Food Microbiology Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Food Microbiology is an essential course that explores the role and significance of microorganisms in food production, preservation, and safety. Through this course, students will learn about the various types of microorganisms, including bacteria, yeasts, molds, and viruses, that can impact food quality and human health. Key topics include microbial growth and control, food spoilage mechanisms, fermentation processes, pathogens and foodborne illnesses, as well as methods for detecting and preventing contamination. The course provides a foundational understanding of the microbiological principles necessary for ensuring food safety in the food industry and public health sectors.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations10th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who first elucidated the structure of DNA
A)Hershey and Chase
B)Avery,McCarty and MacLeod
C)Watson and Crick
D)Tatum and Beadle
Answer: C
Q2) Because viruses could not be visualized using conventional microscopes further progress required the development of techniques for isolating,propagating and analyzing viruses.All of the following are true except:
A)crystal structure of the tobacco mosaic virus showed that it was made up of RNA and protein
B)viruses were first observed with an electron microscope
C)viral DNA has a different structure from that discovered by Watson and Crick
D)Hershey and Chase demonstrated that the genetic material of some viruses is DNA
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: The Microbiome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term is used if your microbiome is not considered conducive to good health
A)imbiosis
B)retrobiosis
C)antagonobiosis
D)antibiosis
E)dysbiosis
Answer: E
Q2) How many body cells are there in a typical human being
A)10¹
B)10¹³
C)10²
D)10
E)10¹
Answer: B
Q3) Which is NOT one of the enterotypes described for humans
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type V
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical reactions occur:
A)between elements that have magnetic repulsion.
B)rarely as very few elements have electrons in their outer shell.
C)during metabolism as they are necessary for making the substance of cells.
D)only in eukaryotes as they require a nucleus.
Answer: C
Q2) Carbohydrates:
A)are hydrophobic.
B)have a four ring structure.
C)are used primarily for energy and cellular structures.
D)have primary,secondary,tertiary and quaternary structure.
Answer: C
Q3) Which one of the following pairs is matched correctly
A)carbon-organic compounds
B)glucose- hydrogen bonds
C)ions-covalent bonds
D)phosphate-enzyme
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be used to examine live specimens
A)TEM
B)SEM
C)scanning tunneling electron microscope
D)atomic force microscope
Q2) Electron microscopes:
A)that are scanning have better resolution than those that are transmission
B)are much more expensive and take up more space than light microscopes
C)can use the same preparations of specimens that have been prepared for viewing with a light microscope
D)have a resolving power approximately 10 times better than the best light microscope
Q3) A microscope in which light rays pass directly through a specimen is a ________ microscope.
A)bright field
B)dark field
C)phase-contrast
D)Nomarski
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Chapter 5: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Fluid-mosaic model describes the structure of _____.
A)cell walls
B)cell membranes
C)capsules
D)endosymbiotic relationships
Q2) The charged,phosphate end of a membrane phospholipid is:
A)water-fearing
B)hydrophilic
C)hydrophobic
D)none of these
Q3) Removal of the cell wall of a Gram positive bacteria results in the formation of a _____.
A)protoplast
B)spheroplast
C)periplast
D)polyplast
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Chapter 6: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The end product of glycolysis is:
A)fructose-1,6-diphosphate
B)1,3 diphosphoglyceric acid
C)phosphoenolpyruvic acid
D)pyruvic acid
Q2) The green sulfur and purple sulfur bacteria are capable of:
A)carrying out photosynthesis
B)only obtaining energy from organic molecules
C)bypassing glycolysis for the Krebs cycle
D)metabolizing without enzymes
Q3) The first step in protein metabolism is the breakdown of proteins into:
A)nucleotides
B)fatty acids
C)amino acids
D)coenzymes
Q4) In algae,the dark reactions of photosynthesis occur in the:
A)cell membrane
B)matrix of the mitochondria
C)stroma of the chloroplast
D)nucleus
8
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Chapter 7: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The streak plate method produces pure cultures by separating individual bacterial cells from one another by _____.
A)dragging them across a solid surface
B)dispersing them in liquid media
C)killing off those cells that are not able to survive in hot agar
D)embedding some cells in the agar so that they are exposed to lower concentrations of oxygen
Q2) Microbial growth:
A)refers to the increase in the size of a microbial cell.
