Forensic Psychology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Forensic Psychology explores the intersection of psychology and the legal system, examining how psychological principles are applied within criminal and civil justice contexts. The course covers topics such as criminal profiling, competency assessments, eyewitness testimony, risk assessment, and the psychological evaluation of offenders. Students will analyze the roles that forensic psychologists play in criminal investigations, court proceedings, and correctional settings, while also considering ethical issues, the reliability of psychological evidence, and the impact of mental health on legal decisions. Through case studies and current research, students gain insight into how psychological theories and methods contribute to justice and public safety.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic Psychology 4th Edition by Joanna
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30 Chapters
927 Verified Questions
927 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2037
Page 2
Chapter 1: A: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40501
Sample Questions
Q1) The "general acceptance test" relates to:
A)eyewitness recall
B)child witnesses
C)aggression and segregation in schools
D)suggestive questioning techniques
E)the admissibility of expert testimony
Answer: E
Q2) Which task is likely to be performed by an experimental forensic psychologist?
A)examining the effects of judges' instructions on jury verdicts
B)providing expert testimony
C)examining the effects of correctional programs on reoffending rates
D)studying the effects of police stress on job satisfaction
E)all of the above
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 1: B: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the "general acceptance test"? What is the main criticism associated with this test?
Answer: -The general acceptance test is a standard for accepting expert testimony.It states that expert testimony will be admissible in court if the basis of the testimony is generally accepted within the scientific community in which it belongs. -This test formed the basis for admissibility decisions for many years in the United States; however,the major criticism associated with it comes from the vagueness of terms such as "general acceptance" and "the particular field in which it belongs" and whether judges are able to appropriately determine the scope of these terms.
Q2) Provide a comprehensive (i.e.,broad)definition of forensic psychology.
Answer: According to Bartol and Bartol (2006),forensic psychology is defined as (a)the research endeavour that examines aspects of human behaviour directly related to the legal process and (b)the professional practice of psychology within or in consultation with a legal system that embraces both civil and criminal law.
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4
Chapter 2: A: Police Psychology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hoch,Hartford,Heslop,and Stitt (2009)conducted a study to determine whether mentally ill individuals in London,Ontario were more likely than non-mentally ill individuals to come into contact with the police and be arrested and/or charged.They found that:
A)mentally ill individuals had significantly less contact with the police
B)mentally ill individuals had significantly more contact with the police
C)mentally ill individuals were more likely to get arrested and charged by the police
D)mentally ill individuals were less likely to get arrested and charged by the police
E)both b and c
Answer: E
Q2) New strategies for recruiting police officers,such as those used by the Vancouver Police Department,involve
A)more rigorous physical testing
B)use of social media such as blogs and Twitter
C)criminal background checks
D)screening for mental disorders
E)use of role play to determine suitability
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: B: Police Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four reasons why police discretion is necessary,as indicated by Sheehan and Cordner (1989).
Q2) You are a police officer who has encountered a mentally ill person causing a disturbance.What are the three main options available to you in this situation? Identify a disadvantage associated with each.
Q3) Define "police discretion" and name three areas of policing in which discretion is often used.
Q4) What are the main conclusions from Butler and Hall's (2008)study of use of force using data from the Calgary Police Service?
Q5) Name and describe two of the three most common types of police selection procedures.
Q6) In general,there are two stages involved in developing a valid police selection process.Name these stages and explain them briefly.
Q7) Name four main sources of police stress and provide an example of each.
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Chapter 3: A: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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50 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a study by Kassin and Keichel (1996),students were brought into the lab in order to examine the phenomenon of false confessions.Subjects were accused of committing a crime (hitting a forbidden computer key)that they had in fact not committed.Two factors were manipulated: the participant's level of vulnerability and whether false evidence was presented.What did this research find?
A)Participants never exhibited compliance when accused of the crime.
B)Participants presented with false evidence were more likely to internalize their guilt.
C)Participants presented with false evidence were less likely to confabulate details.
D)The presence of false evidence had no influence on compliance or internalization.
