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Food Systems and Preparation explores the journey of food from its origins to consumption, examining the interconnected components of production, processing, distribution, and preparation. The course covers fundamental principles of food safety, nutrition, and quality, as well as techniques for selecting, storing, and preparing ingredients in diverse culinary contexts. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical application, students learn to analyze food systems, understand the impact of environmental and cultural factors on food choices, and develop skills essential for effective and sustainable food preparation practices.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Food Principles and Preparation 5th Edition by Amy Christine Brown
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30 Chapters
1632 Verified Questions
1632 Flashcards
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47 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11541
Sample Questions
Q1) The feeling of chemesthesis may be felt by some individuals eating
A) really cold ice cream.
B) hot chili peppers.
C) warm chicken noodle soup.
D) hot chocolate with whipped cream.
E) hot buttered popcorn.
Answer: B
Q2) The 2010 Dietary Guidelines promote a healthy diet by emphasizing all of the following except
A) consuming a variety of vegetables, legumes, and whole grains.
B) eating lean meats, poultry, seafood, seeds, and nuts.
C) consuming full-fat milk products.
D) limiting added sugars.
E) all of the above answers are correct
Answer: C
Q3) The term kosher is the general term applied to foods that are clean in any religion or faith.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) spectrophotometer
A)used to measure mineral content
B)measures the concentration of various organic compounds, especially sugar
C)measures the consistency of batters and other viscous foods
D)measures color by detecting the amount and wavelength of light transmitted through a solution
E)measures tenderness by determining the resistance of baked goods such as cookies, pastries, and crackers to breakage
Answer: D
Q2) Which instrument or test would be used to observe microorganisms in food?
A) microscope
B) atomic absorption
C) shortometer
D) viscometer (or viscosimeter)
Answer: A
Q3) The Association of Official Analytical Chemists (AOAC)International publishes a book on chemical tests.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pressure cooker speeds up heating time by _____.
A) decreasing atmospheric pressure to five pounds
B) decreasing the boiling point by ten degrees
C) increasing atmospheric pressure to fifteen pounds
D) increasing the boiling point by twenty degrees
Answer: C
Q2) You are what you eat.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following foods contains phospholipids?
A) egg yolks
B) liver
C) soybeans
D) wheat germ
E) peanut
F) all of the above answers are correct
G) none of the above answers is correct
Answer: F
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following needs a living cell in order to multiply?
A) mold
B) yeast
C) virus
D) none of the above answers is correct
Q2) prion
A)foodborne illness that occurs when bacteria enter the intestines, then produce a toxin
B)foodborne illness resulting from the ingestion of food containing large numbers of living microorganisms that grow and multiply in your intestines
C)disease-causing
D)illness resulting from ingestion of food containing a toxin
E)an infectious protein particle that does not contain RNA or DNA
Q3) One of the reasons that intoxication from molds is often avoided is that large groupings of molds exhibit a visible bloom.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sections of a knife blade perform varying tasks and the tip is used for
A) light tasks such as cutting out the stem end of a tomato.
B) general slicing and dicing.
C) the heavy work of chopping tough fruits and vegetables.
D) slicing breads.
E) cracking bones.
Q2) One tablespoon of salt contains 2,300 milligrams of sodium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The basics of food preparation are an exact science.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cooked vegetables are best when _____, because this method helps to retain texture, color, taste, and nutrients.
A) boiled
B) scalded
C) simmered
D) steamed
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Sample Questions
Q1) organizational chart
A)health professional who counsels people about medical nutrition therapies and may have administrative responsibilities.
B)a system of organization of a food production facility using heads with particular skills or expertise.
C)organized list of duties used for finding qualified applicants, training, performance evaluation, defining authority, and determining salary.
D)descriptive diagram showing the administrative structure of an organization.
E)person in charge of kitchen administration, hiring, budgeting, purchasing, work scheduling, and menu planning.