B)refers to the increase in the frequency of cell division.
C)in a single generation time leads to double the cell size.
D)in a single generation time leads to double the number of microbes.
Q3) A growth medium consisting of only known amounts of water,magnesium,calcium chloride,potassium and glucose would be considered:
A)a defined synthetic medium
B)a complex medium
C)a chemically nondefined medium
D)two of these
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Segments of eukaryotic DNA that do not code for proteins:
A)are called introns
B)are found in all bacterial genes
C)can be considered by your immune system as enemy DNA D)binds to proteins to form ribosomes
Q2) After DNA replication of a bacterial chromosome,the new DNA contains:
A)2 newly synthesized strands of DNA copied from the original parent strands
B)one strand of parent DNA along with one newly synthesized strand C)small segments of parent DNA interspersed with newly synthesized segments of DNA D)two of these choices are true
Q3) The tryptophan (trp)operon is turned on (i.e.gene expression occurs)when:
A)there is a great deal of tryptophan in the cell
B)there is a lack of tryptophan in the cell
C)the trp operon is always turned on D)the trp operon is always turned off
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the process of lysogeny:
A)a phage integrates into the chromosome of the bacterium
B)a bacterium takes up DNA from the media
C)new phage particles are assembled in the host bacterium
D)a bacterium is split open to release new phage particles
Q2) When cells conjugate for longer periods of time,which of the following will occur
A)Fewer genes will be transferred.
B)More genes will be transferred.
C)The same number of genes will be transferred.
D)It is impossible to tell.Conjugation time and number of genes transferred are not related.
Q3) High frequency recombination cells arise when:
A)They have multiple F plasmids
B)A portion of the cell's F plasmid has been incorporated into the bacterial chromosome
C)Conjugation and transformation happen at the same time
D)Bacterial chromosomes do not break during conjugation
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Chapter 10: An Introduction to Taxonomy: The Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct order of taxonomic hierarchies (from most broad to most specific)is
A)class,order,family,phylum
B)order,family,class,phylum
C)phylum,class,order,family
D)phylum,class,family,order
Q2) The five kingdom system of classification was developed by _____.
A)Charles Darwin
B)Robert Hooke
C)Louis Pasteur
D)Robert Whittaker
Q3) According to the three-domain classification system an organism with cells measuring more than 10 micrometers across would most likely belong to the ______.
A)eukarya
B)bacteria
C)archaea
D)eukarya,bacteria and archaea would be equally likely
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Chapter 11: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the true statement regarding yellow fever.
A)Yellow fever is endemic to the United States.
B)Yellow fever is only transmitted by one mosquito species.
C)Yellow fever is transmitted by ticks and mosquitoes.
D)Yellow fever is caused by a flavivirus.
Q2) A viroid has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A)single circular RNA chromosome
B)need for a helper virus in replication
C)lack of protein in its structure
D)lack of DNA in its structure
Q3) Malignant tumors and their cells can ____ to other locations and organs in the body.
A)metastasize
B)begin
C)stagnate
D)end
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Chapter 12: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parasites having both male and female reproductive organs are known as _____.
A)obligate parasites
B)schizonts
C)hermaphrodites
D)accidental parasites
Q2) Malaria is a result of infection by a/an _____.
A)mastigophoran
B)amebozoan
C)apicomplexan
D)ciliophoran
Q3) Bread molds are members of the phylum _____.
A)zygomycota
B)ascomycota
C)basidiomycota
D)deuteromycota
Q4) Organisms that obtain nutrients from decaying matter are called _____.
A)autotrophs
B)heterotrophs
C)saprophytes
D)lithophytes
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Chapter 13: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following qualities apply to the selection of an ideal antiseptic EXCEPT:
A)fast acting
B)effective against all infective agents without harming host tissue
C)no offensive odor
D)expensive and difficult to obtain and use
Q2) Sterilization is the:
A)killing or removal of all microorganisms in a material or an object.
B)reduction of the number of pathogenic microorganisms in a material or object.
C)killing or removal of some but not all microorganisms.
D)disinfection of living tissue.
Q3) Agents that denature proteins include all of the following except:
A)acids
B)alkalis
C)detergents
D)cold treatment
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15
Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sulfonamide antibiotics kill bacteria by _____.