E)none of the above
Q2) Criminal profiling is likely to be least useful in cases involving:
A)serial homicide
B)serial rape
C)serial burglary
D)a serial offender with severe psychopathology
E)both b and c
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Chapter 3: B: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) List five background characteristics that are assumed to relate to organized offenders and five background characteristics that are assumed to related to disorganized offenders.
Q2) State four general criticisms of criminal profiling.
Q3) Distinguish between deductive criminal profiling and inductive criminal profiling.Identify a problem associated with each method.
Q4) List five crime scene behaviours that are assumed to relate to organized offenders and five crime scene behaviours that are assumed to related to disorganized offenders.
Q5) What does the acronym for the PEACE model of interrogation stand for? Briefly describe the primary goal of this model,and provide one example of how Canadian police officers are not adhering o the principles advocated by the PEACE model.
Q6) What is the equation specified by Pinizzotto and Finkel (1990)that describes the process of criminal profiling? Define or explain each component of the equation.
Q7) Define criminal profiling in general terms and provide four main goals of criminal profiling.
Q8) Distinguish between a retracted confession and a disputed confession.
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Chapter 4: A: Deception
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,how accurate do people tend to be when using verbal and non-verbal behaviour to detect deception (where a value of 100% indicates that they can accurately discriminate between truthful people and deceptive people all of the time)?
A)under 10%
B)between 25% and 35%
C)between 45% and 65%
D)around 25%
E)around 90%
Q2) Which verbal indicator has been most strongly associated with deception?
A)speech fillers
B)voice pitch
C)speech pauses
D)speech errors (e.g.,slips of the tongue)
E)rate of speech
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Chapter 4: B: Deception
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Sample Questions
Q1) What concern has been raised regarding use of brain-imaging evidence in court? Discuss research that has examined this concern.
Q2) Describe the Concealed Information Test (CIT),including its purpose and general form.Also provide several criticisms or limitations of the CIT and why it isn't used as much as the CQT.
Q3) Provide four criticisms of the Comparison Question Test (CQT).
Q4) What are the eight strategies that a person may employ when malingering identified by the Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)?
Q5) Rogers (1990)describes three explanatory models of malingering.Name and define these three models.Which model is most highly supported?
Q6) Provide two verbal and two nonverbal cues (variables)demonstrated to be reliable indicators of deception.
Q7) According to your text,what are the two key components of malingering? List four reasons why an individual might be motivated to malinger.
Q8) Give two explanations for poor performance in deception detection.
Q9) Describe how event-related brain potentials (ERPs)have been used to detect deception.
Page 10
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Chapter 5: A: Eyewitness Testimony
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53 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An eyewitness is exposed to a target-present lineup and identifies someone from the lineup that the police know did not commit the crime.What sort of decision has this eyewitness just made?
A)a correct identification
B)a false rejection
C)a foil identification
D)a correct rejection
E)none of the above
Q2) Which Canadian case involving poor police techniques in collecting eyewitness evidence resulted in a set of recommendations for conducting lineup identifications?
A)Neil v.Biggers
B)R.v.Sophonow
C)R.v.Brooks
D)R.v.Reno
E)R.v.Henderson
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11
Chapter 5: B: Eyewitness Testimony
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general terms,how does the enhanced cognitive interview differ from the original cognitive interview? Name and define three of the five techniques specific to the enhanced cognitive interview.
Q2) Distinguish between a simultaneous and a sequential lineup.
Q3) State two difficulties with the use of hypnosis in the eyewitness context.
Q4) Distinguish between the cue-utilization hypothesis and the unusualness hypothesis as explanations for the weapon focus effect.
Q5) Distinguish between a system variable and an estimator variable as related to eyewitness research.Provide one example of each.
Q6) Describe the three major types of biases that have been found to increase false positives in lineup identifications.
Q7) Distinguish between recall versus recognition tests of memory as dependent variables in research.Describe how recall and recognition responses made by witnesses can be examined.
Q8) Define the misinformation effect within the context of eyewitness research.In addition,fully describe the three most common explanations for this effect
Q9) List the five reasons why photo lineups are more common than live lineups.