Q2) The biggest expense in the food budget is meat.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When price shopping, convenience foods are almost guaranteed to be less expensive than fresh, unprocessed forms.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) When meat is heated, the muscle fiber proteins denature, unfold, coagulate, and toughen at around
A) 100 degrees F.
B) 120 degrees F.
C) 140 degrees F.
D) 150 degrees F.
E) 170 degrees F.
Q2) Which of the following is not a method of aging meats?
A) rigor mortis
B) fast or wet
C) vacuum
D) none of the above because all of the answers are methods of aging meats
Q3) Bones in a cut of meat serve as landmarks for identifying the various cuts from a carcass.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In general, it usually takes 12 to 15 minutes of roasting time for every pound of meat.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Cornish game hens
A)a chicken that is a cross between a Cornish hen and another breed of chicken
B)any chicken over the age of 10 months
C)chickens of either sex slaughtered under 10 weeks of age
D)chickens of either sex, processed between 10 and 12 weeks and weighing at least 6-8 pounds
E)neutered male chickens, usually under 4 months of age and weighing 12-14 pounds
Q2) Poultry is
A) all birds, wild or domesticated.
B) domesticated birds raised for their meat.
C) domesticated birds raised for their eggs.
D) a term for young chickens and turkeys.
E) a term for the young of any species of bird.
Q3) Poultry comes to market in different "types," which refers to
A) the specific breed.
B) whether it is fresh, frozen, cooked, sliced, etc.
C) whether it is live, dressed, or processed to any extent.
D) whether it is ready for retail processing.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Signs that indicate that a whole fish is done cooking include which of the following?
A) The flesh easily flakes with the gentle pressure of a fork without falling apart.
B) The color of the flesh is translucent and the bone is adhered firmly to the flesh.
C) The color of the bone is pink.
D) all of the above answers are correct
Q2) The characteristic smell of fish odor comes primarily from A) histamine.
B) phosphate.
C) scombrotoxin.
D) trimethylamine
Q3) Finfish is usually considered a low-fat food whose fats are a good source of omega-3 fatty acids.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most common mistake people make when preparing seafood is undercooking. A)True B)False
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Q1) Although milk is rich in many minerals, it is low in iron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The fat in whole milk is primarily (66%)saturated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following milk components is responsible for the presence of lactose intolerance in humans?
A) the protein fractions
B) the carbohydrate fractions
C) the vitamins
D) the minerals
E) the lipid fractions
Q4) The percentage of fat in commercial creams varies from 18 to 36%.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Soy milk is fortified with the carbohydrate lactose.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) _____ cheese is usually not aged because its high acidity inhibits the bacterial and mold growth that characterizes the aging process.
A) Acid-coagulated
B) Enzyme-coagulated
C) High-fat
D) Low-fat
Q2) Which of the following represents the time and temperature at which cheese should be cooked?
A) long time and short temperatures
B) long time and low temperatures
C) short time and high temperatures
D) short time and low temperatures
Q3) Soft cheese
A)A cheese aged for a very short period, containing 50-75% moisture.
B)A cheese that is not aged, containing greater than 80% moisture.
C)A cheese aged for varied periods of time, containing 30-40% moisture.
D)A cheese aged for varied periods of time, containing 40-50% moisture.
E)A cheese aged for the longest period of time, containing approximately 30% moisture.
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Q1) The correct way to determine if a soufflé is done is to
A) continually check for doneness during baking.
B) stick a toothpick in the center: if it comes out dry, the soufflé is done.
C) gently shake the oven rack to determine if the soufflé jiggles.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) The air cell develops
A) before the egg is ready to be laid, when the contents begin to contract.
B) between the two shell membranes after the egg is laid and the contents contract with cooling.
C) under the shell at the small end when air is trapped inside and pushes against the contents.
D) within the outer ring of albumen from air trapped in the yolk.
Q3) Liquid egg substitutes
A) are lower in sodium than regular eggs.
B) have a four-month shelf-life.
C) are irradiated and usually used for baked goods such as cakes and cookies.
D) are used when raw eggs would pose a food safety risk.
