Food Microbiology
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Food Microbiology explores the roles, significance, and impact of microorganisms in food systems. The course covers the beneficial and harmful effects of bacteria, yeasts, molds, and viruses in foods, emphasizing their roles in food spoilage, foodborne diseases, and fermentation processes. Topics include microbial taxonomy, microbial growth and survival in different environments, methods of food preservation, detection and control of pathogens, and the use of microorganisms in food production. Practical applications and laboratory techniques for isolating and identifying food-associated microbes are also discussed, giving students a comprehensive understanding of the microbiological principles essential to food safety, quality, and innovation in the food industry.
Recommended Textbook
Brock Biology of Microorganisms 15th Edition by Michael T. Madigan
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the relationship between microbes and humans is FALSE?
A) Most microbes are pathogenic.
B) Infectious disease is an important public health concern.
C) Bacteria in the digestive tract are important for digestion.
D) Microbes in root nodules fix nitrogen and allow plants to make nitrogen-rich products.
Answer: A
Q2) A microbial cell's membrane is considered ________, because its internal constituents are maintained within the cell. However, it also imports and exports other molecules in response to its environment.
A) differential
B) microselective
C) rigid
D) semipermeable
Answer: D
Q3) All microorganisms require molecular oxygen to carry on life functions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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3
Chapter 2: Microbial Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ are charged molecules that are partially responsible for the ________ charge of the gram-positive bacterial cell surface.
A) Diaminopimelic acids / positive
B) Teichoic acids / negative
C) Phospholipids / negative
D) Peptide interbridges / neutral
Answer: B
Q2) What is the biological function of endospores?
A) They are bacterial reproductive structures.
B) They enable organisms to endure extremes of temperature, drying, and nutrient depletion.
C) They transport toxins.
D) Endospores can serve as reproductive structures, enable survival in harsh environments, and transport toxins.
Answer: B
Q3) Porins are channels in the outer membranes of gram-positive Bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a given chemical reaction, if the free energy of formation is known for all of the reactants and each of the products, the change in free energy can be calculated for the reaction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Q2) A chemoorganotroph and a photoautotroph in the same environment would NOT compete for A) oxygen.
B) carbon.
C) nitrogen.
D) carbon and oxygen.
Answer: D
Q3) Each amino acid made during protein biosynthesis first requires a separate biosynthetic pathway to be invoked by a cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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Chapter 4: Molecular Information Flow and Protein Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The functional unit of genetic information is the A) nucleotide.
B) gene.
C) chromosome.
D) protein.
Q2) Explain the concept of semiconservative replication and how simultaneous copying of both strands of DNA is accomplished in prokaryotic cells.
Q3) The codon on the ________ matches with the anticodon on the ________ to direct the addition of the correct amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain.
A) mRNA / tRNA
B) tRNA / mRNA
C) DNA / mRNA
D) tRNA / rRNA
Q4) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding DNA and RNA synthesis?
A) The overall direction of chain growth is from the 5 to 3 end.
B) Both processes require an RNA primer to begin.
C) The template strand is antiparallel to the newly synthesized strand.
D) DNA is the template for both DNA and RNA synthesis.
Q5) Explain the function of the helicases and why they are necessary.
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Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Its Control
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Q1) A bacterium possessing ________ will produce O bubbles when placed in the presence of hydrogen peroxide.
A) catalase
B) superoxide dismutase
C) superoxide reductase
D) peroxidase
Q2) Planktonic cells remain in suspension while sessile cells adhere to a surface.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE of disinfectants?
A) They are always effective in destroying endospores.
B) They are used on living tissue.
C) They are used for sterilization.
D) They are used on inanimate surfaces.
Q4) The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is
A) disinfection.
B) sterilization.
C) antisepsis.
D) sanitization.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Regulatory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) An organism grown in nutrient rich broth to high turbidity always produces a blue pigment. When a large inoculum is transferred to a nutrient rich agar plate, it also appears blue. A researcher noticed that this never happens when very small colonies are grown on low nutrient agar plates, however. What is the most plausible conclusion?
A) Large populations enabled the differentiation of a subpopulation of cells that created the blue pigment.
B) Only high nutrient conditions provide enough energy for cells to produce this secondary metabolite that appears blue.
