Food Microbiology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Food Microbiology explores the roles of microorganisms in food systems, highlighting both the beneficial and harmful impacts they have on food safety, quality, and production. The course covers the identification and classification of foodborne pathogens and spoilage organisms, methods for their detection and control, as well as the principles of fermentation and the use of microbes in the development of various food products. Emphasis is placed on modern techniques for ensuring food safety, regulatory standards, and current challenges and advancements in the field, preparing students to address microbial issues throughout the food supply chain.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology 9th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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1932 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed?
A)Species
B)Phylum
C)Kingdom
D)Genus
E)Family
Answer: C
Q2) The scientist(s) that proposed assigning organisms to one of three domains is(are):
A)Robert Koch and Louis Pasteur.
B)Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
C)Carl Woese and George Fox.
D)Robert Whittaker.
E)Francesco Redi.
Answer: C
Q3) _____ is the area of biology that states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time.
Answer: Evolution
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Q1) The total number of protons and neutrons of an element establishes its _____ number.
Answer: mass
Q2) The type of chemical bond linking amino acids together is a(n):
A)glycosidic bond
B)peptide bond
C)ester bond
D)ionic bond
E)hydrogen bond
Answer: B
Q3) _____ bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids. Answer: Peptide
Q4) Which amino acid contains sulfur atoms that form covalent disulfide bonds in its tertiary structure?
A)valine
B)cysteine
C)serine
D)alanine
E)tyrosine
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2 µm except
A)0.2 µm.
B)0.2 mm.
C)0.1 µm.
D)0.3 µm.
E)2.0 µm.
Answer: C
Q2) A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible would be termed A)complex.
B)reducing.
C)enriched.
D)enumeration.
E)synthetic.
Answer: E
Q3) _____ is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony.
Answer: subculture
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gram-negative bacteria do not have peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called
A)flagella.
B)cilia.
C)fimbriae.
D)periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).
E)sex pili.
Q3) All of the following pertain to endotoxins, except they
A)are specific bacterial cell wall lipids.
B)can stimulate fever in the human body.
C)can cause shock in the human body.
D)are involved in typhoid fever and some meningitis cases.
E)are found in acid fast bacterial cell walls.
Q4) _____ is a macromolecule containing alternating N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid cross-linked by short peptide fragments.
Page 6
Q5) During the Gram stain, gram _____ cells decolorize when the alcohol is applied.
Q6) The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and _____.
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Page 7
Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is mismatched?
A)Giardia - transmitted by feces in drinking water
B)Histoplasma - causes Ohio Valley fever
C)Trichomonas - sexually transmitted
D)Plasmodium - causes Chagas disease
E)Saccharomyces - yeast in making bread and beer
Q2) Which of the following does not pertain to helminths?
A)in kingdom Protista
B)parasitic worms
C)eggs and sperm for reproduction
D)often alternate hosts in complex life cycles
E)have various organ systems
Q3) Fungal spores
A)are only produced under harmful environmental conditions.
B)are only asexually produced.
C)cannot be seen in a light microscope.
D)are produced by molds but not by yeasts.
E)are used to identify fungi.
Q4) Discuss in detail, at least four reasons why fungi belong in their own kingdom instead of the kingdoms Plantae or Protista.
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Q1) Explain what is meant by host range, what governs host range, and what is meant by tissue tropism.
Q2) Which of the following is correct about viruses?
A)cannot be seen with a light microscope
B)are prokaryotic
C)contain 70S ribosomes
D)undergo binary fission
E)can be grown on nutrient agar
Q3) Compare and contrast the steps of viral multiplication cycles in bacteriophages and animal viruses.
Q4) Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered
A)simple viruses.
B)complex viruses.
C)naked viruses.
D)viroids.
E)incomplete viruses.
Q5) Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the criteria used for classifying viruses into families and genera.
