Food Microbiology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Food Microbiology explores the roles and impacts of microorganisms in the production, spoilage, preservation, and safety of food. This course examines the biology and characteristics of bacteria, yeasts, molds, and viruses relevant to foods, as well as their growth, detection, and control methods. Students learn about the positive applications of microbes in fermentation and food processing, along with strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses through effective hygiene, sanitation, and preservation techniques. Emphasis is placed on current regulatory standards and emerging technologies in food microbiology to ensure the safety and quality of our food supply.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology 2nd Edition by Dave Wessner
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the answer choice with the correct order in which these structures evolved in plant cells:
A)mitochondria,cell walls,chloroplasts
B)mitochondria,chloroplasts,cell walls
C)chloroplasts,mitochondria,cell walls
D)chloroplasts,cell walls,mitochondria
E)cell walls,mitochondria,chloroplasts
Answer: B
Q2) Which is a macromolecular difference between the Domains Bacteria and Archaea?
A)Archaea contain a nucleus and Bacteria do not.
B)Bacteria contain DNA and Archaea do not.
C)Bacteria contain a plasma membrane and Archaea do not.
D)Bacteria cell wall contains peptidoglycan and the Archaea cell wall does not.
E)Archaea contain multiple types of RNA polymerase and Bacteria has only one type.
Answer: D
Q3) The three domains of life are ________,________,and ________.
Answer: Bacteria,Archaea,Eukarya.
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Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Q1) Which statement is FALSE in regards to the plasma membrane?
A)Glucose cannot easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
B)Protons can easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
C)Oxygen can easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
D)Water can easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
E)Potassium ions cannot easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
Answer: B
Q2) Sulfur globules are an example of inclusion bodies that may be found in some bacterial cells.What is their use?
A)They are a carbon source
B)They are used for nucleotide synthesis
C)As an energy source
D)They provide buoyancy
E)They assist in membrane synthesis
Answer: C
Q3) The bacterial flagellum is structurally and functionally related to the eukaryotic flagellum.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) An archaean organism adapts to rising temperatures within its environment by: (Select all that apply)
A)increasing sterol concentrations within its lipid membrane
B)decreasing sterol concentrations within its lipid membrane
C)increasing the number of unsaturated isoprenoids within its lipid membrane
D)increasing the number of saturated isoprenoids within its lipid membrane
E)increasing hopanoid concentrations within its lipid membrane
Answer: D
Q2) Which of these is a fungus widely used by molecular biologists to investigate the workings of eukaryal cells?
A)Giardia lamblia
B)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C)Dictyostelium discoideum
D)Penicillium notatum
E)Cephalosporium acremonium
Answer: B
Q3) Eukaryal microbes called amitochondriates lack mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Q1) Given the lifestyle of Cenarchaeum symbiosum,how do you hypothesize the marine sponges excrete nitrogenous wastes?
A)as ammonia
B)as uric acid
C)as urea
D)by amino acid elimination
E)none is a correct choice
Q2) All members of the Archaea domain contain a cell wall.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does the Archaea cytoplasmic membrane differs from the Bacteria membrane?
A)The Archaeal membrane contains cholesterol.
B)The Archaeal membrane contains no proteins.
C)The Archaeal membrane is comprised of fatty acids attached to glycerol phosphate by an ester linkage.
D)The Archaeal membrane is comprised of isoprenoids attached to glycerol phosphate by an ether linkage.
E)The Archaeal membrane gives the cell its characteristic shape.
Q4) All known methanogens are found in the domain ___.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Mad cow disease,prions act in which of the following ways?
A)PrP is converted to PrP
B)PrP is converted to PrP
C)denatured proteins are refolded and then cause cell lysis
D)native proteins replicate excessively and cause cell lysis
E)none is a correct choice
Q2) A single virus-infected cell may produce up to __________ new virions.
A)10
B)100
C)1000
D)10,000
E)one million
Q3) Proto-oncogenes never play a necessary role in development and growth of an organism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A bacterial strain that contains a phage genome integrated into its chromosome is called a _________.
Q5) Small infectious RNA molecules that are able to cause disease in plants are called
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is NOT a physical factor that affects the growth rate of cells?
