Research Approaches
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions accounts for the biggest percentage of the global burden of disease?
A) Tuberculosis
B) HIV/AIDS
C) Drug use disorders
D) Depressive disorders
Answer: D
Q2) What is important to remember about the apparent high lifetime rate of mental disorders?
A) Many people were probably misdiagnosed.
B) So many people have disorders that this has become a major health issue.
C) Many people with disorders are not seriously affected by them or may have them for only a short time.
D) A large majority of people with disorders seek treatment, so the problem is not as bad as it seems.
Answer: C
Q3) Discuss the limitations of self-report data.
Answer: Can be misleading, sometimes deliberately lie, misinterpret questions or try to present themselves more favorably or less favorably than is true.
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) By the end of the nineteenth century ________
A) effective treatments had been developed for many forms of mental illness.
B) little was known about most mental illnesses.
C) asylums were recognized as humanitarian institutions that served an important function.
D) most mental hospitals effectively addressed the physical needs of patients, but ignored other needs.
Answer: B
Q2) The use of malarial fever to treat paresis ________
A) is an example of the barbaric treatment that mental patients received at the beginning of the twentieth century.
B) proved to be so ineffectual that many professionals abandoned the biological explanation of mental disorders.
C) represented the first clear-cut defeat of a mental disorder by medicine.
D) was the first time scientists used knowledge of brain chemistry to develop specific drugs for treating mental disorders.
Answer: C
Q3) Who was Wilhelm Wundt?
Answer: The man who established the first experimental psychology laboratory.
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abused infants and toddlers ________
A) tend to develop into resilient adults.
B) have a tendency to be passive and to avoid conflict with both peers and authorities.
C) are likely to show inconsistent attachment behavior.
D) are likely to develop close bonds with same-sex peers.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is not a common method for studying genetic influences?
A) The study of specific gene defects
B) Twin studies
C) Adoption studies
D) Family history (pedigree) studies
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is a criticism of traditional psychoanalytic theory?
A) Underemphasis on the sex drive
B) Overly positive view of women
C) Lack of scientific evidence
D) Too much focus on symptoms and not enough on underlying causes
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) One criticism of diagnostic labels is that ________
A) they can influence both other people's and the diagnosed person's perception of themselves in negative ways.
B) there are so many different systems of diagnosis that it is hard to understand what an individual diagnosis means.
C) the DSM-5 wording is so complicated to use that few people are able to use it well.
D) they make other information unnecessary, so restrict the type of services that insurance will cover.
Q2) Which of the following is a projective testing method that has been adapted for computer interpretation?
A) The Rorschach Test
B) The MMPI
C) The Thematic Apperception Test
D) The sentence completion test
Q3) Compare and contrast the following: MRIs, PET scans, and fMRI.
Q4) What are the pros and cons of projective and objective personality tests?
Q5) Discuss the difference between symptoms and signs, and explain why both concepts are important in DSM-5 diagnosis.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Stress and Physical and Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe four factors that can worsen a soldier's response to the trauma of combat.
Q2) People with __________personality type have a tendency to experience negative emotions and also to feel insecure and anxious.
Q3) The term "stress" is used in the text to refer to ________
A) only those external events in our lives that challenge us.
B) any positive demand made on an organism.
C) the effects of external stressors within the organism.
D) anything that makes us unhappy.
Q4) What is the term for the biological cost of adapting to stress?
A) Allostatic load
B) Homeostatic load
C) Sympathetic load
D) Parasympathetic load
Q5) According to DSM-5, acute stress disorder becomes PTSD when _________
A) the trauma is an event out of the realm of normal life experience.
B) the symptoms last for more than 2 weeks.
C) the symptoms last for more than 4 weeks.
D) the symptoms begin within 6 months of the trauma.
Q6) The outdated term "shell shock" is renamed __________ today.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Panic, Anxiety, Obsessions, and Their Disorders
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138 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Panic disorders are often misdiagnosed because ________
A) the symptoms overlap so much with major depression.
B) the symptoms are so chronic and mild, they do not seem like serious forms of psychopathology.
C) patients are so embarrassed by their problems, they do not make them known to professionals.
D) symptoms are so somatic they are treated by physicians for medical problems.
Q2) How do cognitions help maintain phobias?
Q3) Discuss the theory of evolutionary preparedness and how it may apply to specific phobia, social phobia and obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Q4) Which of the following are the antidepressants most widely prescribed today for the treatment of panic disorder?