C) Production of the blue pigment production is linked to quorum sensing.
D) The strong gradient from very high to low nutrient bioavailability induces production of the blue metabolite.
Q2) Depending on the type of regulatory mechanism, activators and repressors can bind to operator regions which control transcription.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain why is it unsurprising that two-component regulatory systems are all but absent in bacteria that live at the expense of a host.
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Chapter 7: Molecular Biology of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiple sigma factors are essential to induce the formation of endospores.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hemimethylated DNA is found on
A) the newly synthesized strand of DNA immediately after replication.
B) the parental strand of DNA immediately after replication.
C) both strands of dsDNA immediately after replication.
D) neither strand of DNA immediately after replication.
Q3) Your microbiology professor is interested in isolating a particular endospore-forming bacterium from its natural environment and asks you to devise a protocol to do this. Explain how you could go about separating the endospores from the other microbes in the population.
Q4) Unlike penicillin, methicillin targets an alternative penicillin binding protein called MecA in nonresistant Staphylococcus aureus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All members of the genus Pseudomonas respond similarly to c-di-GMP.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Viruses and Their Replication
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Q1) The reason dogs do not get measles is because their cells lack the correct receptor sites for that virus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain why viruses are not considered to be living entities.
Q3) In E. coli, the adenine in the sequence GATC is methylated by the Dam enzyme. In the same cells, a restriction endonuclease recognizes and cleaves dsDNA with the sequence GATC on either strand. Why does E. coli have these two enzymes?
A) The enzymes cut the E. coli genome into pieces that bind to viral particles and inhibit viral replication.
B) The enzymes increase the rate of mutation and genome rearrangement, thus increasing the likelihood that E. coli cells will mutate and become resistant to viral infection.
C) The enzymes encourage lysogeny because the cleavage sites are recognized by viral integrases.
D) The enzymes protect E. coli from infection by preferentially degrading viral or other exogenous DNA that is not methylated.
Q4) Explain the potential advantages of lysogeny versus lysis for a temperate virus.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Microbial Systems Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the terms core genome and pan genome and describe how each contributes to the genome of a bacterial species. Give an example of genes that are part of a core genome versus those that are more often in the pan genome.
Q2) It is generally accepted that independent mutation rather than gene duplication is the mechanism for evolution of most new genes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A surprising finding of environmental metagenomic studies is that a majority of genes in the environment are
A) from microbes grown in the lab.
B) viral in origin.
C) eukaryotic in origin.
D) from extinct microorganisms.
Q4) Recommend what type of data should be collected and analyzed in a systems biology approach to investigate how a non-pathogenic bacterial strain becomes pathogenic. Describe what scientific fields and methods would be involved in your recommendation.
Q5) Summarize the evolution of sequencing technology beginning with the Sanger method.
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Chapter 10: Viral Genomics, Diversity, and Ecology
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Q1) Among the largest RNA genome viruses are ________ which contain a ________ genome.
A) coronaviruses / dsRNA
B) coronaviruses / positive ssRNA
C) polioviruses / dsRNA
D) polioviruses / positive ssRNA
Q2) Genomics analysis of recently isolated viruses indicate that some viruses contain larger genomes than some bacterial genomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some virus shapes that infect members of Archaea are unique from other viruses that infect eukaryotes and bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A drug designed to inhibit reverse transcriptase activity would target
A) coronaviruses and rhabdoviruses.
B) retroviruses.
C) hepadnaviruses and retroviruses.
D) viruses with RNA genomes.
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Chapter 11: Genetics of Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one of the changes that occur when a cell contains an F plasmid that is NOT integrated into the chromosome?
A) It is no longer able to produce a pilus.
B) Cell surface receptors change, preventing the uptake of more plasmids through conjugation.
C) Mutation rates are decreased.
D) The cell is considered an Hfr cell.
Q2) Consider the following experiment. First, large populations of two mutant strains of Escherichia coli are mixed, each requiring a different, single amino acid. After plating them onto a minimal medium, 45 colonies grew. Which of the following may explain this result?
A) The colonies may be due to back mutation (reversion).
B) The colonies may be due to recombination.
C) Either A or B is possible.
D) Neither A nor B is possible.
Q3) All Hfr strains possess an F factor integrated into the host chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast generalized transduction with specialized transduction.