Page 9
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Halobacteria regulate osmotic pressure by
A)Releasing salt to the environment
B)Absorbing salt from the environment
C)Excluding salt from the environment
D)Changing their cell wall to provide additional osmotic protection
E)None of the choices are correct
Q2) Diffusion of water through a semi permeable membrane is called
A)Facilitated diffusion
B)Diffusion
C)Active transport
D)Osmosis
E)Endocytosis
Q3) A change in one partner in a close relationship that leads to a change in the other partner is
A)Symbiosis
B)Coevolution
C)Antibiosis
D)Mutualism
E)Synergism
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Page 10
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer?
A)ADP
B)Glucose
C)Carbon
D)Hydrogen
E)Carbon dioxide
Q2) FAD, NADP, NAD and coenzyme A are all _____ carriers.
A)Hydrogen
B)Electron
C)ATP
D)Both hydrogen and electron
E)None of the choices are correct
Q3) ATP is composed of deoxyribose, adenine and 3 phosphate groups.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Exoenzymes from pathogens are called virulence factors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Semiconservative replication refers to
A)Each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar
B)A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine
C)One helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction
D)An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule
E)None of the choices are correct
Q2) If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is
A)GCA
B)CGT
C)ACG
D)CGU
E)UGC
Q3) What type of mutation alters the base, but not the amino acid being coded for?
A)Silent
B)Back
C)Point
D)Nonsense
E)Missense
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is A)genetic engineering.
B)biotechnology.
C)recombinant DNA.
D)gel electrophoresis.
E)gene probes.
Q2) Geneticists can make complimentary DNA copies of messenger, transfer, and ribosomal RNA by using A)palindromes.
B)reverse transcriptases.
C)restriction endonucleases.
D)ligases.
E)DNA polymerases.
Q3) When determining the sequence of nucleotides in an unknown sample of DNA, which method is used to sequence the DNA?
A)PCR
B)Cloning
C)The Sanger Method
D)Southern blot hybridization
E)Microarray analysis
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endospores can be killed by:
A)dry heat at 170<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C for 2 hours.
B)incineration.
C)glutaldehyde for 3 or more hours.
D)ethylene oxide for 3 or more hours.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of irradiating food.Include examples of foods that are irradiated.
Q3) The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the:
A)thermal death point (TDP).
B)thermal death time (TDT).
C)sporicidal time.
D)death phase point.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) _____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____ heat.
Q5) Discuss the purpose and level of control achieved by pasteurization.Compare the flash and batch methods.
Q6) _____ filters are widely used to provide a flow of sterile air to hospital rooms.
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host-The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Q1) The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface, seeded with the test bacterium, to which small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What does Vancomycin target?
A)Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
B)Clostridium difficile
C)Streptococcus pyogenes
D)Escherichia coli
E)Both A & B are correct choices
Q3) Which is mismatched?
A)Fleming - penicillin
B)Domagk - sulfonamide
C)Ehrlich - tetracycline
D)Florey and Chain - penicillin
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called _____.
Q5) Polyene drugs bind to fungal _____ and cause loss of selective permeability.
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection, Disease, and
Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of A)toxemia.
B)inflammation.
C)sequelae.
D)a syndrome.
E)latency.
Q2) A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth.This specimen was from an HIV positive patient.If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is A)direct.
B)fomite.
C)vehicle.
D)droplet nuclei.
E)aerosols.
Q3) Select 5 specific virulence factors and explain how each factor increases a pathogen's virulence.
Q4) A _____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The key phagocytic cells of the body are the
A)Neutrophils and Macrophages.
B)Basophils and Neutrophils.
C)Eosinophils and Macrophages.
D)Macrophages and Monocytes.
E)Natural Killer cells.
Q2) Children with DiGeorge Syndrome are born without a thymus.Discuss, in detail, the repercussions to body defense mechanisms caused by this disease.
Q3) When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues, they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into _____.
Q4) The clearance of pus, cellular debris, dead neutrophils, and damaged tissue after inflammation is performed by A)Basophils.
B)Eosinophils.
C)Neutrophils.
D)Macrophages.
E)Lymphocytes.
Q5) The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
A)helper T cells
B)suppressor T cells
C)cytotoxic T cells
D)delayed hypersensitivity T cells
E)natural killer (NK) cells
Q2) Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by
A)removal of virulence genes from the microbe.