A) SSRIs
B) Tricyclics
C) Anxiolytics
D) Benzodiazepines
Q5) Discuss the findings of cross-cultural research on the anxiety disorders. Provide at least two examples of disorders that illustrate the role of culture.
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Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is necessary for a diagnosis of cyclothymia?
A) The occurrence of two or more episodes of major depression
B) Unremitting symptoms for a period of at least two years
C) Clinically significant distress or impairment
D) The occurrence of at least one episode of anxiety
Q2) Individuals who do not show a decrease in cortisol levels in response to an injection of dexamethasone ________
A) have a severe form of depression.
B) are likely to be suffering from both major depression and a personality disorder.
C) will not respond well to pharmacological treatment.
D) have an HPA axis that is not functioning normally.
Q3) Seasonal affective disorder is best described as a ________ depressive disorder.
A) mood-congruent
B) minor
C) psychotic
D) recurrent
Q4) Describe the hopelessness theory of depression.
Q5) What is the difference between bipolar I and bipolar II disorder?
Q6) The first category of antidepressant medications is __________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is in the DSM-5?
A) Hypochondriasis
B) Somatization disorder
C) Pain disorder
D) Somatic symptom disorder
Q2) Studies of individuals with DID compared to those trained to simulate the disorder
A) support the trauma model more than the sociocognitive model.
B) support the sociocognitive model more than the trauma model.
C) definitively demonstrate that DID is faked, whether intentionally or unintentionally.
D) suggest that DID is faked, but only unconsciously.
Q3) Dissociative identity disorder was formerly known as ________
A) psychogenic amnesia.
B) multiple personality disorder.
C) conversion hysteria.
D) neurasthenia.
Q4) Discuss two of the causal factors of somatic symptom disorder.
Q5) What are some ways to distinguish between conversion disorder and a true physical problem?
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Chapter 9: Eating Disorders and Obesity
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105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has been indicated as the best approach in the treatment of binge eating disorder?
A) Psychodynamic psychotherapy
B) Behavior therapy
C) Mindfulness therapy
D) Interpersonal psychotherapy
Q2) Which statement about the treatment of eating disorders is most accurate?
A) There are very few options available in the treatment of eating disorders.
B) Family support and the patient's commitment to change are important to lasting recovery.
C) There are virtually no situations in which hospitalization is necessary to treat eating disorders.
D) Family involvement in treatment tends to undercut the chances of lasting recovery in the patient.
Q3) The hormone __________ sends a signal that causes most people to reduce their intake of food.
Q4) Why is the term "anorexia nervosa" a misnomer?
Q5) Three types of purging or compensatory behaviors that people with bulimia may engage in are __________, laxative abuse, or excessive exercise.
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Chapter 10: Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is not true of treating personality disorders?
A) Individuals with personality disorders from Clusters A and B are more difficult to treat because of their interpersonal difficulties and reluctance to enter therapy.
B) Treatment for individuals with dependent personality disorder ought to be altered so that excessive dependency is not fostered.
C) People with personality disorders have trouble establishing good therapeutic relationships with their therapist.
D) People with both a personality disorder diagnosis and another type of disorder are easier to treat than people with just a personality disorder because they have more distress.
Q2) The individual with avoidant personality disorder is unlikely to develop lasting relationships as a result of his or her ________
A) callousness.
B) fear of rejection.
C) desire to control others.
D) lack of interest.
Q3) Briefly describe the general characteristics of a personality disorder.
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reciprocal influence model suggests that ________
A) teens will start drinking early no matter what.
B) it may be possible to interrupt the cycle by changing expectancies about drinking.
C) it would be hard to interrupt the cycle because most teens' expectancies about drinking are accurate.
D) even with different expectancies, teens still drink.
Q2) The cause of alcohol hangovers is not well understood, but leading theories include
A) opiods.
B) excess glutamate
C) dehydration.
D) vitamin B deficiency.
Q3) The most potent of the hallucinogens is__________.
Q4) What evidence is there that cultural attitudes play a role in the development of alcohol abuse?
Q5) What factors might be inherited that put one at greater risk for developing alcoholism?
Q6) Barbiturates are most commonly prescribed to allow for__________.
Q7) Describe and give an example of the abstinence violation effect.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In __________, the individual has recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, urges, and behaviors involving the use of some inanimate object or a part of the body not typically found erotic.
A) transvestism
B) gender identity disorder
C) homosexuality
D) fetishistic disorder
Q2) The________ theory, which developed in the 1750s, centered on the idea that semen is necessary for physical and sexual vigor in men.
Q3) Pedophilia frequently involves ________
A) adolescents.