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Chapter 12: Biotechnology and Synthetic Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme that covalently links both strands of a vector and inserted DNA in molecular cloning is
A) DNA ligase.
B) DNA phosphatase.
C) DNA hydrolase.
D) DNA transferase.
Q2) A poorly immunogenic vaccine often suggests the foreign proteins were not properly recognized by the immune system due to a lack of ________ necessary, which can also be engineered to occur with additional molecular manipulations.
A) complex folding
B) methylation
C) glucosylation
D) glycosylation
Q3) When is it appropriate to use an artificial chromosome vector? Describe a specific example.
Q4) An effective way to introduce DNA into plant cells is using the Ti plasmid, which comes from a plant pathogen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Microbial Evolution and Systematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are studying 12 new isolates from the human skin. Their average nucleotide identity for shared orthologous genes is 97%.The isolates would most likely be
A) classified as individual strains of the same species.
B) classified as individual species of the same genus.
C) split into different families.
D) classified as the same species if they can mate via conjugation.
Q2) The 16S rRNA gene sequence is an approximately 1,465 bp linear strand of single stranded RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The oxic atmosphere created conditions that led to the evolution of various new metabolic pathways, such as A) sulfide oxidation.
B) nitrification.
C) iron oxidation.
D) sulfide oxidation, nitrification, and iron oxidation.
Q4) At present there are four phyla in the domain Bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Metabolic Diversity of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The foul-smelling putrescine byproduct suggests activity of A) amino acid fermentation by clostridia.
B) secondary fermentation.
C) sulfur-oxidizing bacteria.
D) syntrophic carbohydrate metabolism.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a role of carotenoids?
A) as accessory pigments
B) photoprotection
C) to produce singlet oxygen
D) to quench toxic oxygen species
Q3) What is the difference between chlorophyll and bacteriochlorophyll, and which organisms contain each?
Q4) The acetyl-CoA pathway is a primary route for carbon source utilization.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Beta-oxidation exclusively removes two carbons at a time to catabolize fatty acids regardless of the carbon chain length.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Functional Diversity of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Typical electron donors used by dissimilative sulfate-reducers are
A) hydrogen, water, and hyrdrogen sulfide.
B) hydrogen, lactate, and pyruvate.
C) carbon dioxide, hydrogen, and water.
D) sulfate, sulfur, and thiosulfate.
Q2) The ecological diversity of microbes is largely dependent on their complex morphological and structural diversity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diazotrophs are found in all three domains of life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Design an enrichment strategy for the isolation of a heterotrophic sulfate-reducer that could help clean up the oil spill in the sediments of the Gulf of Mexico.
Q5) Epibiotic predators
A) obtain nutrients by attaching to the surface of prey.
B) invade the cytoplasm of their prey.
C) invade the periplasmic space of their prey.
D) find prey using swarming behavior.
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Chapter 16: Diversity of Bacteria
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Q1) The hypothesis that H was a key electron donor for energy metabolism in primitive organisms is supported by it being such a common trophic strategy in Aquificae.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most metabolically diverse phylum of Bacteria known to date is the Proteobacteria.
A)True B)False
Q3) Staphylococcus aureus is known to cause all of the following diseases EXCEPT A) acne.
B) arthritis.
C) boils.
D) dental caries.
Q4) Chemolithotrophic ammonia-oxidization is a metabolic requirement for members of A) Nitrosomonas.
B) Nitropseudomonas.
C) Nitrosomonas and Nitrosospira.
D) Nitrosomonas, Nitrosospira, and Nitropseudomonas.
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Chapter 17: Diversity of Archaea
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Q1) The acetoclastic methanogens are mainly classified within one order.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Potassium cyclic 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (cDPG) is present at concentrations of 1M or more in the cytoplasm of many hyperthermophilic methanogens. The function of this compound is to
A) prevent rRNA misfolding.
B) prevent chemical damage to DNA at high temperatures.
C) introduce supercoils into DNA.
D) activate hydrogen gas.
Q3) Nitrifying Thaumarchaeota can outcompete nitrifying bacteria in acidic environments because Thaumarchaeota
A) are well-adapted to high salinity and extreme UV irradiation.
B) are well-adapted to temperature extremes.
