Forensic Psychology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Forensic Psychology explores the intersection of psychological principles and the legal system, focusing on how psychological knowledge is applied within criminal, civil, and family court settings. The course covers topics such as the assessment of offenders, criminal responsibility, witness credibility, jury decision-making, risk assessment, police psychology, and the treatment and rehabilitation of offenders. Students will gain insights into the roles forensic psychologists play in investigations and trials, ethical considerations, and current research and methodologies relevant to the field.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic and Legal Psychology Psychological Science Applied to Law 2nd Edition by Mark Costanzo
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Section 1: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) Compare and contrast the approaches of psychology and law. Which system is more open to change?
Answer: Main points:
Psychology and law represent two different cultures. They differ in goals (truth vs. justice), methods (data vs. rulings), and styles of inquiry (objectivity vs. advocacy).
Psychology as a science is based on relativism (of knowledge and theories).
Law as a system is rooted in the past (rulings, precedents).
Psychology is more egalitarian, law is a more hierarchical system.
Psychology is more open to change since science implies skepticism and new discoveries while law abides by past decisions (precedents).
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Chapter 1: Section 2: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) According to the text, the goal of psychology is to ____, whereas the goal of the legal system is to _____.
A) emphasize the characteristics of groups; emphasize individual cases
B) emphasize individual cases; emphasize the characteristics of groups
C) apply abstract principles; understand the general nature of humans
D) develop legal protocol; generalize details of a case
Answer: A
Q2) Legal realists:
A) thought judicial decisions reflected principles found in nature.
B) felt judges used careful logic to arrive at a single correct decision in a particular case.
C) believed judges constructed the law through their interpretations of evidence and precedent.
D) showed little interest in applying social science research to the legal system.
Answer: C
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Chapter 1: Section 3: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the four guidelines established by Daubert?
A) Falsifiability of the technique.
B) A known error rate.
C) General acceptance in the scientific community.
D) Review by appellate courts.
Answer: D
Q2) Research presented in Chapter 1 suggests that most state court judges _____ their gatekeeping role established in Daubert _____ adequately define the four guidelines for admissibility.
A) do not support; because they cannot
B) support; and they can
C) do not support; though they can
D) support; whereas they cannot
Answer: D
Q3) After Daubert, judges are more likely to:
A) permit expert testimony in federal cases.
B) exclude expert testimony even if it's based on valid science.
C) allow expert testimony, but only with regard to competency to stand trial.
D) be required to obtain education in social scientific research methods.
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 2: Section 1: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) Describe some common types of false confessions, reasons behind them, and police tactics that lead to a higher incidence of false confessions.
Q2) What has been the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the use of deception by police during interrogations? How does the use of this technique compare with the use of deception during interrogations in other countries, such as England and Wales? What are some worrisome moral implications of the use of deception by police during interrogations?
Q3) What are some possible reforms that can be implemented in police interrogation procedures to reduce the risk of false confessions?
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Interrogations and Confessions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tendency to attribute others' behavior to dispositional causes such as personality is referred to as:
A) fundamental attribution error.
B) functional fixedness.
C) frustration-aggression hypothesis.
D) false memory syndrome.
Q2) According to studies, which form of evidence is most incriminating (likely to lead to conviction)?
A) Eyewitness testimony.
B) Expert testimony.
C) Confession.
D) DNA analysis.
Q3) Utilization of a team approach to interrogation is often referred to as:
A) tagging.
B) good cop-bad cop approach.
C) misunderstanding.
D) ambiguous interrogation.
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Chapter 2: Section 3: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) Research by Lassiter and colleagues had people evaluate a confession from three camera angles: showing suspect only, interrogator only, and both interrogator and suspect. It was found that:
A) the camera angles had no effect on the evaluation of the confession.
B) in the interrogator only angle, the confession was rated as much less coerced.
C) in the interrogator and suspect angle, the confession was rated as much less coerced.
D) in the suspect only angle, the confession was rated as much less coerced.
Q2) If a man falsely claims to have committed a crime to cover up an affair, he would be making an:
A) instrumental-coerced confession.
B) instrumental-voluntary confession.
C) authentic-coerced confession.
D) authentic-voluntary confession.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of an exculpatory scenario?
A) "Did you plan this, or did it just happen on the spur of the moment?"
B) "Was this your own idea or did someone talk you into it?"
C) "I'm sure you took the money to help your family."
D) "Have you done this type of thing before?"
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Page 8
Chapter 3: Section 1: Lie Detection
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Q1) Discuss the scientific validity of the polygraph.
