Food Principles and Preparation Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course introduces the fundamental principles of food science and the techniques involved in the preparation of a wide variety of foods. Students will explore the chemical, physical, and sensory properties of foods and understand how these properties influence the choice of preparation methods. The course covers topics such as food safety, sanitation, the role of ingredients in recipes, and the impact of food preparation on nutritional content. Hands-on laboratory experiences allow students to apply theoretical concepts, develop basic culinary skills, and evaluate results through sensory analysis. This foundational knowledge prepares students for advanced study and professional practice in food and nutrition sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Food Principles and Preparation 5th Edition by Amy Christine Brown
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30 Chapters
1632 Verified Questions
1632 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Food Selection
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47 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the temperature of foods or beverages falls below 68 degrees F or rises above 86 degrees F, it becomes easier to distinguish their tastes accurately.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The ethnic influences on the American food supply are largely due to our diverse minorities, increased travel, and increasing communication distances.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following religious groups follows the practice of consuming halal meat?
A) Buddhists
B) Hindus
C) Muslims
D) Mormons
E) Orthodox Jews
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Food Evaluation
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In objective evaluations
A) instruments rather than humans are used to measure the characteristics of foods qualitatively.
B) humans rather than instruments are used to measure the characteristics of foods quantitatively.
C) laboratory instruments instead of humans are used to measure the characteristics of foods quantitatively.
D) a sequence of tests are used to document the characteristics of food preparation using humans as taste testers.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following are not measured by physical testing?
A) size and shape
B) weight, volume, and density
C) moisture, texture, and viscosity
D) nutrient and nonnutrient substances
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Chemistry of Food Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following enzymes is/are used for meat tenderization?
A) rennin, also known as chymosin
B) phenol oxidase
C) glucose oxidase
D) papain, bromelain, and ficin
Answer: D
Q2) Caffeine belongs to a group of compounds called oligosaccharides.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following foods contains phospholipids?
A) egg yolks
B) liver
C) soybeans
D) wheat germ
E) peanut
F) all of the above answers are correct
G) none of the above answers is correct
Answer: F
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Food Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) food infection
A)foodborne illness that occurs when bacteria enter the intestines, then produce a toxin
B)foodborne illness resulting from the ingestion of food containing large numbers of living microorganisms that grow and multiply in your intestines
C)disease-causing
D)illness resulting from ingestion of food containing a toxin
E)an infectious protein particle that does not contain RNA or DNA
Q2) To ensure maximum effect from hand washing, the routine should consist of washing up to the elbow for at least _____ seconds.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 40
D) 50
Q3) A chicken bone found in a boneless breast of chicken sandwich is considered to be a biological contaminant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Food Preparation Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) baste
A)to add a liquid to the surface of roasting meat to preserve the moistness of the meat
B)to dip briefly into boiling water
C)any compound that enhances the flavor already found naturally in a food
D)a substance that adds a new flavor to food
E)to boil but only partially cook a food
Q2) Which of the following statements about brown sugar is incorrect?
A) Brown sugar has a tendency to pack down.
B) Brown sugar contains two percent moisture.
C) Lumping can be prevented by placing in an airtight container and storing in the freezer.
D) Hardened brown sugar can be softened by placing it in a microwave oven for a few seconds.
E) Brown sugar is best measured by pressing it into a liquid glass measuring cup and leveling it.
Q3) Over-mixing when using the muffin method will result in a tough, rubbery, and tunneled product.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Meal Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pull dates are
A) the last day a store will sell an item.
B) the last day the product will be of optimum quality.
C) the last day a food should be consumed.
D) often used by stores, which need to know when to rotate stock.
Q2) Comparison of food prices is based on
A) edible portion.
B) as purchased portion.
C) cost per serving.
D) delivery charges.
Q3) If my portion size for a banquet with 200 guests is 4 ounces of cooked meat and I purchase 200 4-ounce portions for a total of 50 pounds of raw meat, I have
A) purchased just what I need.