C) are well-adapted to very low NH concentrations.
D) have very resistant specialized cells that survive long periods of dehydration and nutrient starvation.
Q4) Why does Halobacterium pump large quantities of K cations into its cytoplasm from the environment? What would happen if Halobacterium did not do this?
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Chapter 18: Diversity of Microbial Eukarya
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Q1) Describe the mutualistic relationship that arbuscular mycorrhizae form with plants.
Q2) In a freshwater pond, a green alga is likely to be
A) only colonial.
B) only filamentous.
C) only unicellular.
D) colonial, filamentous, multicellular, or unicellular.
Q3) Most fungi are aerobic chemoorganotrophs that decompose large molecular weight compounds by secreting extracellular enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What phenomenon accounts for the appearance of chloroplasts in some unicellular phototrophic eukaryotes?
A) transformation of hydrogenosomes
B) secondary endosymbioses of green or red algae
C) primary endosymbioses of green or red algae
D) horizontal gene transfer
Q5) Foraminifera that form test structures are exclusively found in marine waters.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Taking the Measure of Microbial Systems
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Q1) Which of the following hypotheses could be tested using microautoradiography fluorescence in situ hybridization (MAR-FISH)?
A) Bacteriorodopsin uses light energy to translocate protons.
B) Archaea are the main autotrophs in marine water samples taken 300 m below the surface of the ocean.
C) The microbial community of agricultural soils is more phylogenetically diverse than the microbial community of native prairie soils.
D) The ammonia monooxygenase gene is present in members of the phylum Verrucomicrobium.
Q2) The overall purpose of DGGE is to
A) separate genes that differ in length.
B) measure the activity of cells that use DGGE as an energy source.
C) detect cells that utilize a specific radiolabeled substrate.
D) separate genes of the same length that have different sequences, resulting in different denaturation profiles.
Q3) What prior knowledge is required to use a phylochip to study the abundance of the different microbes present within a microbial community? How does this cause bias when using a phylochip to analyze microbial community structure?
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Chapter 20: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) Sudden nutrient perturbations in an environment generally ________ the overall prokaryotic diversity.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) maintain
D) replicate
Q2) Cells within a biofilm excrete an adhesive matrix primarily composed of ________ but can also contain nucleic acids as well as proteins.
A) lipids
B) fatty acids
C) monomers
D) polysaccharides
Q3) Biofilm structure is determined by
A) nutritional factors.
B) signaling factors.
C) the local environment.
D) the local environment, nutritional factors, and signaling molecules.
Q4) What advantage do proteorhodopsin-containing organisms have over other heterotrophic microbes in the open ocean?
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Chapter 21: Nutrient Cycles
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Q1) Phosphonate comprises 25% of the ________ phosphorous pool in marine environments.
A) inorganic
B) organic
C) insoluble
D) biologically unavailable
Q2) Greenhouse gases
A) such as CO , CH , and N O trap infrared radiation, heating the Earth.
B) such as CO increase plant and animal growth, resulting in more heat production on Earth.
C) such as CO and O (ozone) interact with UV light and heat the Earth.
D) such as CO , CH , and N O destroy O (ozone) and allow more UV light to enter the atmosphere, thus increasing the temperature of the Earth s surface.
Q3) The Fe and Mn cycles include
A) reduced and oxidized forms that are very chemically reactive.
B) large reservoirs of solid mineral forms that are chemically inert.
C) incorporation of Fe and Mn into the exoskeletons of diatoms and other alga.
D) toxic forms that can poison aquatic ecosystems if the cycles are imbalanced.
Q4) What are the similarities and differences between the Fe cycle and Ca cycle?
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Chapter 22: Microbiology of the Built Environment
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Q1) Which process produces a gaseous product that can be used as fuel to provide heat or power for a wastewater treatment plant?
A) trickling filter secondary wastewater treatment
B) aerobic secondary wastewater treatment
C) anaerobic secondary wastewater treatment
D) primary wastewater treatment
Q2) Describe floc formation in the activated sludge process.
Q3) Potable water is NOT safe for human consumption.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chlorinated xenobiotics can ONLY be degraded aerobically, thus making them very recalcitrant if they accumulate in anoxic environments.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Water disinfection agents such as chlorine can easily kill Cryptosporidium. A)True
B)False
Q6) Which microorganisms commonly thrive in drinking water distribution systems and how might they impact human health?