A)interfering with cell wall synthesis
B)disrupting folic acid metabolism
C)reacting with bacterial cell membranes
D)inhibiting bacterial motility
Q2) The lowest concentration of drug that yields no growth during a second inoculation into fresh medium is called:
A)minimum bactericidal concentration
B)minimum inhibitory concentration
C)mutant prevention concentration
D)serum killing power
Q3) A Candida albicans infection of the intestine,vagina or oral cavity is commonly treated with _____.
A)cefotaxime
B)rifampin
C)streptomycin
D)nystatin
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Chapter 15: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rapid transfer of a microbial pathogen through animals of a susceptible species
A)does not change the pathogenicity
B)increases its fitness in broth culture
C)can increase the intensity of the disease produced by that pathogen
D)can decrease the intensity of the disease produced by that pathogen
Q2) Exotoxins:
A)are soluble substances secreted into the host bloodstream
B)buildup after antibiotic treatment
C)require the bacteria to die or divide
D)consist of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
Q3) Leukocidin:
A)is an altered toxin that retains its antigenicity
B)is an endotoxin
C)is insoluble in host tissues
D)destroys or damages neutrophils
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Chapter 16: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) An epidemiologist that studies the of cases of a disease,those segments of the population affected by a disease and the locations and time periods of a disease while the outbreak occurs deals with what type of epidemiology
A)Analytical
B)Descriptive
C)Experimental
D)None of these choices
Q2) An infection acquired in the hospital or other medical facility is:
A)zoonotic
B)notifiable
C)exogenous
D)nosocomial
Q3) Waterborne transmission of pathogens involving water contaminated by raw sewage is an example of what mode of transmission
A)Indirect fecal-oral
B)Direct fecal-oral
C)Vertical
D)Droplet nuclei
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18
Chapter 17: Innate Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specific defenses:
A)function against any infectious agent
B)include phagocytes and interferon
C)includes only noncellular defenses
D)respond to a particular infectious agent
Q2) Granulocytes include all of the following except:
A)basophils
B)neutrophils
C)lymphocytes
D)eosinophils
Q3) Physical barriers of nonspecific defenses:
A)include both the cells that line the body surfaces and the chemicals they secrete
B)include phagocytes and interferon
C)respond to antigens by making thousands of different antibodies
D)are part of the host immune defenses
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Chapter 18: Basic Principles of Adaptive Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Injection of a person with a vaccine that induces protective immunity in that individual is an example of what type of immunity
A)Active,natural
B)Innate,natural
C)Active,artificial
D)Passive,natural
Q2) Colostrum,which contains high concentrations of antibodies passed onto an infant from a mother during breast-feeding,is an example of what type of immunity
A)Artificially acquired active immunity
B)Naturally acquired active immunity
C)Naturally acquired passive immunity
D)Artificially acquired passive immunity
Q3) Monoclonal antibodies are all of the following except:
A)antibodies that are produced at greatest frequency in the body
B)made by hydridomas which make only one specific antibody
C)produced by a clone of cultured cells
D)used for diagnostic tests and to treat rheumatoid arthritis
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Chapter 19: Immune Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements related to serum sickness is false
A)Serum sickness was initially associated with injections of anti-toxin for diphtheria.
B)The patient's immune system makes antibody against horse proteins.
C)Glomerulus function is impaired due to immune complexes.
D)Most patients die rather quickly from the condition.
Q2) Cell-mediated hypersensitivity is mediated by _____.
A)IgG,IgM
B)T cells
C)mast cells
D)two of these
Q3) Rhogam,which is administered to women during pregnancy to prevent the occurrence of hemolytic disease of the newborn,contains:
A)Rh positive antigen
B)Rh negative antigen
C)anti-Rh antibodies (IgG)
D)two of these
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) The reason why newborns in developed countries receive antibiotic or silver nitrate drops at birth is:
A)to prevent opthalmia neonatorum
B)because pinkeye is extremely contagious
C)gnats can transmit organisms from the eyes of newborns
D)two of these
Q2) Which of the following conditions is associated with the erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes
A)rheumatic fever
B)toxic shock syndrome
C)scarlet fever
D)roseola
Q3) Blastomycosis:
A)is common in the San Joaquin Valley
B)causes disfiguring granulomatous pus producing skin lesions
C)occurs mostly in young female children
D)two of these
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Chapter 21: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human papilloma virus causes:
A)condylomas
B)laryngeal papilloma
C)genital warts
D)all of these
Q2) Disseminated CMV:
A)always involves the brain and in adults leads to neural damage
B)can occur 1 to 4 months after an organ transplant
C)can lead to severe and often lethal pneumonia in bone marrow transplant patients
D)two of these
Q3) In the United States,the most prevalent STD is caused by _____.