B) over-purchased.
C) under-purchased.
Q4) Flatware has assigned positions on the table setting
A) depending on the type of table service.
B) depending on whether a linen table cloth is being used or not.
C) depending on the type of meal being served.
D) that remain the same, no matter the type of meal being served.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Meats
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Sample Questions
Q1) Liver should be salted before it is sautéed or else it will toughen and shrivel.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Meat from herbivores serves as an important source of _____ in the North American diet.
A) carbohydrates
B) complete proteins
C) fiber
D) incomplete proteins
Q3) Meats are best refrigerated between 32 degrees F and 36 degrees F and stored in the coldest part of the refrigerator.
A)True
B)False
Q4) warmed-over meat flavor
A)another name for the fatty tissue of an animal
B)another name for the intramuscular fat found in meat
C)the primary pigment in muscle fibers
D)the cooking and heat transfer that continue after meat is removed from the heat
E)an effect of the oxidation of meat's unsaturated fatty acids
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Chapter 8: Poultry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cornish game hens
A)a chicken that is a cross between a Cornish hen and another breed of chicken
B)any chicken over the age of 10 months
C)chickens of either sex slaughtered under 10 weeks of age
D)chickens of either sex, processed between 10 and 12 weeks and weighing at least 6-8 pounds
E)neutered male chickens, usually under 4 months of age and weighing 12-14 pounds
Q2) The grading of poultry
A) involves assigning products one of four grades-A, B, C, or D.
B) is based on the skin color, which is reflective of the quality of the bird.
C) is mandatory and paid for by the manufacturer.
D) uses criteria such as conformation and fleshing.
E) none of the above is correct
Q3) Poultry comes to market in different "types," which refers to
A) the specific breed.
B) whether it is fresh, frozen, cooked, sliced, etc.
C) whether it is live, dressed, or processed to any extent.
D) whether it is ready for retail processing.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Fish and Shellfish
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding muscle structure,
A) fish muscles are less than three inches in length.
B) heat softens the collagen in the myocommata and contributes to the characteristic flaking of prepared fish.
C) fish muscles are arranged into myocommata, which are separated by connective tissue called myotomes.
D) the gel-forming ability of the muscle fat and carbohydrate contributes to a soft, gel-like texture.
Q2) Pressure steaming is recommended because it tends to tenderize both fish and shellfish.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Abalones are the largest of crustaceans.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The color of fish is darker when the muscle fibers are slow-twitch and the fat content is higher.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Milk
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sweetened condensed milk has 50% of its weight in water removed with 50% sugar added.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One cup of milk contains approximately _____ grams of protein.
A) six
B) eight
C) ten
D) seventeen
Q3) The protein that represents approximately 80% of the proteins in milk is
A) rennin.
B) whey.
C) casein.
D) butyric acid.
E) the immunoglobulins.
Q4) Milk is _____ percent water with a pH of _____.
A) 74.2, 5.5
B) 80.6, 6.0
C) 87.4, 6.6
D) 92.2, 7.4
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Chapter 11: Cheese
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Sample Questions
Q1) Roquefort, Muenster, Gouda, Port du Salut, Gorgonzola, and Stilton are considered _____ cheeses.
A) very hard
B) fresh
C) semi-hard
D) soft e hard
E) Each cheese varies in its classification. All the above answers are correct.
Q2) Cheese that is kept too long can become moldy.Most molds that develop on cheese are
A) desirable.
B) undesirable.
C) benign.
D) pathogenic.
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Parmesan and Romano cheeses?
A) aged the longest of all cheeses
B) water content of approximately 30 percent
C) easily sliced
D) easily grated or crumbled
E) none of the above; these are all characteristics of Parmesan and Romano
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Eggs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between French and American omelets is that
A) French omelets have a little color on the outside, while American omelets are never allowed to brown.