Page 12
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Chapter 6: A: Child Victims and Witnesses
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45 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a category of child maltreatment in Canada?
A)Sexual abuse
B)Neglect
C)Emotional maltreatment
D)Economic abuse
E)Physical abuse
Q2) In a retrospective study by Perez-Fuentes et al.(2012)involving interviews between 2004-2005 in the United States,approximately what percentage of male participants and what percentage of female participants reported childhood sexual abuse?
A)5% male - 35% female
B)15% male - 20% female
C)25% male - 75% female
D)20% male - 50% female
E)10% male - 15% female
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Chapter 6: B: Child Victims and Witnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the narrative elaboration interview procedure? Describe how this procedure works and what the research on this procedure suggests in terms of its usefulness in interviewing children?
Q2) Discuss the prevailing view regarding child witnesses from the 1600-1900s.Identify the four factors outlined by Ceci and Bruck (1993)that led to the renewed interest in child witnesses.
Q3) Name and briefly describe the two directions that have been taken to understand children's greater propensity toward suggestibility when recalling events (Bruck & Ceci,1999).
Q4) Describe the four categories of child maltreatment defined by the Child Maltreatment Section (CMS)of Health Canada.
Q5) Distinguish between the incidence and the prevalence of child maltreatment.Provide an example of each.
Q6) What is Criterion-Based Content Analysis (CBCA)? Specify the assumption that underlies the CBCA and identify two potential problems with this method.
Q7) Discuss the short and long term effects of physical abuse as well as sexual abuse.
Q8) Name and briefly explain the first five steps of the Step-Wise Interview.
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Chapter 7: A: Juries: Fact Finders
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can the CSI effect be described?
A)the education of jurors whereby they are more likely to convict if techniques seen on television are used
B)watching over 20 hours of crime shows a week
C)the fatigue associated with watching "CSI" type shows
D)a new mental health syndrome
E)a term used to distinguish it from the Law and Order effect
Q2) Research on the effects of pretrial publicity and juror decision-making by Ruva and colleagues has revealed that
A)only negative pretrial publicity influences verdicts
B)only positive pretrial publicity influences verdicts
C)both negative and positive pretrial publicity influences verdicts
D)verdicts are not influenced by this publicity as it is disregarded by jurors.
E)jurors are only selected if they have not been exposed to any publicity about the defendant.
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Chapter 7: B: Juries: Fact Finders
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four functions of a jury.
Q2) List four proposed reforms for judges' instructions aimed at facilitating juror understanding.
Q3) In the context of jury decision making,distinguish between the terms polarization,leniency bias,and black sheep effect.
Q4) In the context of jury decision making,identify two defendant characteristics that are most likely to result in guilty verdicts,and briefly explain each.
Q5) What is meant by the juror characteristic of impartiality? What are two of the issues surrounding impartiality?
Q6) List one advantage and one disadvantage of using simulation studies to investigate jury decision making.Briefly outline a simulation study to study the effects of victim characteristics in a sexual assault case on juror decision making.Make sure you clearly identify your independent variables (and/or person characteristics)and dependent variables.
Q7) List two proposed advantages and two proposed disadvantages associated with the asking of questions by jurors as a courtroom comprehension aid.
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Page 16
Chapter 8: A: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a recent meta-analysis by Phillips et al.(2005),these researchers examined whether demographic,criminal history,and clinical variables predict offending in mentally disordered offenders in the United Kingdom.Each of the following were predictive of general and violent offending,except:
A)Mental disorder diagnosis
B)Age on admission
C)Number of days hospitalized
D)Number of previous offences
E)All of the above were predictors of general and violent recidivism
Q2) Of the few defendants that raise the insanity defence in the United States,about _______ are successful.
A)5%
B)10%
C)15%
D)20%
E)25%
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17
Chapter 8: B: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peter is on trial for sexual assault.He claims he was in a blackout state due to consumption of two bottles of whisky.Based on the information in your text on intoxication and automatism,what type of disposition would Peter most likely get from a judge and why?
