Forensic Evidence Solved Exam Questions - 748 Verified Questions

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Forensic Evidence

Solved Exam Questions

Course Introduction

This course provides a comprehensive overview of forensic evidence and its role in the criminal justice system. Students will examine the scientific principles and methodologies used in the collection, preservation, analysis, and interpretation of physical evidence such as DNA, fingerprints, trace materials, and digital data. The course explores the legal standards for the admissibility of forensic evidence in court and addresses current issues related to reliability, bias, and the impact of technological advancements. Through case studies and practical exercises, students gain an understanding of how forensic evidence is applied in real-world investigations and trials.

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Forensic Science An Introduction 2nd Edition by Saferstein Richard

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Chapter 1: Introduction

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Sample Questions

Q1) The tendency of the public to believe that every crime scene will yield forensic evidence and their unrealistic expectations that a prosecutor's case should always be bolstered and supported by forensic evidence is known as:

A) the Scientific Method

B) Jurisprudence

C) Anthropometry

D) Locard's Principle

E) the CSI Effect

Answer: A

Q2) What is the LEAST important consideration in the gathering of evidence at a crime scene?

A) competent collection of materials

B) completion of the chain of custody documents

C) proper recognition of the evidence

D) guilt of the suspect(s)

E) adequate preservation of samples

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Securing and Searching the Crime Scene

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Q1) Which of the following items is likely to contain DNA evidence?

A) a glass fragment

B) a bedsheet

C) a self-adhesive mailing stamp

D) a blue rug fiber

E) all of the above

Answer: B

Q2) As the post mortem interval increases, the concentration of potassium in the vitreous humor of the eye:

A) remains the same.

B) decreases.

C) increases.

Answer: C

Q3) If the crime scene includes a dead body, the photographer should:

A) determine the time of death.

B) depict injuries and weapons at scene.

C) attempt to identify the victim.

D) attempt to locate the victim's next of kin.

E) document all forensic personnel at crime scene.

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Recording the Crime Scene

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a forensic analyst determines the chemical composition of preparations that may contain illicit rugs such as heroin, cocaine, or barbiturates, this is an example of:

A) comparison.

B) taxonomy.

C) identification.

D) classification.

E) individualization.

Answer: C

Q2) The examination of a paint chip found on a hit-and-run victim's garment side-by-side with paint removed from a vehicle suspected of being involved in the incident is an example of:

A) classification.

B) individualization.

C) comparison.

D) identification.

E) taxonomy.

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Collection of Crime-Scene Evidence

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Sample Questions

Q1) The periodic table is a:

A) summary of the order of analyses undertaken in a forensic investigation.

B) chart listing by name and symbol of all the known elements.

C) forensic text table of contents.

D) special laboratory surface for multiphase experiments.

E) forensic newsletter issued periodically.

Q2) Stress marks on the edge of a radial crack near the point of impact are:

A) perpendicular to the side on which the force was applied.

B) parallel to the side opposite the side on which the force was applied.

C) perpendicular to the side of the glass facing outdoors.

D) parallel to the side on which the force was applied.

E) none of the above

Q3) The density of liquids is ________ the density of gases.

A) the same as

B) greater than C) less than

Q4) Explain the application of density and refractive index as it pertains to glass evidence.

Q5) Explain the difference between elements and compounds. Cite one example of each.

Q6) Contract the differences between a solid, a liquid and a gas.

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Chapter 5: Physical Evidence

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which hallucinogen can be synthesized by a simple chemical process and is often manufactured in clandestine laboratories?

A) mescaline

B) LSD

C) PCP

D) cocaine

E) marijuana

Q2) The most difficult drug addiction to overcome is that of:

A) crack cocaine.

B) alcohol.

C) heroin.

D) caffeine.

E) nicotine.

Q3) Which of the following is not a depressant?

A) ethyl alcohol

B) Valium

C) Librium

D) methaqualone

E) all of the above are depressants

Q4) Explain the difference between a qualitative and quantitative test.

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Chapter 6: Death Investigation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The elimination or "burn off" rate of alcohol averages ___________ percent w/v per hour.

A) 0.10

B) 0.15

C) 0.010

D) 0.015

E) none of the above

Q2) List and describe lab tests that are used in measuring the concentration of alcohol in the blood.

Q3) A substance with a pH of 8 is likely to be:

A) acidic.

B) water.

C) neutral.

D) corrosive.

E) basic.

Q4) Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported through the body and eliminated.

