Course Introduction
Food Microbiology
Final Exam Questions
Food Microbiology explores the roles, characteristics, and effects of microorganisms in food production, preservation, and safety. This course covers microbial physiology, taxonomy, and ecology as they relate to food spoilage, fermentation, and foodborne illness. Students learn about the detection and control of pathogens, beneficial uses of microbes in food processing, and the impact of regulations on food safety. Emphasis is given to laboratory techniques for isolating and identifying microorganisms in food samples, methods of food preservation, and the implementation of quality assurance systems in the food industry.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition by Gerard
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Page 2
J. Tortora
Chapter 1: The Microbial World and You
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microorganisms are involved in each of the following processes EXCEPT
A)infection.
B)decomposition of organic material.
C)O production.
D)food production.
E)smog production.
Answer: E
Q2) Regarding Louis Pasteur's experiments with the S-neck flask,which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Air exchange was involved.
B)A food source was provided.
C)The possibility of contamination was removed.
D)All preexisting microorganisms were killed.
E)Air exchange occurred,a food source was provided,preexisting microorganisms were killed and contamination was prevented
Answer: E
Q3) All cells possess a cell wall.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Chemical Principles
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Q1) Radioisotopes are frequently used to label molecules in a cell.The fate of atoms and molecules in a cell can then be followed.Assume Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a nutrient medium containing the radioisotope ³ S.After a 48-hour incubation,the ³ S would most likely be found in the S.cerevisiae's
A)carbohydrates.
B)nucleic acids.
C)water.
D)lipids.
E)proteins.
Answer: E
Q2) Identify the following reaction: Lactose + H O Glucose + Galactose
A)dehydration synthesis reaction
B)hydrolysis reaction
C)exchange reaction
D)reversible reaction
E)ionic reaction
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of the counterstain.What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
A)purple
B)red
C)colorless
D)brown
Answer: A
Q2) Bacterial smears are fixed before staining to
A)affix the cells to the slide.
B)make their walls permeable.
C)accept stain.
D)make the cells visible.
Answer: A
Q3) The counterstain used in the Gram stain is a basic dye.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
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Q1) Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell?
A)nucleus
B)mitochondrion
C)Golgi complex
D)vacuole
E)cell wall
Q2) What is a biofilm and what role does biofilm play in disease?
Q3) In Figure 4.3,which diagram of a cell wall has a structure that protects against osmotic lysis?
A)a
B)b
C)both a and b
D)neither a nor b
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q4) Compare and contrast gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls with regard to (a)sensitivity to antimicrobial agents,(b)resistance to phagocytosis,(c)chemical composition,and (d)decolorization by alcohol.
Q5) Compare and contrast the characteristics of a typical prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative phosphorylation?
A)Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to O .
B)A proton gradient allows hydrogen ions to flow back into the cells through transmembrane protein channels,releasing energy that is used to generate ATP.
C)ATP is directly transferred from a substrate to ADP.
D)Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to an organic compound.
Q2) Differentiate the following two laboratory tests: starch hydrolysis and starch fermentation.
Q3) Fatty acids are oxidized in
A)the Krebs cycle.
B)the electron transport chain.
C)glycolysis.
D)the pentose phosphate pathway.
E)the Entner-Doudoroff pathway.
Q4) Glycolysis is utilized by cells in both respiration and fermentation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Summarize energy production in cells in a single sentence.
Q6) Compare and contrast photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a A)depletion of nutrients.
B)hypotonic environment.
C)lower osmotic pressure.
D)hypertonic environment.
E)lower pH.
Q2) If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen (¹ N),most of the radioactivity will be found in the cells' A)DNA.
B)proteins.
C)phospholipids.
D)DNA and proteins.
E)DNA and phospholipids.
Q3) Figure 6.1,which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absence of O ? A)a
B)b
C)c
Q4) Most pathogenic bacteria are thermophiles.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Control of Microbial Growth
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Q1) A kitchen countertop has a spill of vegetable oil that was wiped up but a film remains.What should be the next step in disinfecting this surface?