A)nutrient concentration
B)temperature
C)pressure
D)light intensity
E)radiation
Q2) You grow Micrococcus luteus,an obligate aerobe for twelve hours in two identical glucose-containing flasks under aerobic conditions (Flask A)and anaerobic conditions (Flask B).Select the correct statements.(Select all that apply)
A)Flask A will grow faster
B)Flask B will have a higher pH
C)Flask A will produce more ATP
D)Flask B will have a higher biomass
E)None is a correct statement
Q3) Nucleic acids strongly absorb _____________ radiation of 260 nm.
Q4) The use of a good antiseptic,such as Betadine,results in sterilization.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A device used for the continuous culturing of bacteria is called a _________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are micro RNAs?
A)mRNAs that encode for regulatory proteins
B)small regulatory RNAs
C)tRNAs
D)rRNAs
E)small mRNAs
Q2) The -10 element of the bacterial promoter is also referred to as the _______ _____.
Q3) Which of these results from a deletion of base pairs such that the amino acid sequence is disrupted from that point downward?
A)transversion mutation
B)transition mutation
C)nonsense mutation
D)missense mutation
E)frameshift mutation
Q4) The RNA polymerase in Archaea is more similar to Bacteria RNA polymerase than Eukarya RNA polymerase II.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The origin of replication site in yeast is called the _____ _______ sequence.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The viral attachment protein specifically binds to a host cell receptor.All of the following are examples of known host cell receptors except A)DNA.
B)proteins.
C)glycoproteins.
D)lipopolysaccharides.
E)sialic acids.
Q2) HIV enters the cell through a/an _________ mechanism.
A)phagocytic
B)receptor-mediated endocytotic
C)membrane fusion
D)acid-dependent endosomal
E)receptor-independent endocytotic
Q3) RNAse H activity permits
A)degradation of RNA in a heteroduplex and synthesis of dsDNA
B)degradation of DNA in a heteroduplex and synthesis of dsRNA
C)degradation of RNA in a heteroduplex and synthesis of ssDNA
D)degradation of DNA in a heteroduplex and synthesis of ssRNA
E)none of these activiies occur
Q4) Most enveloped viruses exit their host cell through a process called __________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are attempting to find a restriction enzyme that will allow a 2000 base pair gene fragment to be removed intact from a length of chromosomal DNA.Which enzyme will work best for you?
A)a four base pair cutter
B)a six base pair cutter
C)an eight base pair cutter
D)all will work equally well
E)none has a chance of working
Q2) Suppose a mutant strain of Escherichia coli K12 contains a mutation in the trpE gene and is no longer able to make tryptophan.What is this mutant called?
A)An auxotroph.
B)A prototroph.
C)An autotroph.
D)A phenotroph.
E)A lithotroph.
Q3) Mutations in a cell can occur in the absence of selective pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Techniques that have been used to analyse mRNA expression in cells include: (Select all that apply)
A)Southern blot analysis
B)Northern blot analysis
C)Western blot analysis
D)DNA microarray analysis
E)NMR
Q2) DNA microarray analysis may be used to study:
A)gene expression in cells grown under different conditions.
B)protein expression in cells grown under different conditions.
C)rate of chromosomal replication in cells.
D)enzyme activity in cells.
E)growth rate of cells when grown under different conditions.
Q3) In pyrosequencing,which enzyme creates ATP?
A)DNA polymerase
B)Luciferase
C)ATP sulfurylase
D)Restriction endonuclease
E)DNA ligase
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small non-coding RNA (sRNA)always inhibit translation initiation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify mechanisms that can switch off gene expression.(Select all that apply)
A)Phosphorylation
B)Methylation
C)Acetylation
D)mRNA synthesis inhibition
E)translation inhibition
Q3) RNA transcriptional control that is achieved through mRNA secondary structure modification relies upon: (Select all that apply)
A)competition between different regions able to form stem-loop structures
B)abundance of key codons within leader sequences upstram of operon genes
C)single stranded RNA's ability to form hairpin structures
D)Shine Dalgarno sequence sequestration
E)None is a correct choice
Q4) Based on current research,quorum sensing has only been shown to occur in bioluminescent bacteria.
A)True
B)False
13
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is an affinity tag fusion protein produced?
A)To increase the biological activity of the protein.
B)To increase overall expression of the cloned gene.
C)To facilitate the purification of the recombinant protein.
D)To ensure correct transcription termination.
E)To ensure that translation starts correctly.
Q2) Why are microbial enzymes for the production of many pharmaceutical drugs sometimes favored over chemical synthesis? (Select all that apply)
A)Microbial enzymes catalyze stereospecific reactions.
B)Microbial enzymes are easier to obtain.
C)Microbial production may be cheaper.