B)treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation.
C)passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture.
D)long-term subculturing of the microbe.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an
A)epitope.
B)hapten.
C)antigen binding site.
D)variable region.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) A hybridoma results from the fusion of a myeloma cell with a normal _____ cell.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to A)autoantibodies.
B)delayed hypersensitivity.
C)congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.
D)failure of B cell development and maturity.
E)a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.
Q2) Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a Type _____ hypersensitivity.
Q3) The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are
A)Type 1 only.
B)Type 1 and Type 4.
C)Type 4 only.
D)Type 1, Type 2, Type 3.
E)Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4.
Q4) Which of the following is mismatched?
A)Ingestant - nuts
B)Inhalant - bee sting
C)Injectant - vaccine
D)Contactant - rubber
E)Ingestant - food additive
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Whole antigens are detected in which type of test?
A)cross-reactions
B)agglutination
C)precipitation
D)specificity
E)sensitivity
Q2) Describe three possible sampling sites and methods of collection for clinical laboratories.
Q3) Which test is used to measure the IgE present in allergic patients?
A)fluorescent antibody tests
B)Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test
C)Weil-Felix reaction
D)RIST
E)ELISA
Q4) The tuberculin test is an example of an in vivo serological test.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Flowcharts that offer two choices at each identifying level are called ___ keys.
Page 20
Q6) In a __________, antigens or antibodies are labeled with radioactive isotopes and traced.
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Page 21
Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci
of Medical Importance
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Q1) Which of the following antibiotics specifically disrupt protein synthesis of streptococci?
A)Beta-lactams
B)Macrolides
C)Cephalosporins
D)Ansamycin
E)Aminoglycosides
Q2) Which pathogen has drug resistant strains called MRSA?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis
C)Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Streptococcus agalactiae
Q3) The production of the enzyme _____ by Staphylococcus aureus is a key characteristic used to identify it from other species of Staphylococcus.
Q4) Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group _____ streptococci. B
Q5) Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Neisseria tend to stimulate pus production and are collectively referred to as _____ cocci.
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Q6) Discuss in detail why strep sore throat must be diagnosed and treated rapidly.
Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Q1) What is the usual cause of pseudomembranous colitis?
A)improperly home-preserved foods containing botulin toxin
B)eating unpasteurized dairy containing Listeria monocytogenes
C)handling infected animals contaminated with E. rhusiopathiae
D)therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile
E)living in close contact with someone infected with C. perfringens
Q2) Botox injections contain botulin toxin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following pertain to infant botulism, except:
A)symptoms include "floppy baby" appearance.
B)neurotoxin is not involved in the disease process.
C)ingested spores can germinate in the immature intestines of the neonate.
D)symptoms include flaccid paralysis and respiratory complications.
E)it is the most common type of botulism in the United States.
Q4) Using specific examples, discuss how gram positive bacilli are divided into major genera.At the very least include the oxygen requirements, sporulation characteristics, and acid-fast test results.
Q5) Mycobacterium bovis is attenuated and used in the _____ vaccine.
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Q1) Up to 70% of travel-associated gastrointestinal diseases are caused by A)enterotoxigenic strains of E. coli.
B)Salmonella.
C)Shigella dysenteriae.
D)E. coli 0157:H7.
E)enteroinvasive E. coli.
Q2) Legionella pneumophila
A)requires special lab growth media.
B)often lives in close associations with amoebas.
C)causes fever, cough, and diarrhea.
D)causes a severe pneumonia.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Escherichia coli infections
A)are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food.
B)include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains.
C)involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.
D)can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Discuss the patients at greatest risk for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections and describe the type of infections that they acquire.
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) Which is mismatched?
A)Epidemic typhus - body louse feces
B)Murine typhus - flea feces
C)Rickettsial pox - mite bite
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever - tick bite
E)Human ehrlichiosis - flea bite
Q2) Treponema vincentii, Bacteroides forsythus, and fusobacteria synergistically are involved in which infection?
