Food Microbiology
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Course Introduction
Food Microbiology explores the role of microorganisms in food production, spoilage, and safety. This course covers the biology and detection of bacteria, yeasts, molds, and viruses relevant to the food industry, emphasizing their impacts on food preservation, fermentation processes, and the development of foodborne illnesses. Students will learn about microbial growth factors, methods for controlling contamination, regulatory standards, and modern techniques for sampling and identification, preparing them to evaluate and manage microbiological risks in food systems.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations10th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about pasteurization is false
A)It originally involved heating a substance to 56°C in the absence of oxygen for 30 minutes.
B)It kills unwanted organisms.
C)Pasteurization was orginally developed as a method to keep milk from spoiling.
D)It was developed by Pasteur.
Answer: C
Q2) Edward Jenner is best known for what contribution to the developing field of microbiology
A)Developing some of the earliest vaccines
B)Disproving spontaneous generation
C)Controlling infections in patients
D)Developing methods of obtaining pure cultures of microorganisms
Answer: A
Q3) Vaccines are:
A)specific disease-causing molecules that incorporate into cells
B)the causative agent of Black Death
C)selective chemicals used to treat infectious disease
D)preparations that establish immunity to a disease
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Microbiome
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biggest contribution to the microbiome occurs:
A)at the time of delivery
B)during breast feeding
C)while visiting chimpanzees at a zoo
D)if anxiety and depression are experienced
E)continuously,there is no period where the fundamental microbiome is established
Answer: A
Q2) Which disease may be linked to endotoxin release and ensuing inflammation
A)epilepsy
B)autism
C)altered growth rate
D)obesity
E)all are caused by inflammatory disturbances
Answer: B
Q3) A C-section affects the milk microbbiome by reducing its diversity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pH values would indicate the weakest acid
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
Answer: D
Q2) The pH scale is used to specify the acidity or alkalinity of a solution.Which of the following statements is true
A)Stomach acid has a pH around 10.
B)Neutral solutions,like water,have a pH of 10.
C)A solution with a pH of 12 has 10 times less protons.
D)A strong base will have a pH less than 10.
Answer: C
Q3) The three fundamental particles of the atom are _____.
A)elements,molecules,and compounds
B)ions,cations,and anions
C)proteins,lipids,and sugars
D)protons,neutrons,and electrons
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electron microscopes:
A)that are scanning have better resolution than those that are transmission
B)are much more expensive and take up more space than light microscopes
C)can use the same preparations of specimens that have been prepared for viewing with a light microscope
D)have a resolving power approximately 10 times better than the best light microscope
Q2) What is true about the index of refraction
A)If light rays are taken up by the object than it has a high index of refraction.
B)Refraction measures the frequency of the light as it reflects from a material.
C)Oil immersion lenses increase the problem of refraction.
D)Light will bend as it passes through two substances with different indices of refraction.
Q3) Colored photos of electron micrographs:
A)reflect the color of the specimen before it was frozen
B)are false color added on during image preparation
C)reflect the color of the specimen after it was frozen
D)are always in pastel shades
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Chapter 5: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT found in bacterial cells
A)A cell membrane,usually surrounded by a cell wall
B)An internal cytoplasm with ribosomes,a nuclear region and in some cases granules
C)A variety of external structures,such as capsules,flagella and pili
D)Respiratory enzymes contained in an internal structure surrounded by membranes
Q2) Penicillin controls the growth of bacteria by _____.
A)destroying cell membranes
B)preventing protein synthesis
C)removing cell walls
D)preventing peptidoglycan synthesis
Q3) Removal of the cell wall of a Gram positive bacteria results in the formation of a
A)protoplast
B)spheroplast
C)periplast
D)polyplast
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Chapter 6: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A surfactant:
A)lowers the surface tension at the bacterium's posterior end allowing Myxococcus to glide
B)is metabolized to produce phosphoenolpyruvate
C)forms channels thorugh the outer membrane
D)emits light as it returns to its unexcited state
Q2) Each acetyl-CoA molecule will eventually produce ________ in the Krebs cycle.
A)four pairs of electrons
B)three molecules of NADH
C)one molecule of GTP
D)all of these choices
Q3) Which of the following is true about glycolysis
A)The net yield of ATP is two ATPs for each molecule of glucose.
B)It provides cells with a relatively large amount of energy.
C)Four molecules of ATP are used in the initial phosphorylation steps.
D)The ATP that is used up during glycolysis is not considered in calculating the net yield of ATP.
