Food Microbiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Food Microbiology explores the role of microorganisms in food, examining both their beneficial and harmful impacts. The course covers the identification, classification, and physiology of bacteria, molds, yeasts, and viruses relevant to food products. Topics include microbial spoilage, foodborne pathogens, and the principles behind food preservation and fermentation processes. Students will gain an understanding of the techniques used to detect and control microorganisms in foods, as well as the legal and safety considerations in food microbiology. The course combines theoretical knowledge with practical laboratory skills essential for ensuring food quality and safety.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition by Cowan
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following is a scientific name?
A) Streptobacilli
B) Gram-positive streptococcus
C) Anthrax
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
Answer: D
Q2) Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right).
A) Class, phylum, order
B) Family, genus, species
C) Kingdom, domain, phylum
D) Family, order, class
E) Genus, species, family
Answer: B
Q3) Archaeal cells are about ______ bacterial cells.
A) ten times smaller than
B) the same size as
C) ten times larger than
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polar molecules are composed of covalently bonded
A) carbon atoms.
B) ions.
C) identical atoms.
D) atoms of identical electronegativity.
E) atoms of different electronegativity.
Answer: E
Q2) The lipid group that is the major component of cell membranes is the ______.
A) waxes
B) steroids
C) prostaglandins
D) triglycerides
E) phospholipids
Answer: E
Q3) The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Q1) The correct microbiological term for the sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium to produce a culture is ______.
A) loop
B) inoculum
C) streak
D) colony
Answer: B
Q2) Cells of Staphylococcus aureus are cocci measuring about 1 \(\mu\)m in diameter.In a textbook image of S. aureus,each cell measures about 1 cm.The magnification of the image on the page is ______.
A)10,000X
B)1,000X
C)100X
D)0.01X
E)0.001X
F)0.0001X
G)This is impossible to calculate without more information.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial endospores are produced by ______.
A) Entamoeba
B) Bacillus
C) Mycoplasma
D) Staphylococcus
Q2) The macromolecule containing alternating N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)chains cross-linked by short peptide fragments is ______.
A) lysozyme
B) lipopolysaccharide
C) mycolic acid
D) peptidoglycan
E) teichoic acid
Q3) The site for ATP synthesis in bacterial cells is the ______.
A) cell membrane
B) mitochondrion
C) cell wall
D) microcompartment
E) ribosome
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Q1) Eukaryotic flagella differ from bacterial flagella because only eukaryotic flagella
A) facilitate chemotaxis.
B) are used for cell motility.
C) are long, whip-like structures.
D) contain microtubules.
E) facilitate phototaxis.
Q2) Protists include ______.
A) yeasts and molds
B) algae and protozoa
C) helminths
D) viruses
E) bacteria
Q3) Larval development of helminths occurs in which host?
A) Primary host
B) Intermediate host
C) Definitive host
D) Transport host
E) Larval development takes place in all hosts.
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Successful anti-HIV drug therapies today work by blocking the action of viral reverse transcriptase.Select which step of virus multiplication that would be directly blocked by this mechanism.
A) Adsorption
B) Penetration
C) Synthesis
D) Assembly
E) Release
Q2) One of the principal viral capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a/an _____ capsid.
A) spiked
B) complex
C) icosahedral
D) helical
E) buckeyball
Q3) Viruses are simple,noncellular,and lack mRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria like E.coli have an average generation time of 24 hours.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After using jelly on a sandwich,you close the jar and place it on a room temperature shelf instead of in the refrigerator.When you open the jar several weeks later,you notice microbial growth on the surface.What type of organism is likely to grow in this environment?
A) Bacteria
B) Virus
C) Protozoa
D) Fungus
Q4) Calcium is required for bacteria because it
A) stabilizes the ribosomes.
B) stabilizes the cell wall.
C) maintains cellular pH.
D) makes strong cell walls.
E) stabilizes the nucleoid.
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: The Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microbes can utilize only carbohydrates for energy production.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Noncompetitive inhibition is best described as
A) the substrate binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription.
B) the end product binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription.
C) the substrate binding to enzyme in a regulatory site.
D) the end product binding to enzyme in noncompetitive site.
Q3) Which of the following processes is endergonic?
A) Beta oxidation of fatty acids
B) Carbon fixation
C) The oxidation of glucose
D) Deamination
E) Burning wood
Q4) Enzymes are
A) broken down in reactions that require energy input.
B) proteins that function as catalysts.
C) used up in chemical reactions.
D) not needed for catabolic reactions.
E) carbohydrate or protein in composition.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is incorrect about inducible operons?
A) They have genes turned off by a buildup of end product.
B) They are often for use in catabolic pathways.
C) They are normally turned off.
D) They are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme.
E) They include the lac operon.
Q2) During replication,each parent DNA strand serves as a _____ for synthesis of new DNA strands.