D)Microbial enzymes are more temperature sensitive.
E)Microbial enzymes catalyze the reactions at faster rates.
Q3) Which modification might best produce cloned thermostable enzymes for industrial applications?
A)increasing the number of cysteine residues in the recombinant protein
B)expression in a eukaryal vector to increase protein methylation
C)expression in a eukaryal vector to increase protein acetylation
D)expression in a bacterial vector to increase protein methylation
E)modifying UGA stop codons to increase peptide length
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the respiratory process,as electrons are passed through the electron transport chain,a ________ ________ force is generated across a biological membrane to drive the synthesis of ATP by a membrane associated ATP synthase.
Q2) The pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction catalyzes the oxidation and decarboxylation of pyruvate into which of these products?
A)an acetyl group + CO .
B)lactic acid
C)citrate
D)ethanol + CO
E)acetic acid and CO
Q3) Which paired pathways can perform the same function(s)? (Select all that apply)
A)EMP,pentose phosphate pathway
B)Entner- Duodoroff,pentose phosphate
C)EMP,Entner- Duodoroff
D)EMP,TCA cycle
E)Pentose phosphate,TCA cycle
Q4) The reduction of nitrate to a gaseous form of nitrogen,such as dinitrogen,is called
Q5) The photosynthetic membranes in cyanobacteria are called __________ membranes.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) An interacting community of interdependent organisms is called a/an _________.
Q2) The main primary producers in aquatic environments are _______,while in terrestrial environments the main primary producers are __________.
A)plants,plants
B)microbes,microbes
C)plants,microbes
D)microbes,plants
E)microbes and plants contribute equally in both environments
Q3) Members of the Plantae are the primary producers in aquatic environments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Marine.algae have the potential to reduce global warming through generation of:
A)Hydrogen sulfide
B)Sulfur dioxide
C)dimethylsulfoniopropionate
D)dimethylsulfide
E)methane
Q5) The anaerobic process that results in the reduction of nitrate to dinitrogen gas is called ______________.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) Sulfur emitted from hydrothermal vents is in the form of __________.
Q2) What is the average temperature of the world's ocean waters?
A)2 to 3°C
B)8 to 10°C
C)12 to 15°C
D)18 to 20°C
E)22 to 25°C
Q3) Which elements necessary for microbial life are often limiting in the ocean?
A)magnesium and calcium
B)nitrogen and phosphorous
C)magnesium and chloride
D)sodium and calcium
E)potassium and magnesium
Q4) Which organisms has NOT been discovered as part of a hydrothermal vent comminity?
A)Tube worms
B)Shrimp
C)Anemones
D)Octopus
E)Kelp
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) An MPN test where lactose-fermenting microbes have been observed is known as a:
A)Presumptive test
B)A confirmed test
C)A completed test
D)A conclusive test
E)None is a correct choice
Q2) At an aw of 0.80,which of these microbes might cause food spoilage? (Select all that apply)
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)E)coli
C)Typical molds
D)Osmophilic microbes
E)Pseudomonas
Q3) All of the following microbes play an important role in the production of fermented milk products except for
A)Lactobacillus.
B)Leuconostoc.
C)Lactococcus.
D)Clostridium.
E)Streptococcus.
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) Which of these enzymes,isolable from shipworm endosymbionts,shows commercial potential?
A)Amylase
B)Protease
C)Lipase
D)Nuclease
E)Cellulase
Q2) Acetogenesis is the production of acetic acid from which material(s)?
A)lactate
B)pyruvate
C)carbon dioxide and hydrogen
D)oxaloacetate
E)glucose
Q3) If lower termites are fed antibiotics they cannot survive because:
A)Their cellulase-producing bacterial endosymbionts are killed
B)Their cellulase-producing protozoan endosymbionts are killed
C)Their nitrogenous compound-providing bacterial endosymbionts are killed
D)Their nitrogenous compound-providing protozoan endosymbionts are killed
E)The methanogens in the termite intestine are killed
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endotoxins are toxins that are made in the cell and excreted to the external environment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The measure of the ability of a pathogen to cause severe disease in a host is called
Q3) The discussion in this section of Shiga toxin's beneficial contribution to the survival of E.coli O157: H7 within its host leads us to speculate that the toxin may be part of a/an:
A)Surface receptor complex on the bacterial cell surface
B)Transcription activating complex
C)Translation stimulating peptide
D)DNA polymerase complex
E)Flagellar antigen complex
Q4) In the CRISPR-Cas system,which component is responsible for phage recognition?