Q2) Discuss the limitations of fMRI studies in the detection of deception.
Q3) Compare and contrast the relevant-irrelevant test (RIT), the comparison question test (CQT), and the guilty knowledge test (GKT).
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Lie Detection
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Q1) Training people to detect lies _____ their ability _____ their confidence in their ability to discern lies.
A) improves; but undermines B) improves; and enhances C) does not improve; but raises D) does not improve; and thwarts
Q2) The polygraph may be used as a _____ tactic to evoke _____.
A) coercive; a confession.
B) gentle; turning over evidence.
C) hidden; naming of suspects.
D) blunt; sympathy of jurors.
Q3) Lying is considered to be an adaptive behavior from a(n) _____ point of view.
A) psychodynamic
B) cognitive
C) behavioral
D) evolutionary
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Chapter 3: Section 3: Lie Detection
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Q1) Police investigators who were surveyed believed they detect lies _____, whereas their actual lie-detecting ability compared with that of students was _____.
A) much better than average; worse
B) no better than average; higher
C) worse than most people; higher
D) at an average level; much worse
Q2) According to several studies available on the effect of polygraph evidence on jurors, they tend to:
A) disregard this evidence.
B) take this evidence seriously.
C) only trust this evidence if backed up by expert testimony.
D) only trust this evidence if two of more polygraph tests are in agreement.
Q3) All of the following are described in the text as promising lie-detection technologies being developed currently EXCEPT:
A) criteria-based content analysis (CBCA).
B) hand micromovement tracing.
C) electroencephalogram (EEG).
D) high-definition infrared thermal imaging.
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can error rate be reduced in forensic investigations?
Q2) How does reliability differ from validity? Use examples to illustrate both.
Q3) What type of influence do the CSI TV dramas have on jurors?
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Chapter 4: Section 2: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace
Evidence
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Q1) Research noted in the text reveals that jurors:
A) have difficulty interpreting statistical statements.
B) understand statistical information reasonably well.
C) rely on qualitative results only.
D) rely on quantitative results only.
Q2) Reliability refers to:
A) the consistency of a measure or observation.
B) whether the measure is actually measuring what it is supposed to measure.
C) a situation of low validity.
D) the definition of the details of a match.
Q3) Forensic evidence is almost always tested _____.
A) at the crime scene, and the results are available within minutes.
B) at the crime scene, and the suspect is identified in 50% of cases.
C) in labs independently financed by a neutral party.
D) in labs closely affiliated with the prosecution.
Q4) A "simple match" statement:
A) uses statistical analysis.
B) applies probability categories.
C) defines specific features and their likelihood.
D) does not use statistical terms. Page 13
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Page 14
Chapter 4: Section 3: The Psychology of Forensic
Trace Evidence
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Q1) For many years, _____ forensic evidence, like bullet matching or handwriting analysis, has been used _____ in the courts.
A) questionable; widely
B) solid; rarely
C) questionable; rarely
D) solid; widely
Q2) Who pioneered the use of fingerprints in establishing identity?
A) Alphonse Bertillon
B) Francis Galton
C) James Watson
D) Charles Darwin
Q3) The process of linking a piece of physical trace evidence to an individual (suspect) is called:
A) anthropometry.
B) biometrics.
C) forensic identification.
D) iris scanning.
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Chapter 5: Section 1: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) How is profiling used in criminal investigations? Is it effective?
Q2) Compare and contrast criminal profiling, geographic profiling, and behavioral investigative advice (BIA).
Q3) What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy and when would it be used?
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Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Killers that can be described as carefully selecting their victims are referred to as:
A) disorganized killers.
B) serial killers.
C) stalkers.
D) organized killers.
Q2) Which of the following is a correct statement?
A) Profiling has been extensively tested in scientific studies.
B) Research on profiling seems to prove its effectiveness.
C) Stories and case studies found profiling helpful to investigators.
D) There is very little systematic research on profiling.
Q3) In a study examining the effectiveness and accuracy of profiling, police detectives indicated that the vast majority of profiles were _____ and they helped in solving _____ of the cases.
A) inaccurate; about half
B) inaccurate; less than 5%
C) accurate; the majority
D) accurate; about half
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Page 17
Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) The hypothesized 4 categories of serial killers suggested by Holmes and Holmes (2010) are _____, and most serial killers _____.