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Q1) Carotenoids are susceptible to oxidation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Controlled-atmosphere storage slows down the natural respiration of fresh vegetables by reducing the amount of oxygen and increasing the amount of carbon dioxide available.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Once tofu is opened, water should be drained off prior to and during refrigeration; storing it in a dry container increases its shelf life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The common classification system used for vegetables is based on the part of the plant that is used.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Without intercellular spaces, fruits and vegetables would be soft and flaccid.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) jam
A)a thick and smooth fruit preserve made from long-cooked fruit that is sieved
B)a mixture of fruits (usually citrus, or at least with some citrus) with added nuts and raisins but no sugar
C)a product made from juice of cooked fruit with added sugar and pectin; may be clear if the juice is strained first
D)a preserved fruit product made from ground or mashed whole cooked fruit
E)a preserved fruit product made from the juice with thin slices of fruit and rind
Q2) According to the Code of Federal Regulations, fruit cocktail may be canned in
A) its own juice (with only 2 to 6 percent sugar added).
B) light syrup (some sugar added, 10 to 14 percent density).
C) heavy syrup (25 percent density).
D) all of the above answers are correct
Q3) The increase in the consumption of tropical fruits is due to the increase in the ease of world transportation and an increase in world marketing outlets.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) vinaigrette
A)a broth made from meat and vegetables and then strained to remove the solids
B)a bundle of parsley, thyme, bay leaf, and whole black pepper rolled and tied in a leek
C)a salad dressing consisting of only oil, vinegar, and seasoning
D)a richly flavored soup stock that has been clarified using egg whites
E)a cream soup traditionally made from shellfish
Q2) The foundational thin liquid of many soups, produced when meat, poultry, seafood, and/or their bones or vegetables are reduced and strained, is called
A) bouillon.
B) bouquet garni.
C) consommé.
D) stock.
Q3) Tart salad dressings best accompany
A) carbohydrate-based salads.
B) fruit salads.
C) protein-based salads.
D) greens or vegetables.
E) both a and b
F) both c and d g. all of the above answers are correct
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52 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among food the additives used in grain products, _____ can be added to the dough before baking.
A) the vitamins thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin
B) vitamin C
C) vitamins A, D, E, and K
D) all of the above answers are correct
Q2) The seeds of an annual, gluten-free grass, eaten as a cereal in Africa and Asia, are called
A) amaranth.
B) quinoa.
C) millet.
D) sorghum.
E) triticale.
Q3) The aleurone layer is incorporated when grains are processed into white flour.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pasta is produced by forcing a flour and water dough through the holes in a disc designed to create the desired pasta shape.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following statements about gluten formation is incorrect?
A) Gluten is formed from the combination of gliadin and glutenin.
B) Gluten is both plastic and elastic.
C) Gliadin is elastic while glutenin exhibits fluidity and stickiness.
D) Gluten forms such a solid structure that it can be physically separated from the flour mixture by kneading dough under cold running water.
E) All of the above statements are correct.
Q2) The non-wheat grains make different types of breads due to the A) decreased or non-existent protein levels in the non-wheat grain flours.
B) decreased starch levels in the non-wheat grain flours.
C) increased protein (gluten) levels in the non-wheat grain flours.
D) increased levels of starch in the non-wheat grains.
Q3) Eggs are added to baked products for their nutritional value alone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All-purpose flour is a blend of hard and soft wheat flours.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Oxidized starches
A) are more viscous than cross-linked starches.
B) are cloudier than cross-linked starches.
C) are not appropriate for use as stabilizers and emulsifiers.
D) are ideal for dusting foods such as marshmallows because of their powder-like consistency.
Q2) Beurre manié is an uncooked butter and flour mixture which is added in small amounts to a simmering sauce to thicken it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the typical steps in making a gravy, in order?
A) preparing a roux, adding hot liquid, cooking, and seasoning
B) heating liquid, seasoning, preparing a roux, and cooking
C) reduction, deglazing, straining, degreasing, and seasoning
D) degreasing, deglazing, reduction, straining, and seasoning
Q4) The base for a tartar sauce is tomato paste.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Scones
A) are the same as biscuits except that they are cut into different shapes.