Q2) What are the three dispositions that can be made following a finding of NCRMD?
Q3) In the context of a defendant found NCRMD,what are the four main criteria considered by courts and review boards when deciding a disposition? Explain the term capping and specify the consequence of capping for mentally ill offenders with respect to their dispositions.
Q4) Distinguish between noninsane automatism and insane automatism.Discuss what dispositions are associated with each,and what circumstances have been recognized by Canadian courts in cases of noninsane automatism.
Q5) Name two of the three changes to legislation resulting from Brian's Law (Bill 68).
Q6) What are three explanations proposed by Bland et al.(1990)for the high rates of mental illness in offender populations in Canada?
Q7) What changes to how defendants found NCRMD are dealt with were proposed in Bill C-54 early in 2013?
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Chapter 9: A: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first type of release an offender is typically granted is:
A)day parole
B)full parole
C)statutory release
D)temporary absence
E)partial parole
Q2) Typically in Canada,an incarcerated offender is first eligible for full parole after having served ___________ of his/her sentence.
A)one-quarter
B)one-third
C)half
D)two-thirds
E)three-quarters
Q3) In 1899,Sir Wilfrid Laurier was responsible for the introduction of ______________ in Canada.
A)parole
B)probation
C)conditional sentencing
D)restitution
E)imprisonment
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Chapter 9: B: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define the need principle,risk principle,and responsivity principle.
Q2) What is unwarranted sentencing disparity? List and describe the two major sources of unwarranted sentencing disparity.
Q3) Identify and describe the four major types of parole in Canada.
Q4) Provide at least six of the factors that are available to be considered when the Parole Board of Canada assesses risk and parole options.
Q5) Discuss the difference in success rates and parole failures across offenders released on day and full parole relative to those granted statutory release.
Q6) Many purposes of sentencing exist,including specific and general deterrence.State four additional purposes of sentencing.
Q7) Identify and describe the five main sentencing options utilized in Canada.
Q8) State the fundamental principle of sentencing as defined in Canada's Criminal Code.In addition,specify four other principles of sentencing.
Q9) What is the Aboriginal overrepresentation problem in Canadian corrections? What factors contribute to this overrepresentation,and what measures have been taken in Canada to reduce this problem?
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Chapter 10: A: Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gender is an example of a(n)_____________ risk factor,whereas lack of social support is an example of a(n)________________ risk factor.
A)historical/static
B)clinical/dispositional
C)s dynamic/acute dynamic
D)dispositional/contextual
E)historical/dispositional
Q2) Which of the following is not a factor influencing the recidivism process,according to Zamble and Quinsey's coping-relapse model?
A)cognitive and emotional appraisal
B)individual influences
C)environmental trigger
D)available response mechanisms
E)none of the above
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Chapter 10: B: Risk Assessment
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify and explain the three main weaknesses of research on the prediction of violence.
Q2) Using structured professional judgment,you wish to predict an offender's risk of violent recidivism (and not general recidivism).Of the assessment instruments described in your textbook,which one would you likely use? Provide a brief description of your chosen instrument.
Q3) Risk assessment is associated with both correct and incorrect prediction outcomes.Construct a 2 × 2 illustrating four possible prediction outcomes in risk assessment for violence.Identify who suffers the consequences of each decision error.
Q4) What is desistance and why is age related to declines in criminal offending? What interpersonal moderators also have been proposed to aid in the transition between criminal offending and desistance?
Q5) Name and define the two components of the risk assessment process.
Q6) Name at least four ways in which female offenders differ from male offenders.
Q7) What was the main issue raised in the Baxstrom and Dixon cases/studies? What are the two key findings to emerge from this research?
Q8) What are the three types of judgment errors or biases that clinicians make when assessing risk?
Page 22
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Chapter 11: A: Psychopaths
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the lexical-decision task by Williamson,Harpur,and Hare (1991),nonpsychopaths:
A)identified non words faster than psychopaths
B)identified neutral words faster than psychopaths
C)identified emotional words faster than psychopaths
D)identified emotional words faster than neutral words
E)both c and d
Q2) Several studies have found that offenders who engage in ___________ violence score significantly higher on measures of psychopathy than do offenders who engage in ___________ violence.