A) overlapping; do not fit neatly into the categories
B) very telling; belong to the power-oriented type
C) useful in crime investigations; are apprehended as a result of being categorized correctly
D) above testing; do not agree to provide data for scientific studies
Q2) Somebody has murdered a dark-haired pre-pubescent girl in the area last year and left her mutilated body near the train tracks. This year, another dark-haired girl of about the same age was murdered and her body left near the train tracks in the same general area. According to the textbook, can it be a serial killer's job?
A) Yes because there are enough similarities between the two cases.
B) Not conclusive because there were less than 3 cases with similarities.
C) Only if there is DNA evidence left on the scene of both crimes.
D) It is either a serial killer or a mass murderer.
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Page 18
Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?
Q2) Explain the voir dire process.
Q3) How effective is scientific jury selection?
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) What is usually called jury _____ is actually a process of _____.
A) desensitization; appreciation of differences
B) selection; eliminating candidates from the pool
C) swearing-in ceremony; explaining the trial procedure
D) stereotyping; social scientific research
Q2) Hannah is a trial consultant hired to assemble a shadow jury in a high-stakes trial. She may ask the shadow jury to perform all of the following tasks EXCEPT:
A) sit in the courtroom during trial.
B) hear a condensed version of testimonies.
C) watch a videotape of courtroom proceedings.
D) observe actual jurors in the deliberation room.
Q3) It would appear as though there are some personality traits or tendencies that have some bearing on jury verdicts. According to the text, there are _____ traits that have been shown to be important predictors.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Iris works as a trial consultant. The majority of cases she is likely to be hired for are:
A) criminal trials.
B) civil trials.
C) capital trials.
D) cases involving the government.
Q2) Studies testing the effectiveness of judge's instructions to the jury to disregard pretrial publicity have found:
A) no effect of such instructions on jurors' decision-making in passing a guilty verdict.
B) that jurors were able to completely ignore the media accounts they had been exposed to.
C) jurors able to disregard pretrial publicity in civil cases only.
D) jurors able to disregard pretrial publicity in murder cases only.
Q3) A juror that scores high on measures of authoritarianism would be least likely to convict:
A) a gang member accused of killing another gang member.
B) a police officer accused of using excessive force.
C) a college student accused of stealing.
D) a politician accused of corruption.
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Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?
Q2) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.
Q3) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Bias-reducing instructions are used to assist eyewitnesses to be accurate in their identification of a suspect. An example of such instructions, as noted in the text, is telling the eyewitness that:
A) "the true criminal might not be in the lineup or photo spread."
B) "the true criminal is probably in the lineup or photo spread."
C) "the entire case rests on the selection of someone in the lineup or photo spread."
D) "the detective has a strong feeling that one of the suspects is in the lineup or photo spread."
Q2) The process of having an eyewitness looking at one person or photograph at a time is referred to as _____ lineups.
A) simultaneous
B) coinciding
C) sequential
D) consequential
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Research findings indicate that there are several drawbacks to using hypnosis in forensic settings. Which of the following statements about the use of hypnosis is INCORRECT?
A) People remember less but what they do recall under hypnosis is more accurate.
B) Hypnosis can elicit false memories.
C) The effects of suggestive questioning are amplified under hypnosis.
D) After hypnosis, eyewitnesses are more confident about what they remember.
Q2) When it comes to translating science into practice, there are two main obstacles outlined in the text: one is the researchers' uncertainty about how much research evidence should be accumulated before practical recommendations are made and the other one is _____ practices.
A) the resistance of law enforcement personnel to reforming their
B) the difficulty of passing legislation that would mandate changes in C) prosecutors' misunderstanding of what research studies mean for their
D) the slow speed of translating scientific evidence into
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a system variable in eyewitness identification?
A) How a witness is questioned.
B) How lineups are administered.
C) The order of questions asked by the police.
D) The race of the victim.
Page 24
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Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?
Q2) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?
Q3) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Competency to stand trial (CST) has two basic components to its definition. The first component refers to the accused individual's _____. The second component refers to the accused individual's _____.
A) mental state; chances of being tried in a court where the native language is spoken B) ability to interact rationally with an attorney; understanding how the court process works
C) awareness of how the crime was committed; ability to interact rationally with an attorney
D) willingness to perform necessary functions; past and current mental state
Q2) According to research (Grisso et al., 2003), when it comes to competency to stand trial, at approximately age _____, the differences between young offenders and those aged 18 to 24 disappear.
A) 12
B) 14
C) 15
D) 16
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Which of the following cases involved the issue of a defendant being forcibly medicated who was deemed not to be a danger to himself or others?
A) Jackson v. Indiana (1972).