B) French omelets have texture lines, while American omelets never have texture lines.
C) American omelets are folded in thirds, while French omelets are folded in half.
D) American omelet centers are fully cooked while the centers of French omelets are still soft.
Q2) Which of the following is an egg protein that acts as an emulsifier in food preparation?
A) ovotransferrin (conalbumin)
B) ovomucoid
C) avidin
D) lipovitellin
Q3) The best time to add sugar to an egg white foam is near the end of the foam development.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Vegetables and Legumes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vegetables are a source of
A) balanced proteins.
B) complete proteins.
C) incomplete proteins.
D) unbalanced proteins.
Q2) Fruits often seen masquerading as vegetables include A) lentils.
B) scallions and leeks.
C) cabbage, Brussels sprouts, and collard greens.
D) okra, eggplant, olives, water chestnuts, and peppers.
Q3) When cooking broccoli, keep the lid off for the first few minutes of cooking, to allow the volatile organic acids to escape.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When cooking cauliflower, add a pinch of baking soda to the cooking water to promote development of a bright white color.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Fruits
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Sample Questions
Q1) The small particles of suspended pulp remaining in pressed juice are called haze or cloud.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Examples of drupes include cherries, peaches, and plums.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bananas contain albedo, which is rich in pectin and aromatic oils.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following substances are found in fruits except
A) cholesterol.
B) organic acids.
C) pectic substances.
D) phenolic compounds.
Q5) Freezing is the best storage form for the maintenance of fresh fruit texture.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Soups, Salads, and Gelatins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A frequent problem with non-acidic fruit salads is
A) acidic browning.
B) enzymatic browning.
C) Maillard browning.
D) sugar-protein browning.
Q2) The more assertively flavored the ingredient in a salad the larger its role in the salad should be.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A chef who desires to create both a viscous and rich, meaty tasting stock, should use
A) whole veal bones.
B) cracked veal bones.
C) whole beef bones.
D) cracked beef bones.
E) both b and d
Q4) Another way of thinking about a salad dressing is to consider it a "sauce for salads."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Cereal Grains and Pastas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following explains why cereal grains expand upon cooking?
A) The carbohydrates leach out, leaving holes in the cereal that fill with water.
B) The starch molecules gel when they are heated.
C) The starch molecules gel when they are cooled.
D) The proteins and starches complex together when heated and swell.
E) The starch molecules gelatinize when heated in water, thus swelling the grain.
Q2) Grains, especially whole grains, are excellent sources of complex carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ comprise the world's major food crops.
A) Nuts
B) Grains
C) Legumes
D) Meat animals
E) Vegetables
Q4) The aleurone layer is incorporated when grains are processed into white flour.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Flours and Flour Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Crumb is partially created during baking
A) by the number and size of air cells produced.
B) by the degree of starch gelatinization.
C) by the amount of protein coagulation.
D) with small, densely packed air bubbles if the crumb is fine in texture.
E) with large, often irregular air holes if the crumb is coarse in texture.
F) all of the above answers are correct
G) none of the above answers is correct
Q2) Which of the following flours contains a high concentration of water-soluble carbohydrates, which gives the flour a high water-binding capacity and characteristic stickiness?
A) buckwheat
B) chickpea
C) cornmeal
D) rice
E) rye f. soy
Q3) All-purpose flour is a blend of hard and soft wheat flours.
A)True
B)False
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Starches and Sauces
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pH below _____ decreases the viscosity of a starch gel.
A) 4.0
B) 6.5
C) 7.0
D) 7.5
E) 8.0
Q2) Retrogradation is caused by the weakening of bonds between amylopectin molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A smooth, lump-free sauce depends on the presence of sifted starches.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Starch consists of repeating units of:
A) fructose.
B) galactose.
C) glucose.