A)reactive; premeditated
B)impulsive; reactive
C)instrumental; premeditated
D)reactive; instrumental
E)instrumental; reactive
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Chapter 11: B: Psychopaths
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define psychopathy,Antisocial Personality Disorder,and sociopathy and give three examples of differences between these disorders.
Q2) Identify the ten myths associated with psychopathy.
Q3) Discuss several of the reservations that have been raised concerning applying the label of psychopath to children and adults,and what research has found regarding these concerns.
Q4) Name and describe different study designs used involving twins and siblings when trying to isolate the effect of genes or environment on psychopathic traits.
Q5) Name and describe the most widely used assessment tool for measuring psychopathic traits in adults.
Q6) Explain why most researchers believe psychopaths cannot be treated.Describe one well-known study that lends support for this notion.
Q7) Describe the cognitive and affective models of psychopathy in terms of the two predominant theories about the development of psychopathy.
Q8) Explain how psychopaths differ from nonpsychopaths and more specifically how psychopaths' use of violence differs from nonpychopathic offenders.
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Chapter 12: A: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Q1) Which of the following statements is false regarding externalizing problems in youth?
A)They are more difficult to treat than internalizing problems.
B)They are more likely to be experienced by males.
C)They are not very s .
D)They focus on behavioural difficulties.
E)Internalizing problems might co-occur with externalizing difficulties.
Q2) What is the goal of tertiary intervention strategies?
A)to prevent violence from occurring in the first place
B)to reduce the frequency of violence
C)to reduce the likelihood that the at-risk adolescent will engage in future offending
D)to punish
E)to include the school to reduce the frequency of violence
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of conduct disorder (CD)?
A)difficulty with organization
B)sets fires
C)initiates fights
D)is physically cruel to animals
E)lies for personal gain
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Chapter 12: B: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Q1) Three childhood psychiatric diagnoses occur with some frequency in young offenders.Identify the three disorders,describe each,and discuss the relationship between these disorders (i.e.,is diagnosis with one type likely to result in the diagnosis with another?).
Q2) State three main objectives of the Youth Criminal Justice Act.
Q3) Describe the difference between internalizing problems and externalizing problems.Provide examples of each and identify which is more difficult to treat.
Q4) Describe primary,secondary,and tertiary intervention strategies.Describe an example of each strategy.
Q5) Compare the key changes to the youth criminal justice system associated with the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA),the Young Offenders Act (YOA)and the Youth Criminal Justice Act (YCJA).
Q6) What is the relationship between youth gang involvement and delinquency? Discuss using research to back up your points.
Q7) Name the three childhood psychiatric disorders that occur with frequency in young offenders.Provide two characteristics of each.
Q8) Provide three criticisms of the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA).
Q9) Define "resilient" and identify four ways that protective factors are effective. Page 26
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Chapter 13: A: Intimate Partner Violence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of male batterer is most likely to exhibit jealousy?
A)the family-only batterer
B)the dysphoric/borderline batterer
C)the generally violent/antisocial batterer
D)the psychopathic batterer
E)the antisocial batterer
Q2) A stalker who has never had an intimate relationship with the victim but does not suffer from psychosis would be classified as:
A)ex-intimate stalker
B)love-obsessional stalker
C)delusional stalker
D)grudge stalker
E)psychopathic stalker
Q3) Every time a man uses violence against his partner,he gets what he wants.This would be an example of a(n):
A)external punishment
B)observational punishment
C)aversive instigator
D)incentive instigator
E)self-punishment
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Chapter 13: B: Intimate Partner Violence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The National Family Violence Prevention Programs developed by the Correctional Service of Canada contain 6 components.Name and briefly describe each of these,and discuss which component has been associated with the best treatment outcomes in research.
Q2) Name and briefly describe the three components included in Albert Bandura's Social Learning Theory of intimate violence.