B) Washington v. Harper (1990).
C) Sell v. United States (2003).
D) Ford v. Wainwright (1986).
Q2) Some forensic psychologists argue that all of the following conditions should trigger an automatic competency evaluation for juveniles EXCEPT:
A) history of developmental disability.
B) family history of mental illness.
C) low or "borderline" intelligence.
D) age 12 or younger.
Q3) The modern conception of competency to stand trial was defined by the Supreme Court in the case of:
A) Miranda v. Arizona (1966).
B) United States v. Charters (1988).
C) Dusky v. United States (1960).
D) Godinez v. Moran (1993).
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Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) How do jurors view the insanity defense?
Q2) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?
Q3) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) Today, there is general agreement that committing a criminal act without a guilty mind is:
A) enough to convict.
B) not enough to convict.
C) a way to deter crime.
D) retribution.
Q2) Development of the insanity defense can be traced back:
A) 2 decades.
B) 50 years.
C) 100 years.
D) several centuries.
Q3) The concept that individuals with issues relating to impaired cognitive understanding should not be held culpable was used as early as the Roman Empire. Roman law classified those individuals to be non compos mentis, or:
A) not quite all there.
B) mentally competent.
C) without mastery of mind.
D) mens rea.
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) What definition of insanity is used in most states currently?
A) the Durham test.
B) the ALI standard.
C) the M'Naghten rule.
D) the "wild beast" test.
Q2) Malingering refers to:
A) an inability to distinguish right from wrong.
B) exaggerating or faking a mental disorder.
C) having a mental illness and using it as a basis for an insanity defense.
D) having a mental illness and not raising this fact at trial.
Q3) Which famous case prompted shifting the burden of proof of insanity from prosecution to defense?
A) Durham
B) Hinckley
C) M'Naghten
D) Smith
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Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q2) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?
Q3) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) The tension phase of the cycle of violence is often represented by _____, whereas the contrition phase is often represented by _____.
A) anger; verbal threats
B) arguing; denial
C) abuse; blaming
D) battering; denial
Q2) The term rape trauma syndrome (RTS) can best be described as a:
A) legal term.
B) medical term.
C) cluster of symptoms identified in a sample of rape victims.
D) psychological term applicable to all victims of abuse.
Q3) Studies have found that women who used violence against their abusers were likely to be found _____ in a jury trial, and expert testimony on BWS was likely to _____.
A) guilty; support the prosecution's arguments
B) not guilty; help the defendant win an acquittal
C) guilty; not make a difference
D) not guilty; matter very little
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Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) According to the text, the original study of battered women by Dr. Walker was criticized for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
A) not all women in her sample experienced all the hypothesized stages of the cycle of abuse.
B) a comparison group of non-battered women was absent from her study.
C) the experimenters who collected the data knew about the study hypotheses and could inadvertently influence the results.
D) the sample in her study was too small.
Q2) Studies show that the police are _____ to arrest batterers and that restraining orders against intimate partners are _____.
A) reluctant; often violated
B) eager; strictly enforced
C) not likely; unenforceable
D) likely; rarely violated
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the common rape myths?
A) Most rapes are committed when both parties are drunk.
B) Most rapes are committed by strangers.
C) If a woman says she doesn't want to have sex, she doesn't really mean it.
D) It is impossible to rape a woman who is unwilling.
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Page 33
Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?
Q2) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?
Q3) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) In a subsequent series of experiments, Hyman and his colleagues set out to create "memories" of even more unusual false events than "being lost in the mall". The results of this study showed that _____ of the participants developing false recollections.
A) 9%
B) 13%
C) 27%
D) 54%
Q2) In the 2000s, claims of recovered memories ______, mostly in response to _____. A) slowly decreased; research showing that false memories can be easily implanted B) decreased drastically; successful lawsuits against therapists who had created false memories
C) have stabilized; realizations that false memories bring more pain than relief to the victims
D) had increased; new legislation awarding substantial sums of money to the victims
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) One should be especially skeptical about claims of recovered memories in all of the following cases EXCEPT:
A) abuse involving satanic rituals.
B) abuse that occurred before the age of 3.
C) memories of abuse that began as vague impressions.
D) abuse that began in adolescence.
Q2) The case of Paul Ingram is unusual because:
A) it was the longest time anyone had ever repressed a memory.
B) it involved recovered memories of being the perpetrator of sexual abuse.
C) Ingram repressed memories of traumatic abuse from more than three perpetrators.