A)Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Haemophilus ducreyi
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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23
Chapter 22: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The upper respiratory tract consists of the:
A)pharynx
B)nasal cavity
C)primary bronchi
D)two of these choices
Q2) Which of the following statements about normal microflora of the respiratory system is incorrect
A)The presence of Haemophilus in the pharynx does not indicate disease.
B)About 1/3 of the population carries Staphylococcus aureus in their nasal cavity.
C)Coccidioides immitis is a harmless part of the microflora.
D)Nasal carriers of Staphylococcus aureus can easily spread it to other individuals.
Q3) Which of the following statements about pneumonia is incorrect
A)Helminths can cause pneumonia.
B)Walking pneumonia is caused by Legionella pneumophilia.
C)Chemicals and radiation can cause pneumonia.
D)Walking pneumonia cannot be prevented by vaccination.
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Chapter 23: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Taxonomically,Salmonella has been broken down into 2000 different _______ ,depending on the antigens on their surface.
A)species
B)serovars
C)subspecies
D)genera
Q2) Which of the following helminths is not diagnosed by finding eggs in the feces
A)Trichinosis
B)Whipworm
C)Ascariasis
D)Hookworm
Q3) How does fluoride help reduce dental decay
A)absorbs the acid that seeps down between rods of enamel
B)mineralization of fluoride fills in the spaces between enamel rods
C)kills the bacteria that are responsible for dental decay
D)two of these choices
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25
Chapter 24: Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, and Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Problems in treating malaria arise because:
A)the bacteria contain multi-drug resistant plasmids
B)many Plasmodium species are resistant to chloroquine
C)the antibiotic cannot get to the blood
D)patients are allergic to the medications
Q2) Which infection manifests itself as fever,malaise,bacteremia and regurgitating heart murmur usually lasting two weeks or more
A)Subacute endocarditis
B)Puerperal fever
C)Neonatal sepsis
D)Rheumatic fever
Q3) Which fever causes a severe bone and joint pain along with other symptoms (headache,nausea,weakness,rash),its main vector is Aedes aegypti and vaccines are only available for two strains
A)Yellow fever
B)Colorado Tick fever
C)Dengue fever
D)Ehrlichiosis
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Chapter 25: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) All of the following are symptoms of poliovirus except:
A)muscle spasms
B)heart damage
C)partial or complete flaccid paralysis
D)destruction of motor neurons
Q2) Botulism toxin is characterized by all of the following except:
A)most potent toxin known
B)released upon autolysis of cells
C)boiling will not inactivate the toxin
D)activated by proteolytic enzymes
Q3) All of the following are associated with prions except:
A)Chagas' disease
B)Kuru
C)Scrapie
D)Mad cow disease
Q4) Hib vaccine is limited to:
A)Haemophilus meningitis
B)Haemophilus encephalitis
C)the number of cases of mental retardation
D)two of these choices
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which statement about septic tanks is correct
A)Pouring poisons and grease down the drain may kill the tank's beneficial microbes.
B)Sludge moves continually into a drainage leaching field.
C)Drainage fields last for more than 50 years.
D)Two of these choices.
Q2) Microbes in the environment can be _____.
A)producers
B)consumers
C)decomposers
D)all of these choices
Q3) Nitrogenase is:
A)oxygen sensitive
B)only produced by Rhizobium
C)a N fixing enzyme
D)two of these choices
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Chapter 27: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Spirulina has been grown for centuries in alkaline lakes in Africa,in Mexico and by the ancient Incas in Peru to be used _____.
A)as fertilizer
B)as animal feed
C)for human consumption
D)as preservatives
Q2) Which bacteria are responsible for nearly half the infections associated with mishandling of poultry in restaurants
A)Salmonella
B)Pseudomonas
C)Trichinella spiralis
D)Lactobacilli
Q3) Which of the following microbes have been used as food products for human consumption
A)bacteria
B)algae
C)yeasts
D)all of these choices
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