B) contain eggs and milk or cream and are richer than ordinary biscuits.
C) contain fat, which is melted before being added to the other ingredients.
D) are kneaded so that a lot of gluten development is created.
Q2) Which of the following quick breads is made with rye and graham flours and steamed instead of baked?
A) tea breads
B) hushpuppies
C) chapattis
D) Boston brown bread
Q3) flour tortillas
A)staple breads of Mexico and Central America made from a grain treated with lime
B)the softer and more pliable of the flat breads made in Mexico
C)the whole-wheat flat bread, made with ghee, typical of Indian cuisine
D)Scandinavian flat breads made without any added leavening
E)unleavened breads that are typical of Jewish cuisine since Biblical times
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Q1) rapid mix
A)a method in which all ingredients are placed in a bowl at one time, mixed, and kneaded
B)the method that allows for the fermentation of the yeast, water, and one third of the flour
C)the combining and beating of the ingredients to develop the gluten
D)the method used primarily for bread machines
E)increasing the volume of dough through fermentation
Q2) Why does dough have to be punched down after fermentation?
A) to even out temperatures
B) to redistribute sugars, yeast, and gluten
C) to break large air bubbles into smaller cells
D) to allow excess carbon dioxide gas to escape
E) all of the above answers are correct
Q3) The crumb of a baked product is the regularity of the cells in a loaf of bread.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At higher altitudes yeast breads rise more slowly.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Any sugar except lactose can be fermented to carbon dioxide and alcohol by yeast organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As compared with lower-conversion syrups, high-conversion corn syrups
A) are more viscous.
B) have greater sweetening power.
C) have less ability to promote fermentation.
D) contribute less to browning.
Q3) Which of the following sugars is used primarily as a flavoring and coloring agent in the manufacture of beer?
A) glucose
B) fructose
C) galactose
D) sucrose
E) maltos
F) lactose
Q4) Fructose is a low-kcalorie sweetener.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Winterized oils are
A) vegetable oils which solidify under refrigerator temperatures.
B) oils from which certain fatty acids have been removed to prevent cloudiness.
C) oils in which hydrogen atoms have been added to the fatty acids to prevent cloudiness.
D) animal oils which have been interesterified.
Q2) Superglycerinated shortenings are ideal for:
A) flaky pastries.
B) cakes containing more sugar than flour.
C) baking applications where solid fat is needed.
D) all of the above answers are correct
E) none of the above answers is correct
Q3) Butter contains up to _____ percent water while diet margarines can contain up to _____ percent water.
A) 4, 20
B) 8, 30
C) 12, 40
D) 16, 50
E) Depends on individual brands
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Q1) icebox/refrigerator cookies
A)baked from dough that has been formed into a cylinder, wrapped, and chilled to harden
B)baked from the most fluid of the cookie batters
C)judged for quality based on spread during baking and surface cracking
D)baked from a viscous cookie batter that is piped from a pastry bag or cookie press
E)baked from heavy dough that is formed or shaped before placement on the cookie sheet
Q2) Angel food cake pans are usually greased on the bottom and sides.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Done cakes spring back when touched in the middle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cookie batter or dough that has been over-mixed will become hard when baked.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Tenderness, in reference to pastry, is
A) the ease with which the pastry may be cut.
B) the degree of brittleness the pastry exhibits when broken.
C) the ease with which the pastry gives way to the tooth.
D) the chewiness of plain pastry.
E) synonymous with flakiness.
Q2) Cream pie fillings are usually thickened primarily with flour.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A plain pastry is
A) a delicate pastry that puffs up in size during baking due to alternating layers of fat and flour.
B) a hearty pastry made with nut meats, butter, and cream.
C) used for pie crusts, tarts, tartlets, and galettes.
D) made from butter and flour, with little or no added flavorings.
Q4) Examples of short or sweet dough pastry include
A) hot-water crust pastry.