Q5) List and describe the most commonly employed field sobriety tests.

Q6) Explain how alcohol is released by the lungs.

Q7) Briefly describe how a toxicologist finds a drug in human tissue or organs.

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Chapter 7: Crime-Scene Reconstruction

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Q1) Which microscope is most likely to be used as a tool for determining whether a suspect has recently fired a gun?

A) stereoscopic

B) polarizing

C) compound

D) SEM

E) comparison

Q2) ________ are used to focus the SEM (scanning electron microscope).

A) Polarizers

B) Magnets

C) Lenses

D) Diffraction gratings

E) Analyzers

Q3) Working Distance

Q4) As the magnifying power of the compound microscope increases, the depth of focus:

A) increases.

B) remains the same.

C) decreases.

Q5) Depth of Focus

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Chapter 8: Fingerprints

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Sample Questions

Q1) To determine whether a bloodstain is of human or animal origin, the serologist will perform:

A) an analysis with Hemastix strips.

B) the luminol test.

C) EMIT.

D) RIA.

E) a precipitin test.

Q2) If blood is found to have both A and B antigens it is typed as:

A) O

B) Rh positive

C) A

D) B

E) AB

Q3) PSA (p30) is a:

A) platelet disorder specific to leukemia patients.

B) polymorphic enzyme found in red blood cells.

C) protein unique to seminal plasma.

D) blood enzyme used to discriminate bloodstains.

E) protein specific to females.

Q4) Diagram and describe the antibody antigen reaction.

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Chapter 9: Firearms, Toolmarks, and Other Impressions

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Q1) As currently performed, DNA-profiling technology CANNOT provide information helpful in:

A) deciding immigration cases based on family relationships.

B) matching a suspect to biological evidence found at a crime scene.

C) ruling out a suspect.

D) settling matters of questioned paternity/maternity.

E) determining whether an individual carries a genetic defect.

Q2) The individuality of an organism is determined by the organism's:

A) environment.

B) decisions.

C) nitrogenous bases.

D) DNA nucleotide sequence.

E) amino acids.

Q3) Which statement about RFLPs is NOT true?

A) There is little variation in the number of repeats from person to person.

B) All humans have the same type of repeats.

C) Analysis is undertaken using a technique called Southern blotting.

D) Restriction enzymes are used to cut RFLPs from the DNA helix.

E) Typically a core repeat sequence would consist of 15-30 bases.

Q4) Compare and contrast STR with RFLP analysis.

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Chapter 10: Bloodstain Pattern Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A trail pattern leading away from the victim at a stabbing scene was most likely created by:

A) the swinging of the murder weapon between strikes.

B) a victim's arterial wound.

C) blood expelled from a respiratory injury.

D) blood dripping from the murder weapon.

E) postmortem movement of the victim.

Q2) A blood droplet deposited at an angle of impact of about 90ยบ (directly vertical to the surface) will:

A) always be 3 cm in diameter.

B) be approximately circular in shape.

C) show acute elongation.

D) feature a tail showing the directionality.

E) be elliptical in shape.

Q3) An expirated blood pattern at a crime scene is identified by:

A) bubbles of oxygen within the pattern.

B) skeletonized edges.

C) lighter color than other patterns.

D) both A and B

E) all of the above.

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Chapter 11: Drugs

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Q1) It is a virtual certainty that two fabrics share a common origin if their fibers:

A) have the same color.

B) can be fitted together at their torn edges.

C) appear identical in cross-section.

D) are of the same fiber type (e.g., rayon, nylon, polyester).

E) have the same striations.

Q2) Cellulose is the basic component of:

A) sugar.

B) wood.

C) wool.

D) starch.

E) all of the above

Q3) Which is NOT a synthetic fiber?

A) nylon

B) acrylic

C) rayon

D) polyester

E) all of the above

Q4) When examining human hair, what features are compared?

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Chapter 12: Forensic Toxicology

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Sample Questions

Q1) X-ray diffraction patterns are obtained from ___________ substances.

A) colorless

B) charged

C) liquid

D) crystalline

E) amorphous

Q2) List and explain the important forensic properties of soil.

Q3) After examining small paint chips from an auto accident scene and using the PDQ database, the crime lab worker can determine the ________ of the vehicle.

A) year

B) model

C) make

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

Q4) The elements that comprise the inorganic pigments of paint can be identified by:

A) Inductively Coupled Plasma Spectroscopy.