A)Pre-cRNA transcript
B)cRNA subunits
C)Cas helicase
D)Cas nuclease
E)CRISPR locus
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial
Invasion
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Sample Questions
Q1) TLR-3 recognizes double-stranded RNA.The presence of double stranded RNA in a cell usually indicates the cell is infected by which of these?
A)a Gram negative bacterium
B)an RNA virus
C)a Gram positive bacterium
D)a protozoan
E)yeast
Q2) The inflammatory response will sometimes produce a fever.Which of these is NOT a benefit provided by fever?
A)Fever increases the body's metabolism,producing more energy for healing tissues.
B)Fever increases the inflammatory response.
C)Fever prevents a person from becoming cold.
D)Fever inhibits or decreases pathogen growth.
E)Fever will increase the rate of cell division of immune cells.
Q3) If an individual is resistant to infection and disease development by a specific pathogen,the person is said to be _______________ to the infectious agent.
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Exogenous antigen is usually taken up by antigen-presenting cells through phagocytosis,processed,and presented to T cells on their surface by these.
A)MHC I molecules
B)MHC II molecules
C)interleukin 2 molecules
D)tumor necrosis factor alpha
E)interferon gamma
Q2) Which of these is true of B cell receptors (BCRs)?
A)They are able to bind soluble antigen.
B)They present processed antigen to T cells.
C)They comprise the MHC complex of B cells.
D)They are different from antibody produced by the B cell.
E)They activate naïve T cells.
Q3) Exogenous antigen is taken up by APCs via A)Phagocytosis
B)Pinocytosis
C)Receptor-mediated endocytosis
D)All are correct choices
E)None is a correct choice
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Chapter 21: Virulence Factors and Pathogenic Mechanisms
of Bacterial Infections
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Q1) Perfringolysin is produced by Clostridium perfringens.What is its mechanism to cause lysis?
A)Through pore formation within the host cell membrane.
B)By disruption of protein synthesis.
C)By disruption of membrane synthesis.
D)Through the breakdown of membrane phospholipids.
E)By destroying host cell membrane proteins.
Q2) Which cells are destroyed by hemolysins?
A)lymphocytes
B)macrophages
C)epithelial cells
D)red blood cells
E)heart cells
Q3) Synaptobrevin can bind to: (Select all that apply)
A)SNAP-25
B)Syntaxin
C)Botulotoxin A
D)Tetanotoxin
E)Botulotoxin C
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Q4) Exotoxins that act specifically on the intestine are called __________________.
Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) This is an example of a virus that typically causes a latent infection.
A)rotavirus
B)Norwalk virus
C)herpes virus
D)rhinovirus
E)influenza virus
Q2) The likely direct ancestor of SARS-CoV is now believed to be:
A)A reassorted civet SLCoV
B)A recombined civet SLCoV
C)A reassorted bat SLCoV
D)A recombined bat SLCoV
E)A bat SLCoV arising through antigenic drift
Q3) If a newly discovered influenza-like virus has 15 neuraminidase proteins on its surface and 23 HA-like molecules,how many new strains could be generated through point mutation?
A)38
B)144
C)345
D)1,000
E)This cannot be calculated due to the randomness of the process
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) ELISA tests performed to diagnose malaria are designed to detect: (Select all that apply0
A)Plasmodium lactate dehydrogenase
B)MSP-7
C)Histone deacetylase
D)Hemozoin
E)Surface protein II
Q2) The parasite contributing most significantly to amphibian disease throughout the world is:
A)D)falleni
B)D)recens
C)H)aoronymphium
D)B)dendrobatidis
E)X)laevis
Q3) What is Ascaris lumbricoides,a helminth that causes ascariasis,commonly called?
A)hookworm
B)roundworm
C)tapeworm
D)pinworm
E)whipworm
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The attack rate in a population of 200,000 individuals is estimated to be 10%.What is the incidence?
A)20
B)100
C)20,000
D)5,000
E)200,000
Q2) Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs listed below does not target nucleic acid synthesis?
A)sulfonamides
B)quinolones
C)tetracylcines
D)rifamycins
E)trimethoprim
Q3) Which one of the following is not a mechanism of antimicrobial drug resistance?
A)enzymatic inactivation of the drug
B)removal of the drug from inside the cell
C)blocking the uptake of the drug into the cell
D)incorporation of the drug into cell material
E)alteration of the drug's target site
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