A)10% bleach
B)spray a disinfectant that contains a heavy metal
C)warm soapy scrub
D)isopropanol
E)chlorhexidine containing solution
Q2) Which one of the following is known to be most resistant to quaternary ammonium compounds?
A)gram positive bacteria
B)members of the genus Pseudomonas
C)members of the genus Staphylococcus
D)fungi
E)enveloped viruses
Q3) Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?
A)bacteriostatic - kills vegetative bacterial cells
B)germicide - kills microbes
C)virucide - inactivates viruses
D)sterilant - destroys all living microorganisms
E)fungicide - kills yeasts and molds
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell-to-cell contact is required for transduction to occur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Refer to Table 8.2.When amino acid sequences from a cell cycle control protein from a patient with cancer and a healthy person are aligned,the sequence from the cancer patient indicates one amino acid has changed from phenylalanine (Phe)to leucine (Leu).A mutation in the cancer patient's DNA must have taken place.Identify the result of this DNA change in the mRNA codon that led to this change in the protein sequence.
A)UUU altered to UCU
B)UUU altered to UAU
C)UCU altered to UUA
D)CAA altered to UUU
E)UUU altered to UUA
Q3) Open-reading frames are segments of DNA in which both start and stop codons are found.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How might gene expression processes be altered if the genetic code were not degenerate in nature?
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Dna Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Place the steps of constructing a genomic library in order.
I.Digest phage with restriction enzyme.
II.Lyse cells of interest and precipitate DNA.
III.Introduce constructs via transformation into competent E.coli cells.
IV.Perform ligation reaction with genome fragments and phage.
V.Digest genomic DNA with restriction enzyme.
A)V,IV,I,III.II.
B)I,II,III,IV,V.
C)II,I,III,V,IV.
D)II,V,I,IV,III.
E)IV,II,III,I,V.
Q2) Which of the following are used to silence specific genes and hold promise for treating cancer or viral diseases,such as hepatitis B?
A)RNA interference (RNAi)
B)complementary DNA (cDNA)
C)reverse transcriptase PCR (rtPCR)
D)tumor-inducing plasmids (Ti plasmids)
E)DNA fingerprinting
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11
Chapter 10: Classification of Microorganisms
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Q1) Flow cytometry,where a cell is passed through a light source such as a laser beam,can directly indicate all EXCEPT which one of the following about a cell?
A)size
B)shape
C)density
D)identity
Q2) Serological testing is used for screening bacterial isolates for similarities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You are studying a type of bacteria isolated from the acidic water runoff of a mining operation.You subject two batches of the same bacteria type to different environmental growth conditions.One batch is grown at pH 2,while the other is grown at pH 7.All other environmental parameters are kept identical between the two batches.You then collect their proteins and run a Western blot using an antibody that binds to a proton efflux pump protein (which actively expends energy to pump protons out of a cell).How would you characterize the information obtained in this experiment? What does it tell you,and why is that potentially valuable information?
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Chapter 11: The Prokaryotes: Domains Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an enteric?
A)Salmonella
B)Shigella
C)Escherichia
D)Enterobacter
E)Campylobacter
Q2) Burkholderia was reclassified from the gammaproteobacteria to the betaproteobacteria because
A)it grows in disinfectants.
B)it is a gram-negative rod.
C)it causes infections in cystic fibrosis patients.
D)it causes melioidosis.
E)its rRNA sequence is similar to that of Neisseria.
Q3) Which of the following is the best reason to classify Streptococcus in the Lactobacillales?
A)Gram reaction
B)morphology
C)fermentation of lactose
D)rRNA sequences
E)found in dairy products
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Chapter
Helminths
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do tapeworms eat?
A)intestinal bacteria
B)host tissues
C)red blood cells
D)intestinal contents
E)plant matter
Q2) Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria?
