
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Forensic Biology explores the application of biological principles and techniques to criminal investigations and legal processes. The course covers the identification, collection, and analysis of biological evidence such as blood, hair, semen, saliva, and other body fluids. Topics include DNA profiling, forensic serology, trace evidence examination, and the interpretation of biological findings in the context of crime scene reconstruction. Students will gain hands-on experience with laboratory methods and learn about the role of forensic biologists in the justice system, as well as ethical considerations and recent advances in forensic biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic Science An Introduction 2nd Edition by Saferstein Richard
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Q1) A crime scene which involved the collapse of a structure would be analyzed by specialists in the area of:
A) criminalistics
B) forensic entomology
C) forensic engineering
D) forensic error analysis
E) forensic computer and digital analysis
Answer: C
Q2) The case of Coppolino v. State highlights issues dealing with:
A) the admissibility of the polygraph.
B) search and seizure.
C) the evidential value of confessions.
D) warrantees searches.
E) the acceptability of new scientific tests.
Answer: E
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Q1) The successful outcome of a criminal investigation is almost always directly related to:
A) the manner in which the evidence is collected and preserved.
B) the number of people employed in the crime lab.
C) the volume of the physical evidence collected.
D) the complexity of the crime.
E) whether the crime is considered high profile.
Answer: A
Q2) A corpse was discovered in an apartment last November. It was that of a 50-year-old male who died of a heart attack. At the time of discovery, the body temperature was determined to be 89 F. What is the most probable post mortem interval?
A) 2 hours
B) 12 hours
C) 1 hour
D) 4 hours
E) 7 hours
Answer: E
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Q1) List and describe three categories of physical evidence that are commonly found at crime scenes.
Answer: 1. Biological evidence: This category includes any physical material that originated from a living organism, such as blood, saliva, hair, skin cells, and bodily fluids. Biological evidence is commonly found at crime scenes and can be crucial in identifying suspects through DNA analysis.
2. Trace evidence: This category includes small, often microscopic, pieces of physical material that can be transferred between people or objects during a crime. Examples of trace evidence include fibers, glass fragments, paint chips, and gunshot residue. These types of evidence can provide important clues about the events that took place at a crime scene.
3. Impressions and tool marks: This category includes evidence left behind by objects or tools used during a crime. This can include shoeprints, tire tracks, fingerprints, and tool marks left on surfaces such as doors or windows. Impressions and tool marks can be used to link a suspect to a crime scene or to identify the tools or objects used during the commission of a crime.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contract the differences between a solid, a liquid and a gas.
Q2) Which is a true statement about the fracturing of glass?
A) Concentric fractures form first, starting on the side opposite the destructive force.
B) Concentric fractures form first, on the same side as the destructive force.
C) Radial cracks form afterward, starting on the same side as the destructive force.
D) Radial cracks and concentric fractures are formed simultaneously.
E) Radial cracks appear first, starting on the side opposite the destructive force.
Q3) The density of water at 60 F is ________ the density of water at 28 F.
A) the same as
B) less than
C) greater than
Q4) The refractive index of a medium is determined by the ratio of:
A) velocity of light in a vacuum to frequency of light in a medium
B) frequency of light in a vacuum to frequency of light in a medium
C) angle of refraction to angle of incidence
D) velocity of light in a vacuum to velocity of light in a medium
E) density of light in the medium to density of light in a vacuum
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Q1) Heroin is a chemical derivative of:
A) morphine
B) codeine
C) barbituric acid
D) amphetamine
E) methadone
Q2) "Designer" drugs are:
A) high-end products of the major pharmaceutical companies.
B) often abused by the wealthy.
C) only available in "boutique" pharmacies and drug stores.
D) chemically related to controlled substances.
E) very often used in the fashion industry.
Q3) Which of the following is the most widely used and abused drug?
A) marijuana
B) heroin
C) amphetamine
D) cocaine
E) alcohol
Q4) Compare and contrast the clinical aspects of psychological and physical drug dependency.