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Chapter 23: Microbial Symbioses
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Q1) During the Jurassic Period, several different mammalian lineages independently evolved an herbivorous lifestyle for obtaining energy. This has resulted in
A) different digestive patterns in herbivorous animals, some that depend on gut microbiota to digest plant material and some that do not.
B) different digestive patterns in herbivorous animals that all depend on gut microbiota to digest plant material.
C) the evolution of foregut fermentation, as seen in ruminants, as the only digestive pattern that depends on fermentative gut microbiota.
D) horizontal gene transfer of genes for glycoside hydrolases and polysaccharide lyases from bacteria to mammals.
Q2) What is the difference between a primary and secondary insect symbiont? Propose how you might use an insect symbiont to control the spread of an insect-borne disease.
Q3) The attine ant is entirely dependent on multiple microbial species for its source of food. What microbial species are involved and what is their role in this multi-partner symbiosis?
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Chapter 24: Microbial Symbioses with Humans
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Q1) Based upon microbiome projects, the dominant microbial species on the skin is
A) Corynebacterium species.
B) Streptococcus species.
C) Staphylococcus species.
D) Propionibacterium species.
Q2) Probiotics do not contain living microbes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare the normal microbiota in the male and female urogenital tracts.
Q4) Following antibiotic therapy, patients are often administered ________ to facilitate recolonizaton of normal microbiota in the intestines.
A) fluoride
B) iron
C) probiotics
D) antivirals
Q5) Vaginal acidity in the adult female is due to acid production by Lactobacillus acidophilus.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain how prebiotics and probiotics may be useful in preventing acne.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis
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Q1) Escherichia coli is commonly found in the normal human microbiota, but some strains can cause severe illness. What is the difference between pathogenic and non-pathogenic E. coli in relation to the human host?
Q2) Pathogen virulence NEVER changes throughout a host s life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Siderophores are
A) molecules that aid directly in attachment to host cells.
B) inorganic molecules that help in active transport.
C) organic molecules that help pathogens take up iron.
D) toxins that affect the gastrointestinal tract.
Q4) Decalcification of the tooth enamel is caused by A) lipopolysaccharide.
B) dextrans.
C) formic acid.
D) lactic acid.
Q5) Describe the difference between the use of streptokinase and coagulase as a defense mechanism among pathogens.
Q6) When does an infection become a disease?
Q7) Why is fever a common result of endotoxin exposure?
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Chapter 26: Innate Immunity: Broadly Specific Host Defenses
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Q1) The rapid increase in adaptive immunity after a second antigen exposure is called A) immune memory.
B) specificity.
C) tolerance.
D) immune memory, specificity, or tolerance.
Q2) The first defense cells that interact with a pathogen in the body are
A) T cells.
B) macrophages.
C) B cells.
D) mast cells.
Q3) Interaction of a pathogen-associated molecular pattern (PAMP) with a pattern recognition receptor (PRR) results in
A) formation of transmembrane pores that cause cell lysis.
B) transmembrane signal transduction that initiates transcription of genes involved in phagocytosis, inflammation, and pathogen killing.
C) molecular activation of the adaptive immune system.
D) a superantigen reaction that can cause septic shock.
Q4) How do phagocytes interact speedily and effectively with pathogens?
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Adaptive Immunity: Highly Specific Host Defenses
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Q1) Intrinsic properties of immunogens include
A) appropriate physical form.
B) molecular size.
C) sufficient molecular complexity.
D) appropriate physical form, molecular size, and molecular complexity.
Q2) An individual can receive injections of an antiserum or purified antibodies derived from an immune individual.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Assuming that each heavy and light chain has an equal chance to be expressed in each cell, approximately how many possible antibodies can be expressed?
A) 192
B) 1,920
C) 19,200
D) 3,360,000
Q4) What role does the C domain play in cell surface proteins that interact directly with antigens?
Q5) What is tolerance, and why must the adaptive immune system exhibit tolerance?
Q6) Why is the secondary immune response stronger in regard to antibodies?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Immunology
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Q1) Describe mechanisms of transfer of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).