D) sucrose.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Quick Breads
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Sample Questions
Q1) chapatis
A)staple breads of Mexico and Central America made from a grain treated with lime
B)the softer and more pliable of the flat breads made in Mexico
C)the whole-wheat flat bread, made with ghee, typical of Indian cuisine
D)Scandinavian flat breads made without any added leavening
E)unleavened breads that are typical of Jewish cuisine since Biblical times
Q2) Unleavened breads are the world's oldest breads and easy to prepare.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The two most important considerations in preparing quick breads are
A) accuracy in measuring and consistency of the batter.
B) accuracy in measuring and amount of mixing.
C) consistency of the batter and cooking temperature.
D) cooking temperature and cooking time.
Q4) Waffles contain less fat than pancakes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Yeast Breads
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most commonly used flour for a yeast bread is
A) buckwheat.
B) millet.
C) rye.
D) wheat.
E) corn.
Q2) The purpose of second proofing a loaf of bread is to A) create a dough that is adequately aerated.
B) alter the shape of the loaf with rising.
C) increase the crumb texture.
D) always at least double the volume.
Q3) Specialty bread products on the market include "low-glycemic-index" breads, which are
A) low carbohydrate and/or low fiber.
B) low carbohydrate and/or high fiber.
C) high carbohydrate and/or low fiber.
D) high carbohydrate and/or high fiber.
Q4) The microwave oven is recommended for preparation of a loaf of bread. A)True B)False
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Chapter 21: Sweeteners
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Sample Questions
Q1) In baked goods, sugars
A) produce a finer texture.
B) generate the browning of crust.
C) promote fermentation of yeast breads.
D) extend shelf life by virtue of its ability to retain moisture.
E) all of the above answers are correct
F) none of the above answers is correct
Q2) Although most sugar alcohols are primarily sold as ingredients to food manufacturers, _____ is/are available to professional chefs for use in their culinary kitchens.
A) sorbitol
B) mannitol
C) xylitol
D) isomalt
E) maltitol, lactitol, and erythritol
Q3) The preservation of food by the use of high concentrations of sugars is possible because of the dehydration of the microorganisms that might otherwise cause spoilage.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Fats and Oils
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fats will splatter the most when placed in a hot pan?
A) butter
B) diet margarine
C) clarified butter
D) peanut and safflower oils
E) hydrogenated shortening
Q2) One positive aspect of olestra is that it
A) reduces the absorption of vitamins A and E.
B) is made from protein and vegetable oil.
C) is heat stable and can withstand high temperatures.
D) all of the above answers are correct
E) none of the above answers is correct
Q3) Naturally occurring antioxidants include lecithin, flavonoids, and vitamins C and E.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cocoa butter is used in chocolate confections because it is perfect for the "melt in the mouth" characteristic desired in good chocolates.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Cakes and Cookies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The light and delicate structures of angel food and sponge cakes rely on _____ as their major leavening agent.
A) baking soda and/or baking powder
B) biological agents
C) steam and air
D) all of the above answers are correct
E) none of the above answers is correct
Q2) When compared to bread, the proportion of sugar, fat, and milk to flour in a cake is A) higher.
B) lower.
C) the same.
D) These don't represent the differences.
Q3) Swiss, Italian, and French buttercreams are examples of A) flat frostings.
B) decorating frostings.
C) cooked frostings.
D) whipped cream frostings.
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Chapter 24: Pastries and Pies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tenderness, in reference to pastry, is
A) the ease with which the pastry may be cut.
B) the degree of brittleness the pastry exhibits when broken.
C) the ease with which the pastry gives way to the tooth.
D) the chewiness of plain pastry.
E) synonymous with flakiness.
Q2) The tenderness of pastry is achieved by all of the following except A) using pastry flour.
B) including an acid like unflavored vinegar or yogurt.
C) substituting an egg yolk for some of the liquid.
D) adding granulated sugar.
E) using a very small amount of hot water.