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Q1) In forensic toxicology, all positive drug findings must be confirmed by a specific chemical test. The confirmation test of choice is:
A) ultraviolet spectrophotometry
B) gas chromatography-mass spectrometry
C) gas chromatography
D) thin-layer chromatography
E) infrared spectrophotometry
Q2) The concentration of alcohol in an exhaled breath is in direct proportion to that of the blood of the same individual. The ratio of this relationship is closest to:
A) 1:1,000.
B) 1:10.
C) 1:100.
D) 1:21,000.
E) 1:2,000.
Q3) Briefly describe how a toxicologist finds a drug in human tissue or organs.
Q4) Briefly describe the case of Schmerber v. California and the implied consent laws.
Q5) List and describe the most commonly employed field sobriety tests.
Q6) Explain how alcohol is released by the lungs.
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Q1) The image produced by an SEM is initially displayed on:
A) an X-ray film.
B) a sheet of photographic paper.
C) a cathode ray tube.
D) an x-ray analyzer.
E) photographic paper.
Q2) Which microscope is best suited to the study of birefringent minerals and fibers?
A) microspectrophotometer
B) stereoscopic
C) compound
D) polarizing
E) comparison
Q3) A microscope uses a combination of ___________ to magnify an image.
A) stages
B) lenses
C) confocals
D) mirrors
E) prisms
Q4) Compare and contrast the comparison microscope to the compound microscope.
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Q1) Antibodies are found:
A) in the solid portion of blood.
B) in fibrinogen.
C) on the red blood cells.
D) in the blood serum.
E) on the white blood cells.
Q2) The amount of acid phosphatase in seminal fluid is ________ the amount of acid phosphatase in blood.
A) less than
B) the same as
C) greater than
Q3) Create a table showing the four blood types, their antigens and their antibodies.
Q4) To determine whether a bloodstain is of human or animal origin, the serologist will perform:
A) an analysis with Hemastix strips.
B) the luminol test.
C) EMIT.
D) RIA.
E) a precipitin test.
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Q1) HV1 and HV2 are:
A) regions of mtDNA.
B) restriction enzymes.
C) STR types.
D) types of viruses.
E) CODIS search parameters.
Q2) Buccal cells are obtained from:
A) semen.
B) urine.
C) blood.
D) the mouth and inside of the cheek.
E) fingers.
Q3) Diagram the complementary strand for the following DNA segment ATAGCCGTA.
Q4) Which statement is NOT true? Few forensic labs do analysis of mtDNA because:
A) the analysis procedure is very rigorous.
B) such study takes a long time.
C) it costs much more than nuclear DNA profiling.
D) little mtDNA is present in a cell.
E) None of the above are true.
Q5) List and briefly describe the process of PCR.
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Q1) The approximate drying time of a pool of blood can be used to estimate timing of events at a crime scene and is dependent upon:
A) the environmental condition of the scene
B) the blood type of the blood
C) the clotting ability of the blood
D) the position of the victim
E) the method of deposition
Q2) How can an investigator determine the area of convergence and an area of impact for a given blood pattern?
Q3) The removal of an object or surface that was located between the origin of blood and the target surface during the bloodstain deposition leaves behind:
A) a void.
B) expirated blood.
C) an unidentifiable pattern.
D) a transfer pattern.
E) blowback spatter.
Q4) Explain how the texture of a surface, directionality and the angle of impact can impact the shape of the individual bloodstains.
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Q1) Which type of crime is LEAST likely to be solved with the use of fiber evidence?
A) breaking and entering
B) hit-and-run
C) kidnapping
D) sexual assault
E) bombing
Q2) List and explain the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparison.
Q3) A regenerated fiber can be derived from:
A) acetate.
B) polyester.
C) isoprene.
D) cotton or wood pulp.
E) rayon.
Q4) The rate of human hair growth per month is:
A) 1 inch.
B) 1 dm.
C) 1 cm.
D) 1 mL.
E) so variable as to be forensically worthless.
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Q1) Paint as physical evidence is most frequently encountered in: A) burglary.
B) a hit-and-run.
C) assault.
D) car theft.
E) both A and B
Q2) Beta particles are identical to:
A) alpha particles
B) gamma particles
C) electrons
D) photons
E) isotopes
Q3) An element is selective in the frequency of light it will absorb. This selectivity is due to its:
A) electron energy levels.