A) copy point
B) template
C) comparison molecule
D) scaffold
E) reservoir
Q3) The development of virulent,toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur through the process of ________.
A) bacterial conjugation
B) transformation
C) generalized transduction
D) specialized transduction
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Q1) DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called ______.
A) palindromes
B) reverse transcriptases
C) restriction endonucleases
D) ligases
E) DNA polymerases
Q2) Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of A) DNA.
B) proteins.
C) a specific genetic marker sequence.
D) recombinant DNA.
E) RNA.
Q3) Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are A) principal sources of restriction endonucleases.
B) used as cloning vectors.
C) genetically engineered bacteria.
D) sources of heat-stable DNA polymerases.
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Q1) _____ is a control method that removes microorganisms rather than inhibiting or killing them.
A) Disinfection
B) Filtration
C) Boiling
D) Radiation
E) Sterilization
Q2) Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes?
A) Cured meats
B) Human tissues such as heart valves and skin
C) Operating room air
D) Surgical gloves
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Ozone is a very effective disinfectant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A microorganism that is not motile and has stopped metabolizing is considered dead.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What molecule will allow some bacteria to be resistant to many penicillins?
A) Synercid
B) Penicillinase
C) Aztreonam
D) Clavulanic acid
E) Imipenem
Q2) Each of the following results in drug resistance,except
A) a drug being pumped out of the cell.
B) a drug being used as a nutrient by the cell.
C) a drug binding site being altered.
D) a drug being inactivated.
E) a drug being blocked from entering the cell.
Q3) All _____ consist of a thiazolidine ring,a beta-lactam ring,and an R group.
A) penicillins
B) tetracyclines
C) macrolides
D) cephalosporins
E) aminoglycosides
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are ______.
A) in food
B) the patient's own normal biota
C) on fomites
D) in the air
E) transmitted from one person to another
Q2) The skin's resident biota are localized to only the outermost superficial layer of the epidermis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the ______.
A) respiratory system
B) gastrointestinal system
C) urinary system
D) genital system
E) skin
Q4) Under certain circumstances,a person's resident biota can act as opportunistic pathogens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Q1) Which body region is protected by fatty acids,acidic pH,lactic acid,and a tough cell barrier with its own normal biota?
A) Eyes
B) Skin
C) Urinary tract
D) Digestive tract
E) Respiratory tract
Q2) What is the first step in the major events of the inflammatory process?
A) Activation of complement
B) Vascular reactions
C) Injury and mast cells releasing chemical mediators
D) Formation of pus and edema
E) Scar formation and/or resolution
Q3) If an individual has a genetic disorder whereby they lack the ability to make complement protein C3,the likely consequence is
A) excessive fever development.
B) enhanced inflammation.
C) a higher incidence of bacterial and viral infections.
D) an inability to synthesize antibodies.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) MHC molecules are found on all of the following cells except ______.
A) red blood cells
B) epithelial cells
C) eosinophils
D) islet of Langerhans cells
E) leukocytes
Q2) B and T lymphocytes are specific; they have only a single type of cell marker on their surface.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Live,attenuated vaccines
A) include the Sabin polio vaccine.
B) include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
C) contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
D) require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The hinge region of an antibody has a hypervariable amino acid region where the antigenic determinant fits.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Q1) A chronic,local allergy such as hay fever is considered ______.
A) antibody-mediated
B) atopic
C) systemic anaphylactic
D) delayed
E) T-cell-mediated
Q2) The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due to tuberculosis infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all of the following diseases except A) multiple sclerosis.
B) tuberculin reaction.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) myasthenia gravis.
E) Graves'disease.
Q4) The allergen in poison ivy plants is an oil called urushiol.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification?
A) Antibody response
B) Acid-fast reaction
C) Gram stain reaction
D) Endospore production
E) Morphology
Q2) The tuberculin test is an example of an in vitro serological test.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme used in _____ tests.
A) indirect fluorescent antibody
B) ELISA
C) Western blot
D) direct fluorescent antibody
Q4) Which sample is not collected by sterile needle aspiration?
A) Blood
B) Urine
C) Cerebrospinal fluid
D) Tissue fluids
E) All of the choices are collected by sterile needle aspiration.
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Occassionally,Staphylococcus epidermidis may be isolated from the eye.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Impetigo can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.Culture-based identification of the causative organism can be complicated by
A) the common surface antigens of these two organisms.
B) the ability of S. aureus to kill S. pyogenes.
C) the fastidious nature of both organisms.
D) their common optimal growth temperature, 37°C.
Q3) Which microorganism species is most well-adapted to life on the skin?
A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) Candida albicans
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Malassezia
E) Streptococcus pyogenes
Q4) Chickenpox is caused by an orthopoxvirus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Q1) As a nurse,you have to teach your patients about control and management of their diseases as well as the facts of the disease--risk,treatment,symptoms,etc.How might you instruct a patient who has West Nile virus to avoid the infectious agent in the future?