B) shortcrust pastry.
C) tartlets and ginger snap cookies.
D) any laminated pastry.

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Q1) Days with high humidity in the air are preferred by confectionary makers when preparing candy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) simple syrup
A)candies formed from sugar solutions handled so as to yield many fine, small crystals
B)substance added to the sugar solution to prevent the formation of large crystals
C)a coating resembling chocolate that is not subject to bloom
D)a basic mixture of boiled sugar and water
E)candies formed from sugar solutions that did not crystallize
Q3) noncrystalline candy
A)candies formed from sugar solutions handled so as to yield many fine, small crystals
B)substance added to the sugar solution to prevent the formation of large crystals
C)a coating resembling chocolate that is not subject to bloom
D)a basic mixture of boiled sugar and water
E)candies formed from sugar solutions that did not crystallize
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Q1) Ice cream
A) is a colloid food foam.
B) contains an unfrozen liquid phase containing sugars and salts in solution.
C) contains frozen ice crystals and air bubbles surrounded with fat globules and coated with an emulsified protein layer.
D) all of the above answers are correct
E) none of the above answers is correct
Q2) Reduced-fat ice cream contains at least 50 percent less total fat than the original product.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nonfat ice cream contains no more than _____ gram of fat per serving.
A) 0.0
B) 0.1
C) 0.2
D) 0.3
E) 0.4
F)0.5
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Q1) The first popular soft drink was originally sold in a _____-ounce bottle.
A) 5.5
B) 6.5
C) 7.5
D) 8.5
Q2) The predominant minerals found in drinking water are
A) potassium and chloride.
B) sodium and calcium.
C) copper and zinc.
D) none of the above answers is correct
Q3) purified water
A)water that has surfaced on its own from an aquifer
B)water that has been heated to form steam and then re-condensed into a liquid
C)water that must have the same mineral content as that flowing naturally to the surface
D)water pumped from an aquifer, an underground source of water
E)water that has undergone deionization, distillation, reverse osmosis, or any other method that removes minerals, chemicals, and flavor
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Q1) A shipping container used to transport produce that is equipped with mechanical controls to regulate the composition of the air inside is an example of
A) ozonation equipment.
B) controlled-atmosphere packaging.
C) pascalization in food preservation.
D) a cold pasteurization method.
Q2) sterilization
A)thin layer of material such as natural wax, oils, etc.that serves as a barrier to gas and moisture
B)the preservation of foods through acidification via the addition of acids and/or fermentation
C)the elimination of all microorganisms through extended or intense heating or chemical agents
D)to preserve food through the use of salt and drying
E)the conversion of carbohydrates to carbon dioxide and alcohol by yeast or bacteria
Q3) Canning has been around since the Napoleonic Era.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The USDA maintains inspections for many food commodities under the auspice of numerous legislative acts, but the food must
A) be sold in the state in which it was produced.
B) have been graded first.
C) be inspected if it crosses state lines.
D) be one of the foods on the list passed by Congress.
Q2) The current parent or umbrella legislation being used today is the _____ Act.
A) 1906 Pure Food and Drug
B) 1938 Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
C) 1944 Public Health Services
D) 1958 Food Additives Amendment to 1938
E) 1990 Nutrition Labeling and Nutrition
Q3) Once a product is recalled, the manufacturer has all of the following alternatives except to
A) allow the USDA to dispose of the food product.
B) contest the government's charges in court.
C) request permission of the court to bring the product into compliance under the law.
D) all of the above answers are correct
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11570
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following positions is entry-level?
A) dietary clerk
B) research dietitian
C) certified diabetes educator (CDE)
D) dietetic technician, registered (DTR)
Q2) Dietary managers work for institutions that serve food, specifically hospitals, nursing homes, and schools.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Any individual applying for graduate school must submit his or her TOEFL scores.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To become food scientists, students must graduate with a doctorate degree from a program listed with the Institute of Food Technologists (IFT).
A)True
B)False
Q5) Registered dietitians assist registered dietetic technicians. A)True
B)False
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