B) atomic mass.
C) atomic number.
D) number of neutrons.
E) proton cloud.
Q4) Explain how elements can be made into radioactive isotopes.
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Q1) Which of the following cannot be determined from a laboratory examination of evidence recovered from an arson?
A) Origin of liquid gasolines.
B) The ignition mechanism used by the arsonist.
C) The brand name of gasoline used to start the fire.
D) The presence of gasoline, kerosene, or turpentine in debris.
E) All of the above are possible to accomplish.
Q2) The transfer of heat energy by the movement of molecules within a liquid or gas is:
A) oxidation.
B) conduction.
C) pyrolysis.
D) radiation.
E) convection.
Q3) The chemical reaction associated with a fire is:
A) reduction.
B) acid-base.
C) precipitation.
D) oxidation.
E) none of the above
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Q1) An explosive readily detonated by heat or shock is:
A) anfo.
B) primary explosive.
C) dynamite.
D) secondary explosive.
E) black powder.
Q2) An initiating explosive often used in detonators is:
A) PETN.
B) nitrocellulose.
C) lead azide.
D) dynamite.
E) TNT.
Q3) Explosives that decompose at relatively slow rates are classified as:
A) decomposing explosives
B) corrosive explosives
C) high explosives
D) low explosives
E) slow explosives
Q4) For each of the following provide an example of a common type of explosive; commercial, homemade and military.
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Q1) The most commonly encountered ridge characteristics (used by AFIS) are the:
A) ridge ending and island.
B) ridge crossing and short ridge.
C) island and bifurcation.
D) bifurcation and trifurcation.
E) bifurcation and ridge ending.
Q2) Under which circumstances have two people been found to have identical fingerprints?
A) Siamese twins
B) identical twins
C) fraternal twins
D) members of the same immediate family
E) none to date
Q3) List and diagram the most common ridge characteristics found in a fingerprint.
Q4) Ninhydrin is used on a latent print to detect:
A) protein material.
B) riboflavin.
C) fatty acids.
D) salt.
E) oils.
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Q1) When an etching agent is applied to a metal surface in order to restore a removed serial number, the stamped area will dissolve at ________ as the unstamped area.
A) a slower rate
B) a greater rate
C) the same rate
Q2) Explain the concept of the NIBIN database.
Q3) Shoe and tire marks impressed into soft earth can be best preserved by:
A) photographing and casting with dental stone.
B) photographing and then use of the electrostatic lifting technique.
C) casting with dental stone and then attempting the electrostatic lift technique.
D) It is not possible to accurately preserve such markings.
E) both A and B
Q4) List common field reagents used to enhance bloody fingerprints.
Q5) Generally speaking, the amount of gun powder particles found around a bullet hole is ________ to the distance from which the weapon was fired.
A) indirectly related
B) directly related
C) not related
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Q1) List and describe some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.
Q2) Document examiners frequently uncover the original writing of words that have been crossed out with the aid of:
A) transmitted radiation.
B) color photography.
C) infrared radiation.
D) thin-layer chromatography
E) side lighting.
Q3) Infrared luminescence is used to:
A) reveal writing that has been erased.
B) detect if two different inks were used in the writing of a document.
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Q4) What guidelines should an investigator use when collecting known writing samples for comparison to a questioned document?
Q5) List and describe some of the techniques that document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.
Q6) What is a questioned document?

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Q1) The first thing a crime scene investigator should do when encountering computer forensic evidence is:
A) tape each cable to its adjoining component in an effort to preserve the integrity of the physical connections.
B) procure a warrant to search.
C) document the scene.
D) remove the system to the laboratory for processing.
E) unplug every device from the CPU to preserve the hard disk drive.
Q2) Describe how a hard disk is partitioned.
Q3) The ___________ is a complex network of wires that carry data from one hardware device to another.
A) network
B) central processing unit (CPU)
C) operating system
D) motherboard
E) hard disc drive
Q4) Describe the proper procedure for preserving computer evidence at a crime scene.
Q5) List and describe the hardware and the software components of a computer.
Q6) Describe the difference between read-only memory and random-access memory.
Q7) What is the difference between and location of visible and latent data?
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