Q3) Holtzworth-Munroe and Stuart (1994)developed a typology of male batterers based on the severity of violence,generality of violence,and personality disorder characteristics.Name and define each of the three types of batterers.
Q4) The Conflict Tactics Scale (CTS; Straus,1979)and the updated CTS2 (Straus et al.,1996),a scale used to measure domestic assault,has been criticized on many grounds.List the four criticisms specified in your text.
Q5) Identify and explain the two most common forms of intervention for male batterers.According to the meta-analysis conducted by Babcock,Green,and Robie (2004),which is the most effective in terms of recidivism?
Q6) Name and briefly describe the levels that influence intimate violence in the nested ecological model proposed by Dutton (1995).Provide one example for each level.
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Page 29
Chapter 14: A: Sexual Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding adolescent sexual offenders?
A)Adolescent sexual offenders are often victims of sexual abuse themselves.
B)The majority of sexually abused children go on to become adolescent or adult sexual offenders.
C)Prior history of childhood sexual victimization is related to sexual recidivism in adolescence and adulthood.
D)Adolescent sexual offenders tend to victimize adult females.
E)all of the above
Q2) In a recent meta-analysis by Seto and Lalumière (2010),adolescent sex offenders were found to be similar to other adolescent offenders on the majority of risk factors,except for the following additional risk factors present in adolescent sexual offenders:
A)Education,lack of parental supervision,atypical sexual interests
B)Video game use,exposure to pornography,lack of parental supervision
C)History of sexual abuse,exposure to pornography,atypical sexual interests
D)History of sexual abuse,education level,sexual rejection
E)Sexual rejection,atypical sexual interests,poor socialization
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Page 30
Chapter 14: B: Sexual Offenders
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Q1) Identify and discuss the five main myths associated with sexual assault discussed in your text,including facts that challenge these false beliefs.
Q2) Describe the primary method used to assess deviant sexual interests,as well as two approaches used to treat deviant sexual interests.
Q3) List four characteristics of the fixated child molester and four characteristics of the regressed child molester.
Q4) Groth (1979)proposed a threefold rapist typology.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's goals,the amount of force used,and the primary motivations.
Q5) Describe the two main components of relapse prevention programs aimed at sexual offenders.In addition,distinguish between the terms lapse,relapse,and abstinence violation effect in the context of relapse prevention programs.
Q6) Knight and Prentky (1990)developed the Revised Rapist Typology (MTC: R3)which consists of five primary subtypes of rapists.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's motivational differences.
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Page 31
Chapter 15: A: Homicidal Offenders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40529
Sample Questions
Q1) Who is the most likely victim of homicide?
A)Older men
B)Female children
C)Young males
D)Older females
E)Children (regardless of gender)
Q2) Levi is a serial killer who tortures his victims and desires to make them "his puppets".He wants to be able to dominate their every action and have them 'move' only for him.According to the typology proposed by Holmes and Holmes (1998),what type of serial killer is Levi?
A)the mission-oriented serial murderer
B)the comfort serial murderer
C)the visionary serial murderer
D)the power/control serial murderer
E)the thrill serial murderer
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32
Chapter 15: B: Homicidal Offenders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40530
Sample Questions
Q1) List four of the six key differences that were identified by Hickey (2006)between female and male serial murderers.
Q2) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers.Describe the four major types of serial murderers and their motivations.
Q3) Identify the two types of familicide murderers described by Wilson,Daly,and Daniele (1995),and discuss the features of both.
Q4) Describe the General Aggression Model (GAM),including the inputs,the internal states they influence,and behavioural outcomes.
Q5) Distinguish between a reactive and an instrumental homicide.
Q6) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers,with one being a hedonistic serial murderer.What motivates a hedonistic serial murderer? List the three subtypes of the hedonistic serial murderer and distinguish between them.
Q7) Identify the three categories of juvenile homicide offenders outlined by Cornell,Benedek,and Benedek (1987)and describe the circumstances of their offending.Which type is the most common among youth killers?
Q8) Differentiate between filicide,familicide,femicide,and mariticide.
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