A)gingivitis
B)necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)
C)ornithosis
D)yaws
E)nongonococcal urethritis
Q3) Control of rodent populations is important for preventing
A)tick-borne relapsing fever.
B)ornithosis.
C)epidemic typhus.
D)Q fever.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The two bacterial genera of obligate parasites are _____ and _____.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) Blastomyces dermatitidis
A)causes Gilchrist disease and Chicago disease.
B)is transmitted by skin contact with fomites.
C)is a dermatophyte.
D)usually enters through the gastrointestinal tract
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following are likely to predispose patients to fungal infections?
A)cancer
B)AIDS
C)tuberculosis
D)malnutrition
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Rhizopus, Absidia, and Mucor are mold genera that cause the disease called _____.
Q4) Explain why Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci has been difficult to classify, and why traditional antifungal drugs are not effective against this microbe.
Q5) Tough, warty verrucous lesions are seen in patients with tinea versicolor.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The typical transmission of dimorphic fungi is inhalation of _____.
Page 26
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Only feces from humans that contaminates food and water can be involved in transmission of amebiasis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are
A)bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss.
B)fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain.
C)urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge.
D)chills, fever, and sweating.
E)sore throat, low grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes.
Q3) Schistosomiasis involves
A)a blood fluke.
B)eggs from humans enter water and develop into miracidium.
C)snails allow development into cercaria.
D)cercariae enter hair follicles and pass to the blood and then the liver.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Control of _____ revolves around mosquito control and methods to prevent human-mosquito contact.
Q5) The active, feeding form of a protozoan is called the _____.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the Dna Viruses
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Q1) Which infection are you likely looking at if you view a direct smear of a cervical scraping and see enlarged (multinucleate giant) cells and intranuclear inclusions?
A)HCV
B)EBV
C)HSV-2
D)VZV
E)HPV
Q2) Adenoviruses cause an inflammation of the conjunctiva and cornea called _____.
Q3) Hepatitis B virus:
A)is principally transmitted by blood.
B)transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse.
C)is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers.
D)has many chronic carriers.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1) enters the _____ cranial nerve where it becomes latent.
Q5) Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) The influenza virus uses _____ spikes to bind to host cells.
Q2) A client displays symptoms of fatigue, diarrhea, weight loss, neurological changes and enlarged lymph nodes.The client thought they had the flu because they felt ill, then felt better over the last 5 years.However, this cycle of feeling tired has led to fever, fatigue, sore throat, and night sweats with a rash.The patient also has thrush.Among various blood tests, which result indicates the causative agent of AIDS?
A)High level of CD4 T cells
B)Positive level of HIV antigen
C)Positive isolation of Candida albicans
D)Positive isolation of Herpes simplex ulcers
E)Positive isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q3) Rubella is:
A)caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus).
B)a zoonosis.
C)associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.
D)seen as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q4) The MMR vaccination is for immunity to _____, _____, and _____.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The conversion of nitrate (NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>) to nitrogen gas (N<sub>2</sub>) is called A)ammonification.
B)nitrogen fixation.
C)photosynthesis.
D)nitrification.
E)denitrification.
Q2) An example of a primary consumer would be a A)dog.
B)cow.
C)tiger.
D)mushroom.
E)None of the above.
Q3) Which organism is a nitrogen fixing symbiont of legumes?
A)Rhizobium
B)Nitrobacter
C)Pseudomonas
D)Nostoc
E)Azotobacter
Q4) Nutrient deficient ecosystems are called ___________.
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) A strain of ____________ is being considered to control the mosquito vector of malaria.
Q2) Water moves through sand beds and activated charcoal in this step of water purification:
A)chlorination
B)aeration and settling
C)sedimentation
D)storage
E)filtration
Q3) In batch fermentation, substrate is added continuously and the product is siphoned off throughout the run.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During which phase of growth would a primary metabolite be produced?
A)Lag phase
B)Exponential phase
C)Stationary phase
D)Death phase
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q5) The fermentation of milk by Streptococcus thermophilus produces ___________.
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