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Chapter 7: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about liquid media and agar is false
A)Both chocolate agar and blood agar contain blood.
B)Stock cultures are never directly used for laboratory studies.
C)A differential media will allow some bacteria to grow and stop the growth of others.
D)A selective media will suppress the growth of some microbes.
Q2) Nonculturable organisms:
A)are rare.
B)can be identified based on their DNA.
C)can only be seen on selective agar plates.
D)have defined generation times.
Q3) A living,growing culture whose purpose is to maintain a pure culture of an organism indefinitely is a _____.
A)colony
B)stock culture
C)sporulating culture
D)broth culture
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following properties are exclusive to rRNA
A)Combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes
B)Carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein
C)Molecules contain an anticodon
D)Contains the nucleotide thymine
Q2) In the lactose operon,which of the following is a protein
A)Repressor
B)Operator
C)Regulator
D)Promoter
Q3) The Ames test is used to determine if a chemical:
A)increases the rate at which a bacterial cell divides
B)decreases the number of cells in a culture
C)induces mutations in a cell's DNA
D)decreases the ability of a cell to photosynthesize
Q4) In the lac operon RNA polymerase first binds to the:
A)promoter
B)operator
C)repressor
D)regulator
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genetic information needed for a cell to participate in conjugation resides in the DNA of a cell's _____.
A)Bacterial chromosome
B)F plasmid
C)F pilus
D)Mitochondria
Q2) In 1981 a review of safety concerns concerning recombinant DNA research found that:
A)mutants of E.coli require special sanitization practices
B)laboratory workers could become easily infected with the strain of E.coli normally used in lab experiments
C)no illnesses could be traced to laboratory researchers working with recombinants
D)two of these are true
Q3) Competence refers to a bacterium's ability to _____.
A)synthesize a protein from another species gene that has been engineered
B)undergo conjunction with an F cell
C)take up DNA fragments
D)be infected by a phage
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Chapter 10: An Introduction to Taxonomy: The Bacteria
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Q1) Which one of the following microorganisms was once called blue-green algae
A)Mycoplasmas
B)Cyanobacteria
C)Chlamydiae
D)Rickettsia
Q2) In the name Escherichia coli,Escherichia refers to the ________ of the bacteria.
A)class
B)phylum
C)species
D)genus
Q3) Before prokaryotes received a kingdom of their own they were generally classified along with:
A)protists
B)animals
C)fungi
D)viruses
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Chapter 11: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells taken directly from an animal and cultured in vitro represent:
A)primary cell cultures
B)diploid fibroblast strains
C)continuous cell lines from human embryos
D)continuous cell lines that have been re-isolated from animal tissues
Q2) A naked virus:
A)has no protein coat around its nucleic acid.
B)is unable to attach itself to a host cell.
C)has no envelope.
D)has no infectious piece of DNA.
Q3) A rare form of cancer that has become common among men with AIDS is:
A)Kaposi's sarcoma
B)Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
C)Tuberculosis
D)Burkitt's lymphoma
Q4) Growth of a bacterium which contains a prophage represents a:
A)lytic cycle
B)temperate cycle
C)lysogenic cycle
D)induction
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Chapter 12: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Arachnids have ________ legs and include ________.
A)six,lice,fleas and flies
B)six,ticks and mites
C)eight,lice,fleas and flies
D)eight,ticks and mites
Q2) A host in which a parasite reproduces sexually is a _____.
A)primary host
B)definitive host
C)intermediate host
D)reservoir host
Q3) Bread molds are members of the phylum _____.
A)zygomycota
B)ascomycota
C)basidiomycota
D)deuteromycota
Q4) Euglenoids contain a stigma,the purpose of which is to:
A)control the passage of molecules in and out of the cell
B)communicate with other cells
C)allow the protist to move toward light for photosynthesis
D)digest nutrients
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Chapter 13: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Q1) Dry heat does most of its damage against microorganisms by _____.
A)disrupting membrane lipids
B)disrupting hydrogen bonds
C)oxidizing molecules
D)denaturing proteins
Q2) Dry heat changes the structure of _______ through the process of _____.
A)lipids; dehydration
B)lipids; denaturation
C)proteins; oxidation
D)proteins; dehydration
Q3) What is the most susceptible phase of growth for most microorganisms by an antimicrobial agent
A)lag phase
B)log phase
C)stationary phase
D)death phase
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Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) The sulfonamide antibiotics kill bacteria by _____.