Q2) Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) agar
A) incorporates antibiotics into the medium.
B) enhances the growth of normal flora.
C) prevents the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, but promotes the growth of Neisseria meningitidis.
D) prevents the growth of Neisseria meningitides, but promotes the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Q3) How are infections caused by the drug-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae treated?
A) with -lactamase-resistant antibiotics
B) with tetracycline
C) with synthetic analogs of tetracycline
D) with vancomycin
Q4) Widespread antimicrobial drug resistance is usually passed by
A) heterologous gene expression.
B) reverse transcription.
C) horizontal gene transfer.
D) gene splicing.
Q5) Propose a series of procedures to determine whether a patient has a urinary tract infection.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lower the basic reproduction number of a pathogen, the higher the percentage of immune individuals necessary to provide herd immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Since 1994, HIV is no longer more prevalent in certain groups of people.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why are public health officials concerned about smallpox being used as a biological weapon? Give several reasons in your answer.
Q4) The field of study that specifically examines the occurrence, distribution, and determinants of health and disease in a population is
A) microbiology.
B) immunology.
C) epidemiology.
D) virology.
Q5) You are planning a whitewater rafting vacation in Kenya. Based on what you know about microbiology, what precautions should you take to return in the best of health?
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Chapter 30: Person-to-Person Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with AIDS often dies of a variety of infections caused by opportunistic microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most viral respiratory diseases are highly contagious but not life threatening. A)True
B)False
Q3) Serious acute cases of diphtheria are treated with antibiotics and A) diphtheria antitoxin.
B) diphtheria toxin.
C) diphtheria toxoid.
D) diphtheria antitoxin, diphtheria toxin, and diphtheria toxoid.
Q4) Describe the pathogenesis of HIV to explain how the number of CD4 lymphocytes decline in an ongoing HIV infection.
Q5) In an HIV infection the TH cells and macrophages are NOT commonly infected. A)True B)False
Q6) More than one type of influenza virus can infect a given cell at a given time. A)True B)False
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Vectorborne and Soilborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many West Nile virus infections are not properly identified because
A) the disease mimics malaria.
B) the symptoms are often subacute.
C) the disease is frequently fatal.
D) most physicians and diagnosticians are not aware of this disease.
Q2) The study of hantaviruses requires biosafety level (BSL) 4 precautions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tetracycline and chloramphenicol are the drugs of choice for the treatment of many of the rickettsial diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Emerging diseases are a problem worldwide, even in highly developed regions of the world.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the primary cause of viral hemorrhagic fever in the United States? What is the typical cause of death for this disease?
Q6) Using a specific example, explain the term accidental host.
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Chapter 32: Waterborne and Foodborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Q1) Severe cases of Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning may require treatment
A) with powerful antibiotics.
B) for dehydration.
C) with cleansing enemas.
D) for dehydration, along with powerful antibiotics and cleansing enemas.
Q2) The most common route of transmission of Salmonella enterica typhi worldwide is through
A) contaminated food.
B) contaminated water.
C) direct contact.
D) insect vectors.
Q3) Explain how the membrane filter (MF) procedure is used.
Q4) What is the medium used in the membrane filter (MF) procedure to differentiate fecal coliforms and Escherichia coli?
A) mannitol salt agar (MSA)
B) eosin-methylene blue agar (EMB)
C) triple sugar iron agar
D) blood agar
Page 34
Q5) What is the difference between food poisoning and food infection? Are antibiotics useful in either of them?
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Chapter 33: Eukaryotic Pathogens: Fungi, Protozoans, and Helminths
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Q1) Giardia cysts are found in most surface water sources in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Meningoencephalitis caused by Naegleria fowlerii is always fatal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does insect ecology and the life cycle of Plasmodium impact the epidemiology and pathogenesis of classic malaria?
Q4) The most serious types of fungal infections are
A) subcutaneous infections.
B) mycotoxic infections.
C) systemic mycoses.
D) superficial mycoses.
Q5) How are trypanosome diseases similar to malaria?
A) They are transmitted by insect vectors.
B) They cause intermittent fevers.
C) They are acute, self-limiting diseases.
D) They are all endemic to Africa.
Q6) How are trypanosome diseases similar to malaria? How are they different than malaria? Page 35
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