A)vaccination
B)treating patients
C)eliminate Anopheles mosquitoes
D)eliminate the intermediate host
E)None of these is an effective control.
Q3) You observe a mass of amoeba-like cells that swarm together,form a stalk,and produce spores.This is a(n)
A)ascomycete.
B)cellular slime mold.
C)Euglenozoa.
D)tapeworm.
E)plasmodial slime mold.
Q4) Contrast the economic benefits and the harmful effects of fungi.
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Chapter 13: Viruses,viroids,and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss why viruses are considered infectious "particles" on the borderline between living and non-living.
Q2) Binomial nomenclature is used to name viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses?
A)worldwide distribution of the virus
B)a segmented genome
C)attachment spikes
D)ease of virus transmission
E)different virus subtypes
Q4) The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers was provided by A)finding oncogenes in viruses.
B)the presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients.
C)cancer that developed in chickens following injection of cell-free filtrates.
D)treating cancer with antibodies.
E)some liver cancer patients having had hepatitis.
Q5) Compare and contrast the lytic cycle of infection of a DNA virus and an RNA virus.
Q6) Explain the steps involved in bacteriophage DNA entering a bacterial cell.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Principles of Disease and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Figure 14.1,which letter on the graph indicates the epidemic level?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
Q2) Which of the following is a fomite?
A)water
B)droplets from a sneeze
C)pus
D)insects
E)a hypodermic needle
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Koch's postulates?
A)Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies.
B)Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions.
C)Some human diseases have no other known animal host.
D)Some diseases are not caused by microbes.
E)Some diseases are noncommunicable.
Q4) Would you expect all EIDs to be on the notifiable infectious disease list? Explain.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin?
A)A-B toxin
B)hemolysin
C)leukocidin
D)streptolysin O
E)streptolysin S
Q2) Patients developed inflammation a few hours following eye surgery.Instruments and solutions were sterile,and the Limulus assay was positive.The patients' inflammation was due to
A)bacterial infection.
B)viral infection.
C)endotoxin.
D)exotoxin.
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q3) Which organism in Table 15.2 most easily causes an infection?
A)E)coli O157:H7
B)Legionella pneumophila
C)Shigella
D)Treponema pallidum
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
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Chapter 16: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Defenses of the Host
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phagocytes utilize all of the following to optimize interaction with (getting to and getting hold of)microorganisms EXCEPT
A)trapping a bacterium against a rough surface.
B)opsonization.
C)chemotaxis.
D)lysozyme.
E)complement.
Q2) If you were interested in seeking new sources of antimicrobial drugs from natural sources,you might look to antimicrobial peptides.Identify possible sources for these drugs,and then describe how you might go about testing for their desired effects.
Q3) A chill is a sign that
A)body temperature is falling.
B)body temperature is rising.
C)body temperature is not changing.
D)the metabolic rate is decreasing.
E)blood vessels are dilating.
Q4) Maturation of stem cells into mature blood cells occurs in the red bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host
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Q1) A cell undergoing apoptosis
A)bursts and releases intracellular contents.
B)was necessarily bound by antibodies.
C)is employed as an infection-fighting mechanism.
D)is a malfunction of the immune system.
E)will likely damage nearby cells.
Q2) A very ill 48-year-old man comes to the Emergency Room and is diagnosed with pneumonia and thrush.Suspicious,the attending physician orders an HIV antibody test which comes back positive within a few hours.Why does a patient with acquired immunodeficiency have antibodies to HIV?
Q3) Which of the following terms regarding roles of chemical messengers is mismatched?
A)hematopoetic cytokine - development of blood cells
B)interleukins - communication between white blood cells
C)chemokines - stimulate chemotaxis
D)interferons - interruption of viral infection
E)tumor necrosis factor - stimulate tumor metastasis
Q4) Can natural killer cells successfully perform duties without antibodies? Explain.
Q5) Describe the production of antibodies using the clonal selection theory.