A)interfering with cell wall synthesis
B)disrupting folic acid metabolism
C)reacting with bacterial cell membranes
D)inhibiting bacterial motility
Q2) Purine or pyrimidine analogs:
A)act as antimetabolites
B)inhibit ribosome function
C)disrupt cell membrane function
D)inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
Q3) The development of second-line and third-line antimicrobial agents demonstrates:
A)cross-resistance
B)the effectiveness of first-line drugs
C)an effective method to limit drug resistance
D)the increasingly difficultly of treating drug resistant bacteria
Q4) Which of the characteristics apply to an ideal antimicrobial agent
A)Allergenic
B)Instability
C)Short shelf life
D)Selective toxicity
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Chapter 15: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct pairing of a disease with its classification
A)sickle cell anemia - degenerative disease
B)anemia - mental disease
C)creutzfeldt-jakob - mental disease
D)emphysema - idiopathic
Q2) Streptococcus pyogenes is a causative agent of:
A)scarlet fever
B)bacillary dysentery
C)anthrax
D)diphtheria
Q3) The virus that causes chicken pox in childhood:
A)is noncommunicable infectious disease
B)has no convalescence stage
C)produces hemolysins that release iron
D)is the causative agent of shingles
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Chapter 16: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) An infectious disease that occurs in a random and unpredictable manner is called:
A)sporadic
B)pandemic
C)epidemic
D)propagated epidemic
Q2) Which of the following is NOT helpful in achieving control of disease transmission
A)Isolation of patient from general population
B)Propagation of vectors
C)Quarantine
D)Immunization programs
Q3) Pathogenic microorganisms that are spread from person to person by unwashed hands contaminated by fecal matter,is an example of what mode of transmission
A)Fomite transmission
B)Indirect contact
C)Droplet transmission
D)Direct transmission
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Chapter 17: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) A multilobed lymphatic organ that functions to process lymphocytes known as T cells and release them into the blood is the:
A)tonsil
B)trachea
C)thymus gland
D)salivary gland
Q2) The classical pathway of complement activation involves which of the following proteins
A)C1,C4 and C2
B)C3 only
C)factor B
D)factor D and factor P
Q3) The condition that is caused by exogenous and endogenous pyrogens is called _____.
A)edema
B)pain
C)swelling
D)fever
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Chapter 18: Basic Principles of Adaptive Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antigens are found on:
A)human cells
B)bacteria and viruses
C)antibodies
D)two of these
Q2) Which of the following statements about immunization is false
A)Inadequate refrigeration decreases effectiveness of measles vaccine
B)Recommended age for immunization in children varies for each vaccine
C)Injection of gamma globulin can establish passive immunization
D)Route of administration does not affect the vaccines's efficacy
Q3) Which region of an antibody determines the class of that particular antibody
A)Constant
B)Variable
C)Light chain
D)Fab
Q4) All of the following are types of vaccines except:
A)killed whole bacteria
B)purified active toxin
C)toxoid
D)live virus
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Chapter 19: Immune Disorders
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Q1) Which matches the correct hypersensitivity reaction with their type
A)Immediate (type I)- immune complexes
B)Cytotoxic (type II)- anaphylaxis
C)Immune complex (type III)- precipitation of antigen-antibody complexes
D)Cell-mediated (type IX)- blood transfusion
Q2) Which serological test uses sheep red blood cells and complement in making diagnostic choices
A)agglutination test
B)precipitin test
C)Fab tests
D)complement fixation test
Q3) Secondary immunodeficiency diseases can be caused by all of the following except:
A)Hodgkin's disease
B)radiation
C)genetic defects
D)tuberculosis
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Measles (also known as rubeola)could be described by each of the following statements except:
A)not very contagious
B)Koplik's spots seen on cheek mucosa
C)two serious complications are encephalitis and sub-acute sclerosing panencephalitis
D)most common complications are upper respiratory & middle ear infections
Q2) Burn infections:
A)are difficult to diagnose as early signs are often decreased appetite and fatigue
B)are difficult to treat as antibiotics are ineffective against the viruses that cause them
C)with a grapelike odor and greenish discoloration are often due to viruses
D)two of these
Q3) Aspergillosis:
A)in immunodeficient patients causes wound infections
B)causes dry scaly lesions on various parts of skin
C)is responsible for thrush and vaginitis
D)can require amputation
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Chapter 21: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Genital herpes can be acquired:
A)by kissing gingivostomatitis lesions of the mouth
B)during sexual contact with a partner infected with HSV-2
C)by oral sex - often with HSV-1
D)two of these choices
Q2) Secondary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of _____.