B) neutron activation analysis.

C) X-ray spectroscopy.

D) emission spectroscopy.

E) all of the above

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Chapter 13: Trace Evidence I: Hairs and Fibers

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Sample Questions

Q1) All combustible fuels simultaneously igniting to engulf a structure in flames is known as:

A) flashover.

B) pyrolysis.

C) combustion.

D) flash point.

E) spontaneous combustion.

Q2) Telltale signs of arson include:

A) separate points of origin.

B) "streamers" connecting burned areas.

C) the presence of accelerant containers.

D) trails of burn patterns.

E) all of the above

Q3) The rapid combination of oxygen with a fuel, which produces a noticeable release of energy, is called:

A) ignition.

B) liberation.

C) combustion.

D) explosion.

E) the flash point.

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Chapter 14: Trace Evidence Ii: Paint, Glass, and Soil

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Q1) Which of the following statements is false?

A) Smokeless powder is a low explosive.

B) Thin-layer chromatography is a useful analytical technique for screening debris for explosive residues.

C) Chemicals that supply oxygen are known as oxidizing agents.

D) Potassium chlorate can be mixed with sulfuric acid and sugar to create a low explosive.

E) Dynamite is an initiating high explosive.

Q2) Spot testing for the presence of explosives can be confirmed in the laboratory using:

A) infrared (IR) spectrophotometry.

B) x-ray diffraction.

C) the ion mobility spectrometer (IMS).

D) microscopic identification.

E) A and B

Q3) At the crime lab, what procedures to they use to detect and identify explosive residues?

Q4) Describe how a forensic scientist would collect physical evidence at the scene of an explosion.

Q5) Briefly explain the classification of explosives.

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Chapter 15: Biological Stain Analysis: DNA

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Sample Questions

Q1) The fingerprint classification system used in most English speaking countries was devised by:

A) Henry.

B) Vucetich.

C) Fauld.

D) Galton.

E) Herschel.

Q2) Dusting to visualize a latent print on finished leather and rough plastic is best done with a:

A) fiberglass brush.

B) camel's hair brush.

C) Magna brush.

D) all of the above

E) A and C only.

Q3) What item is NOT considered a porous surface?

A) paper

B) cloth

C) cardboard

D) tile

E) skin

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Chapter 16: Forensic Aspects of Fire and Explosion Investigation

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Sample Questions

Q1) List and diagram the class characteristics and individual characteristics that are found on a spent bullet.

Q2) Which of the following results is not possible from a laboratory examination of firearm evidence?

A) Determining how far from the victim the weapon was held.

B) Determining that two or more cartridge cases were fired from the same weapon.

C) Identifying a bullet as having been combined with a particular shell prior to being discharged.

D) Restoring serial numbers ground off the gun.

E) All of the above can be determined from a laboratory examination of firearm evidence.

Q3) Two elements detected on the hands of an individual who has recently fired a weapon are:

A) barium and antimony.

B) zinc and copper.

C) antimony and iron.

D) iron and lead.

E) barium and nitrates.

Q4) Describe the various techniques that are used to rifle a barrel.

Q5) List common field reagents used to enhance bloody fingerprints.

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Chapter 17: Document Examination

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the case of ___________, the Supreme Court held handwriting to be nontestimonial evidence not protected by Fifth Amendment privileges.

A) United States Secret Service v. Mara

B) Gilbert v. California

C) United States v. Mara

D) Carmichael v. Kumho Tire Co.

E) none of the above

Q2) Document examiners frequently uncover the original writing of words that have been crossed out with the aid of:

A) transmitted radiation.

B) color photography.

C) infrared radiation.

D) thin-layer chromatography

E) side lighting.

Q3) What are the common individual characteristics that are associated with handwriting?

Q4) List and describe some of the techniques that document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.

Q5) What is a questioned document?

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Chapter 18: Computer Forensics

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a file system defines a cluster as six sectors, how many bytes of information can be stored on each cluster?

A) 512

B) 3,072

C) 24,576

D) none of the above

Q2) Sectors are typically ___________ bytes in size.

A) 512

B) 256

C) 126

D) 2050

E) 1024

Q3) Describe the difference between read-only memory and random-access memory.

Q4) The most commonly used feature of the Internet is:

A) academic research.

B) chat rooms.

C) long-distance phone service.

D) email.

E) online shopping.

Q5) Describe the proper procedure for preserving computer evidence at a crime scene.

Page 20

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