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Chapter 18: Practical Applications of Immunology
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Q1) Which of the following statements about measles is FALSE?
A)It is a serious disease.
B)It is preventable by vaccination.
C)Annually,it kills thousands of children worldwide.
D)The disease has been eradicated in the United States.
E)Complications include pneumonia,encephalitis,and death.
Q2) Live weakened polio virus can be used directly in a(n)
A)inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B)attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C)conjugated vaccine.
D)subunit vaccine.
E)toxoid vaccine.
Q3) Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n)
A)inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B)attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C)conjugated vaccine.
D)subunit vaccine.
E)toxoid vaccine.
Q4) Describe an ELISA test to detect the presence of HIV antibodies in a patient.
Q5) Design a serological test to detect botulinum toxin in food.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Disorders Associated With the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true regarding Herceptin therapy?
A)It neutralizes the growth factor EGF.
B)It acts as an immunotoxin to target and kill cancer cells.
C)It is used to treat some breast cancer patients.
D)It is a vaccine to prevent the development of cancer.
E)It is an endotoxin that stimulates TNF by macrophages.
Q2) In rheumatoid arthritis,IgM,IgG,and complement deposit in joints.This is an example of
A)cytotoxic autoimmunity.
B)immune complex autoimmunity.
C)cell-mediated autoimmunity.
D)immunosuppression.
E)acquired immunodeficiency.
Q3) Explain why a transplant tissue would be rejected if that tissue had different HLAs compared to the HLAs of the recipient.How can this rejection be decreased?
Q4) What is desensitization? Explain how this treatment can induce systemic anaphylaxis.How is systemic anaphylaxis treated?
Q5) Differentiate type II from type III hypersensitivity reactions.
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase is FALSE?
A)They can potentially cause mutations.
B)They are used against viral infections.
C)They can affect host cell DNA synthesis.
D)They cause cellular plasmolysis.
E)They interfere with protein synthesis.
Q2) More than half of our antibiotics are
A)produced by fungi.
B)produced by bacteria.
C)synthesized in laboratories.
D)produced by Fleming.
E)produced by eukaryotic organisms.
Q3) Community-acquired MRSA is typically less virulent than healthcare-associated MRSA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) PABA serves as the competitive inhibitor in the action of sulfanilamides.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Koplik spots are a diagnostic indicator of A)chickenpox.
B)smallpox.
C)fifth disease.
D)rubella.
E)measles.
Q2) Which of the following is used to treat sporotrichosis?
A)penicillin
B)sulfonamide
C)trifluridine
D)oral potassium iodide
E)acyclovir
Q3) Scabies is transmitted by A)fomites.
B)food.
C)water.
D)soil.
E)respiratory secretions.
Q4) List the disease symptoms and virulence factors associated with Pseudomonas infections.Why can Pseudomonas be difficult to control in a hospital environment?
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitis is FALSE?
A)A healthy carrier state can exist.
B)It is encapsulated.
C)It is typically transmitted by droplet aerosols or direct contact with secretions.
D)Its most distinguishing feature is a unique rash.
E)It is a gram-positive anaerobe.
Q2) Naegleria fowleri meningoencephalitis is commonly acquired by A)exposure to bird droppings.
B)mosquito bites.
C)swimming in warm ponds or streams.
D)ingestion of water contaminated with fecal material.
E)exposure to body fluids of a contaminated individual.
Q3) The most common host of the virus causing eastern equine encephalitis is horses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bacterial meningitis is much more common than viral meningitis and tends to cause a milder form of disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) Which of the following produces a permanent carrier state following infection?
A)Borrelia
B)cytomegalovirus
C)Spirillum
D)Toxoplasma
E)Yersinia
Q2) Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium?
A)epidemic typhus
B)tickborne typhus
C)malaria
D)plague
E)relapsing fever
Q3) Which of the following leads to all the others?