Q3) The only function of salt in a pastry is flavor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cheesecake is an example of a custard pie, a one-crust pie made with milk and eggs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Candy
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Sample Questions
Q1) All candy production involves heating, cooling, and then beating a sugar solution.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In confections, lactose
A) inhibits bloom defect.
B) provides lecithin and monoglycerides, which aid in emulsification.
C) provides a reducing sugar moiety that can participate in Maillard browning.
D) produces desirable or undesirable flavor compounds through oxidation and/or hydrolysis.
Q3) Which of the following characteristics is a function of milk proteins in confections?
A) aids in emulsification and miscibility of various ingredients
B) contributes to flavor and color development
C) improves nutritional profile
D) with heat, can yield a fibrous network that gives rigidity, shape, texture, and chewability
E) all of the above answers are correct
F) none of the above answers is correct
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Chapter 26: Frozen Desserts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ingredients is added to frozen desserts to obtain a smoother texture by stabilizing the dispersion of air in the foam?
A) monoglycerides
B) diglycerides
C) egg yolk
D) lecithin
E) all of the above answers are correct
F) only answers c and d are correct
Q2) Which of the following frozen desserts feels harder and colder on the tongue than regular ice cream?
A) low-fat ice cream
B) sherbet
C) water ice
D) frozen desserts prepared with monosaccharides
E) all of the above answers are correct f. none of the above answers is correct
Q3) Still-frozen desserts are those desserts that are moderately resistant to melting.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Beverages
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following teas is an excellent source of fluoride and a moderate source of folate?
A) black
B) green
C) oolong
D) white
Q2) spring water
A)water that has surfaced on its own from an aquifer
B)water that has been heated to form steam and then re-condensed into a liquid
C)water that must have the same mineral content as that flowing naturally to the surface
D)water pumped from an aquifer, an underground source of water
E)water that has undergone deionization, distillation, reverse osmosis, or any other method that removes minerals, chemicals, and flavor
Q3) Teapots should be left open to allow the escape of volatile acids for the first 3 minutes of brewing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Food Preservation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a potential disadvantage of freezing food?
A) cell rupturing
B) fine crystallization
C) freezer burn
D) fluid loss
Q2) Which of the following enzymes is/are involved in enzymatic browning?
A) peroxidase
B) lipase and sucrase
C) ascorbic acid oxidase
D) tyrosinase and polyphenolase
Q3) Treating foods with gamma radiation renders them less susceptible to deterioration by generating powerful antioxidant molecules within the food.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Water expands when it freezes, and the resulting ice crystals pierce the food's cell walls, rupturing them and causing the food to take on an inferior texture.
A)True
B)False
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Government Food Regulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Food and Drug Administration has jurisdiction over production of which products?
A) breads
B) meats
C) poultry
D) eggs
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding food colorings is false?
A) FDA-certified colorings must be included in the ingredients list for foods that contain them other than butter, cheese, and ice cream.
B) Food color additives include Blue No. 1 and No. 2 and Red No. 3 and No. 40.
C) A food coloring that is included in the GRAS list is not considered a food additive.
D) No food colors have tested positive as carcinogens in laboratory animals.
E) All of the above answers are true.
Q3) What would the COOL information on a package of pecans tell you?
A) that pecans are a food allergen
B) the serving size for pecans
C) that nut intake may reduce cardiovascular disease risk
D) what country the pecans were grown in
E) none of the above answers is correct
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Chapter 30: Careers in Food and Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11570
Sample Questions
Q1) Which area of dietetic practice employs the largest percentage of registered dietitians?
A) private practice
B) corporations/nonprofit
C) clinical
D) community
Q2) A health professional who counsels people about their medical nutrition therapy is called a(n)
A) registered dietitian (RD).
B) nutrition professor.
C) nutrition researcher.
D) extension agent.
Q3) Currently in the United States, only _____ are reimbursed by insurance companies through the referring physicians' code.
A) dental laboratory technicians
B) dietetic technicians
C) nutritionists
D) registered dietitians
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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