B) oral contact.
C) sadistic acts.
D) masochism.
Q4) Discuss the two main controversies concerning childhood sexual abuse.
Q5) ________________is the paraphilia in which the person has urges involving the real act of inflicting physical suffering on someone for sexual excitement.
Q6) What was unique about Freud's view of homosexuality?
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Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a possible reason why schizophrenia patients in less industrialized countries tend to do better than those in more industrialized countries?
Q2) The inability to initiate or persist in goal-directed activity is called _________
A) alogia.
B) blunted affect.
C) delusions.
D) avolition.
Q3) The Danish adoption studies have been criticized for ________
A) not treating the subjects found to have schizophrenia.
B) not assessing the child-rearing environments of the index and control groups.
C) only studying males.
D) not confirming the family history of the subjects.
Q4) ____________ impairment is regarded as a core feature of schizophrenia.
Q5) First-generation antipsychotics ________
A) work by blocking dopamine receptors.
B) are not effective.
C) produce few side effects.
D) include Risperdal and Zyprexa.
Q6) How is dopamine theorized to induce psychosis?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Neurocognitive Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suddenly, Lavinia is unable to remember what she was doing. She screams that bugs are crawling all over the walls. She begins to wildly swing her arms around. She can't fall asleep at night, but finally falls asleep at daylight. Lavinia most likely has ________
A) dementia.
B) focal brain damage.
C) depression.
D) delirium.
Q2) Which of the following disorders affects men and women in equal numbers and is characterized by a chronic, progressive chorea (involuntary and irregular movements that flow randomly from one area of the body to another)?
A) AIDS
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Huntington's disease
D) Parkinson's disease
Q3) In Alzheimer's disease, __________ are deposits of sticky protein.
Q4) What does the case of Phineas Gage suggest about traumatic brain injury?
Q5) Describe delirium and dementia. What are the main differences?
Q6) What is delirium?
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Chapter 15: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence
(Neurodevelopmental Disorders)
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Sample Questions
Q1) George is in second grade and is having trouble. He frequently is out of his seat, looking at the work of other students and annoying them by making comments. He interrupts the teacher, blurts out answers before she finishes the question, and usually needs directions repeated multiple times. At home, his mother says he is always "on the go." The most likely diagnosis for George is ________
A) conduct disorder.
B) oppositional defiant disorder.
C) separation anxiety disorder.
D) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
Q2) __________________ is(are) the most common of the childhood anxiety disorders.
Q3) The term "juvenile delinquent" is ________
A) used when a diagnosis of early-onset antisocial personality disorder has been made. B) defined by the legal system.
C) inconsistent with the diagnostic criteria for conduct disorder. D) rarely used in modern times.
Q4) Discuss the relationship between oppositional defiant disorder, conduct disorder, juvenile delinquency, and antisocial personality disorder.
Q5) What are the major symptoms of autism spectrum disorder?
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Chapter 16: Psychological Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which client is behavior therapy most likely to be effective?
A) Wilson, whose complaint is fear of spiders.
B) Angela, who has a variety of personality disorders.
C) Colin, who is struggling with vague concerns about his career and marital prospects.
D) Tamara, who is trying to understand the origins of her personality.
Q2) ________ therapies developed in reaction to problems of alienation, loneliness, and failure to find meaning in life.
A) Humanistic-experiential
B) Cognitive
C) Object relations
D) Family
Q3) Which of the following is a disadvantage of psychotherapy?
A) It is ineffective in treating severe mental disorders.
B) It takes time.
C) It is significantly more expensive than all other forms of treatment.
D) It is generally less effective than talking out your problems with a friend or family member.
Q4) What is rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT)? What kind of therapy is REBT?
Q5) What is systematic desensitization, and what is its purpose?
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Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Tarasoff rule usually applies ________
A) anytime a client threatens to do a violent act.
B) only to violent acts against people.
C) only if the target of violence is clearly identifiable.
D) only if the client has given an informed consent.
Q2) What is an important function of organizations such as the American Psychological Association, the American Psychological Society, and the American Medical Association?
A) They fund most of the treatment and prevention research done in the United States.
B) They draw up the policies that determine which clients get treatment and for what duration.
C) They set and maintain professional and ethical standards.
D) They control forensic issues such as the insanity defense and the policies for committing patients against their will.
Q3) According to the M'Naghten Rule, insanity is defined as ________
A) failing to understand the consequences of one's actions.
B) not knowing right from wrong.
C) acting on an irresistible impulse.
D) lacking the capacity to understand that an action violates the law.
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