A)subcutaneous hemorrhaging
B)presence of antirickettsial antibodies
C)blockage of capillaries
D)bacterial growth in endothelial cells
E)breakage of capillaries
Q4) Humans are not the normal hosts for Ixodes and Xenopsylla.How,then,do humans contract Lyme disease and plague?
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Inhalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by which one of the following organisms?
A)Blastomyces
B)Coccidioides
C)Mycoplasma
D)Streptococcus
E)Chlamydophila
Q2) Which one of the following statements about mycoplasmal pneumonia is TRUE?
A)The causative agent is a virus.
B)The symptoms resemble pneumococcal pneumonia.
C)The causative agent cannot be cultured.
D)Treatment is tetracyclines.
E)Annual vaccination can prevent infection.
Q3) Which one of the following pairings is mismatched?
A)Corynebacterium - gram-positive rod
B)Mycobacterium - acid-fast rod
C)Mycoplasma - gram-positive pleomorphic rod
D)Bordetella - gram-negative pleomorphic rod
E)Haemophilus - gram-negative rod
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) A rushed homemaker prepared a stew from a large cut of beef but the family only consumed a small portion for dinner.The still-hot large pot was placed in the refrigerator overnight.The next day the stew was warmed for lunch.By the evening the entire family was suffering from varying degrees of diarrhea,abdominal cramping and nausea.You most likely suspect the culprit of this event is
A)Salmonella.
B)H)pylori.
C)Shigella.
D)C)perfringes.
E)B)cereus.
Q2) Compare the modes of transmission for hepatitis A,B,and C.
Q3) Which of the following pertains to typhoid fever?
A)It is typically acquired via ingestion of contaminated eggs.
B)Enterotoxin spreads via the blood.
C)It is caused by several different species of Salmonella.
D)Causative microorganism multiplies in patient phagocytes.
E)It is also called bacillary dysentery.
Q4) Describe the process of periodontal disease.
Q5) Discuss why cholera epidemics are often associated with floods.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which one of the following genera of microorganisms causes gonorrhea?
A)Chlamydia
B)Mycoplasma
C)Neisseria
D)Ureaplasma
E)None of the answers is correct;all of these cause gonorrhea.
Q2) Cystitis is most often caused by
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Leptospira interrogans.
C)Candida albicans.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
E)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Q3) Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE?
A)It is transmitted by direct contact.
B)It is caused by papillomaviruses.
C)Lesions are always precancerous.
D)It can be treated by removing them.
E)It can lead to cervical cancer in women.
Q4) Would you expect the incidence of leptospirosis to be higher in urban or rural communities? Explain.
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Chapter 27: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Biochemical oxygen demand is a measure of the
A)number of bacteria present in a water sample.
B)amount of oxygen present in a water sample.
C)amount of organic matter present in a water sample.
D)amount of undissolved solid matter present in a water sample.
E)amount of nitrogen in a water sample.
Q2) Which of the following do NOT fix atmospheric nitrogen?
A)cyanobacteria
B)lichens
C)mycorrhizae
D)Rhizobium
E)Azotobacter
Q3) All of the following organisms are involved in carbon fixation EXCEPT
A)green and purple sulfur bacteria.
B)cyanobacteria.
C)lichens.
D)algae.
E)mycorrhizae.
Q4) Differentiate endomycorrhizae from ectomycorrhizae and give an example of each.
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Chapter 28: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40121
Sample Questions
Q1) Microorganisms play an active role in the formation of industrial products.Which one of the following is mismatched?
A)Penicillium - treatment of disease
B)Saccharomyces cerevisiae - for fermentation
C)Rhizobium - increases nitrogen in the soil
D)Bacillus thuringiensis - insecticide
E)algae - citric acid
Q2) Discuss the production of three different non-food/beverage substances that utilize microorganisms in their production.Your discussion should include the specific microorganisms involved and their role in the production of each substance.
Q3) Which of the growth curves in Figure 28.2 is indicating the culture has reached the idiophase?
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