D) Ingram was the first to sue a therapist for implanting false memories.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a type of prompt recommended in NICHD Investigative Interview Protocol?
A) "Tell me everything that happened."
B) "What happened next?"
C) "He wanted you to touch him, right?"
D) "Where did it happen?"
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Q1) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?
Q2) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?
Q3) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision
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Q1) Which of the following statements reflects the current state of knowledge about Parental Alienation Syndrome (PAS)?
A) It has not been confirmed scientifically because there is not enough research data to support its existence.
B) It leads to extreme psychological damage to the child's relationships with both parents.
C) It was identified on the basis of the bitter divorce battle between Alec Baldwin and Kim Basinger.
D) It is a promising psychological breakthrough, and a large number of researchers are working on corroborating it.
Q2) Kathryn's parents recently divorced. During the hearing for custody, it was determined that her mother would have legal and physical custody. This type of custody is known as:
A) sole custody.
B) joint legal custody.
C) shared custody.
D) physical custody.
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Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a weakness of the best interest of the child standard (BICS)?
A) Vagueness of the criteria for custody decisions.
B) Possible escalation of conflicts and litigation between parents.
C) Asking courts to predict the future.
D) Presumption that mother is entitled to custody.
Q2) Several focused forensic assessment instruments were developed for determining the best custody arrangement. However:
A) they are not used widely despite their excellent psychometric properties.
B) their validity and reliability are largely in doubt.
C) these techniques are combinations of existing tests.
D) they can only be administered to adults, not to children.
Q3) Which response style is more common in child custody evaluations?
A) Faking good.
B) Acquiescence.
C) Malingering.
D) Learned helplessness.
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?
Q2) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?
Q3) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Members of a jury that appear to have a great deal of influence on the deliberation process are referred to as _____ jurors.
A) potential
B) helpful
C) dedicated
D) strong
Q2) According to the text, approximately _____ of jury trials in the United States result in a hung jury.
A) Less than 3%
B) Less than 7%
C) 10-12%
D) 15%
Q3) When jurors are instructed to disregard the inadmissible evidence, they sometimes feel there is no good reason for such an instruction. Instead, they give that evidence an even greater weight. This process is assumed by _____.
A) relativity
B) parallel processes
C) inferiority
D) reactance
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Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Which of the following is most strongly correlated with jury verdicts?
A) The severity of filed charges.
B) Pretrial publicity against the defendant.
C) The strength of evidence.
D) The complexity of instructions to the jury.
Q2) Research on inadmissible evidence indicates that:
A) judges are able to disregard inadmissible evidence better than are jurors.
B) jurors are able to disregard inadmissible evidence better than are judges.
C) both judges and jurors are able to disregard inadmissible evidence.
D) neither judges nor jurors are able to disregard inadmissible evidence.
Q3) In court, all of the following pieces of information can be considered impeachment evidence EXCEPT the defendant's:
A) past conviction(s) for a similar crime or crimes.
B) past conviction(s) for other kinds of crimes.
C) history of documented dishonest behavior at work.
D) history of multiple premarital affairs.
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Chapter 14: Section 1: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?
Q2) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?
Q3) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) James has a history of violent behavior. Many times, he has demonstrated he has not mastered the ability to maintain control over his own emotions, thoughts, and behaviors. This inability is also known as:
A) locus of control.
B) self-esteem.
C) self-reliance.
D) impulsivity.
Q2) To hospitalize someone against his or her will, most states now require that certain conditions be met. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions?
A) Presence of a severe mental disorder.
B) A severe mental disorder affects the person's functioning.
C) Substantial possibility of causing significant harm to self or others.
D) A documented history of recent dangerous behaviors.
Q3) Many psychological experts suggest that they are _____ at predicting future violence.
A) excellent
B) very good
C) good
D) not very good
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Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) Regarding risk assessment, which of the following is an example of a false negative?
A) A person who was predicted not to become violent turns out not to be violent.
B) A person who was predicted to become violent turns out not to be violent.
C) A person who was predicted not to become violent turns out to be violent.
D) A person who was predicted to become violent turns out to be violent.
Q2) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that sexually violent predator civil commitment laws did NOT violate double jeopardy?
A) Barefoot v. Estelle
B) Kansas v. Hendricks
C) Foucha v. Illinois
D) O'Connor v. Donaldson
Q3) The movement to release mentally ill patients from hospitals is called:
A) humanitarian advocacy.
B) dehospitalization.
C) deinstitutionalization.
D) legislative reforms.
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Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the
Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?
Q2) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?
Q3) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?