A)gummas
B)a pustular rash
C)a chancre
D)a chancroid
Q3) Diagnosis of syphilis is confirmed by _____.
A)immobilization tests
B)using molecular probes
C)culturing the organism
D)PCR
Q4) Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched
A)Herpes Whitlow - fingers
B)HSV 2 - genital herpes
C)HSV 1 - labial fever blisters
D)Herpes gladiatorium - pneumonia
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Chapter 22: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following can evade the killing power of macrophages and replicate in them
A)Mycobacterium
B)Streptococcus
C)Coccidioides immitis
D)Two of these choices
Q2) Which of the following statements about pneumonia is incorrect
A)Helminths can cause pneumonia.
B)Walking pneumonia is caused by Legionella pneumophilia.
C)Chemicals and radiation can cause pneumonia.
D)Walking pneumonia cannot be prevented by vaccination.
Q3) Pharyngitis is described as a _____.
A)sore throat
B)strep throat
C)viral infection
D)fungal infection
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Chapter 23: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which Escherichia coli strain can cause serious and fatal infections and is found in small s in healthy cattle's intestines
A)enteropathogenic
B)pathogenic
C)enterotoxigenic
D)enterohemorrhagic O157:H7
Q2) All of the following are diagnosed by proglottids in the feces of infected patients except:
A)Diphyllobothrium latum
B)Hymenolepis nana
C)Balantidium coli
D)Taenia solium
Q3) Viral enteritis is caused by:
A)Rotavirus
B)Norwalk virus
C)Hepatitis viruses
D)Two of these choices
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Chapter 24: Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, and Systemic Diseases
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Q1) The mite is the vector for:
A)Rickettsialpox
B)Ehrlichiosis
C)Trench fever
D)Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Q2) Erhlichiosis is characterized by all of the following except:
A)symptoms include fever,headache,hepatitis,and muscle pain
B)reduction in white blood cells
C)a rash similar to Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
D)ehrlichial intracytoplasmic inclusions in WBCs suggest presence of Ehrlichia
Q3) Yellow fever is characterized by all of the following except:
A)carrier is the sand fly
B)reservoir in monkey populations
C)vaccine is available
D)limited to tropical areas of Central & South America and Africa
Q4) Plague is characterized by all of the following except:
A)sylvanic plague infects city rats
B)etiology is Yersinia pestis
C)antibiotic treatment is effective
D)immense lymph node enlargements called buboes
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Chapter 25: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Herpes meningoencephalitis usually follows _____.
A)a bacterial infection of the respiratory tract
B)a generalized herpes infection
C)a fever blister outbreak
D)an outbreak of genital herpes
Q2) All of the following statements about rabies are true EXCEPT:
A)to transmit the virus,the animal must be shedding the virus in the saliva.
B)rabies progresses rapidly to the brain by the flow of cytoplasm through axons.
C)incubation time is proportional to the distance between the bite wound and the brain.
D)symptoms include hydrophobia,aerophobia,confusion,and hallucination.
Q3) The rabies virus enters the body through _____.
A)a skin wound
B)a mosquito bite
C)the placenta
D)the respiratory or gastrointestinal tracts
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The primary producers in the ocean are:
A)bacteria
B)viruses
C)phytoplankton
D)two of these choices
Q2) What results from the biological oxygen demand (BOD)being high and the water becoming anaerobic
A)a more efficient decomposition of wastes
B)increased need for sulfur
C)decreased need for carbon
D)death of most members of any ecosystem
Q3) In the phosphorous cycle,inorganic phosphates are converted to _____,a water-soluble nutrient used by both plants and microorganisms.
A)phosphorous
B)hydrophosphates
C)orthophosphate
D)betaphosphate
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28
Chapter 27: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following organisms is the pink bread mold,which bakers especially fear because it is so difficult to eliminate in the bakery once it has been established
A)Rhizopus nigricans
B)Aspergillus fumigatus
C)Monilia sitophila
D)Claviceps purpurea
Q2) The bacterial growth that produces gases which cause bulging at the ends of cans due to improper storing is known as _____.
A)flat sour spoilage
B)bulge sour spoilage
C)thermophilic anaerobic spoilage
D)thermophilic aerobic spoilage
Q3) Food processing equipment is disinfected with _____.
A)ultraviolet radiation
B)formaldehyde
C)gamma rays
D)microwaves
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