A) Be sure to treat your dogs and cats with flea medication.
B) Do not go outside at dusk or dawn, and cover the skin if this is unavoidable.
C) Do not eat food served from kiosks and food trucks in foreign countries.
D) Always drink bottled water when outside of the U.S.
E) Get an annual vaccination if you live in an area where the virus is known to circulate.
Q2) Viral meningitis normally requires aggressive antiviral treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid is found in the ______.
A) pia mater
B) dura mater
C) subarachnoid space
D) arachnoid mater
E) All of the choices are correct.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic
Systems
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Q1) Most cases of sepsis are caused by ______.
A) prions
B) fungi
C) viruses
D) bacteria
E) protozoans
Q2) After a Drug Enforcement Agency raid on a location that housed intravenous drug users,several were brought to the hospital with rapid breathing,fever,and an altered mental state.Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Stained blood smears should be performed promptly to look for abnormalities in the blood cells.
B) A broad-spectrum antibiotic is needed promptly, as they are likely to be in septic shock from intravenous introduction of microbes into the blood.
C) Unsanitary conditions in the house probably resulted in infestations with insects, so it's prudent to examine them for insect bites that may provide a clue.
D) Many drug users are HIV-positive, so the patients should all be monitored for levels of CD4 T-cells before any other action is taken.
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which is incorrect about histoplasmosis?
A) The pathogen grows inside macrophages.
B) It is transmitted by inhalation of spores.
C) It causes respiratory infections that range from mild to severe.
D) Chronic cases have symptoms similar to tuberculosis.
E) It never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false regarding RSV?
A) While RSV is most prevalent in infants 6 months of age and younger, the highest mortality rate is in those children with underlying risk factors such as prematurity.
B) Infants aged 6 months and younger are the most susceptible to infection by RSV; however, adults and older children can also become infected with this virus.
C) RSV infects infants aged 6 months and younger; it is unlikely that a 4-year-old would develop a respiratory disease as a result of this virus.
D) Although RSV is most prevalent in infants aged 6 months and younger, usually by age 2 most children have been exposed to this virus.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Q1) Both Taenia and Trichinella can be found as cysts embedded in pork muscle.Which of the following statements about these organisms is incorrect?
A) Both organisms release eggs in the feces to propagate the helminth.
B) Both helminths can exit the digestive system and migrate to other tissues.
C) For both organisms, cyst envelopes are digested in the stomach, releasing the larvae to the intestine.
D) Only Taenia can be transmitted from one human to another.
Q2) The gastrointestinal tract has both a long tube that nutrients traverse from mouth to anus and accessory organs that aid in food digestion.From the following list of organs in the digestive system,identify the mismatch.
A) Rectum; part of the digestive tube
B) Liver; part of the digestive tube
C) Pharynx; part of the digestive tube
D) Appendix; accessory organ
E) Salivary glands; accessory organ
Q3) Mumps causes permanent sterility in young male adults.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) A health care provider who suspects that a woman may have vaginitis caused by Candida infection can confirm that by
A) plating a sample of the discharge on a medium containing salt as a selective agent.
B) identifying pseudohyphae in a Gram-stained smear examined using a light microscope.
C) identifying the characteristic protozoans in a smear examined using a fluorescence microscope.
D) submitting a sample of the discharge for PCR amplification.
E) submitting a sample of the discharge for metagenomic sequencing.
Q2) Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted by sexual activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chancroid
A) presents with a hard chancre.
B) is very painful in both sexes.
C) is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.
D) is caused by a spirochete.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) The energy of the sun is converted into chemical energy during ______.
A) nitrification
B) denitrification
C) photosynthesis
D) ammonification
E) nitrogen fixation
Q2) Which microorganism is considered phytoplankton?
A) Cyanobacteria
B) Mycorrhizae
C) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
D) Sulfate reducers
Q3) Carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)is
A) removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis.
B) a source of carbon for autotrophs.
C) returned to the atmosphere during respiration and fermentation.
D) used by marine organisms to make limestone for their hard shells.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Phytoplankton is composed of protozoa and small invertebrates.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Q1) The study of the practical use of microbes in various industries and technologies is ______.
A) bioremediation
B) biotechnology
C) applied microbiology
D) microbial ecology
Q2) Which of the following is not a step in the mass production of an organic substrate in a fermentor?
A) Remove waste products and dispose responsibly.
B) Add enzymes to catalyze all required steps in the process.
C) Inoculate the sterile media in the growth vessel with the microbe of interest.
D) Adjust the environmental conditions for optimal growth of the organism.
E) Harvest cells and purify the product.
Q3) A quick warming of chicken or eggs is enough to kill Salmonella.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Freezing chicken does not kill Salmonella.
A)True
B)False
27
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