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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) According to the text, older judges generally rule in favor of the _____, whereas younger judges tend to rule in favor of the _____.
A) plaintiff; defendant
B) defendant; plaintiff
C) corporations; small businesses
D) small businesses; corporations
Q2) Ben felt that he should have received more money for his efforts and he followed an established procedure to appeal his case to the supervisor, detailing the amount of work done and his contributions to the final product. Ben's ability to participate in the process of reward distribution decisions is an example of:
A) distributive justice.
B) procedural justice.
C) interpersonal justice.
D) equal-status contact.
Q3) Studies have shown that the most likely targets of harassment are:
A) attractive young men.
B) young, unmarried women.
C) divorcees.
D) minorities.
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Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) Studies show some clear signs that modern forms of racism do exist. For example, one study finds that:
A) subjects report liking Black people slightly less than liking White people, and their facial muscles confirm this reality.
B) even though subjects report liking Black people slightly more than liking White people, their facial muscles reveal that the opposite is true.
C) even though subjects report liking Black people slightly more than liking White people, their facial muscles reveal that they like Black people significantly more than they report.
D) subjects report liking Black people much less than liking White people, but their facial muscles reveal that the opposite is true.
Q2) The reasonable woman standard was first proposed in:
A) Harris v. Forklift Systems (1993).
B) Ellison v. Brady (1991).
C) Oncale v. Sundowner Offshore Services, Inc. (1998).
D) Burlington Industries, Inc. v. Ellerth (1998).
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Q1) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?
Q2) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.
Q3) Discuss three alternatives to prison.
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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) The requirement that criminals receive an extended or life sentence when convicted of a third felony is commonly called the:
A) repeat offender guideline.
B) career criminal sentencing rule.
C) three-time loser rule.
D) three-strikes laws.
Q2) The U.S. Supreme Court decided in 2005 that sentencing guidelines should be _____ in nature.
A) advisory
B) mandatory
C) required
D) compulsory
Q3) It was not until the _____ that prisons began to reflect the influence of medicine and social sciences.
A) 1800s
B) 1850s
C) 1900s
D) 2000s
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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Studies find that there are several factors that lead to disparities in sentencing decisions. Which of the following is NOT one of these findings?
A) Male judges give significantly lighter sentences to women than to men.
B) For violent crimes, women receive shorter sentences than men.
C) African American male juveniles receive harsher sentences in politically conservative jurisdictions.
D) Young Hispanic men are least likely to be incarcerated for their crimes.
Q2) Sentencing guidelines intended to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A) restrain judges' discretion.
B) reduce inequalities in sentencing.
C) take into account the past criminal history of the defendant.
D) increase the severity of sentences.
Q3) The rate of HIV/AIDS among state and federal prisoners is about _____ times higher than the rate for the general population.
A) 2
B) 5
C) 7
D) 12
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Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty
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Q1) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?
Q2) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?
Q3) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.
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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Constitutional challenges regarding the death penalty have taken place in many states. In Furman v. Georgia, the Supreme Court ruled that capital punishment was unconstitutional. Although the decision handed down did not _____ the death penalty, it _____ how it was carried it out.
A) abolish; modified
B) strongly support; encouraged C) abolish; couldn't put any restrictions on D) carry out; affirmed
Q2) Evidence of racial discrimination is most clear in cases involving:
A) murder.
B) assault.
C) drug dealing.
D) rape.
Q3) During the process of death qualification, if a potential juror _____, he or she is excluded from serving on a capital jury.
A) is unwilling to consider execution as a punishment
B) had previously been a victim of a violent crime
C) had witnessed a violent death before D) has any close relatives who died of unnatural causes
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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Baldus, Woodworth, and Pulaski (1990) analyzed 594 homicides in Georgia and found that blacks convicted of killing whites were sentenced to death in _____ of capital cases, while whites convicted of killing blacks were sentenced to death in _____ of capital cases.
A) 100%; 25%
B) 22%; 3%
C) 31%; 52%
D) 50%; 63%
Q2) In 1972, the Supreme Court ruled the death penalty unconstitutional in _____. However, executions resumed in _____.
A) Atkins v. Virginia; 1977
B) Furman v. Georgia; 1977
C) Furman v. Georgia; 2000
D) Atkins v. Virginia; 2000
Q3) The two parts of a bifurcated trial are:
A) defense arguments and prosecution arguments.
B) aggravating factor presentation and mitigating factor presentation.
C) trial presentation and jury deliberation.
D) guilt phase and penalty phase.
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Page 54