Course Introduction
Food Microbiology
Exam Answer Key
Food Microbiology explores the microorganisms that influence food quality, safety, and production. This course covers the roles of bacteria, yeasts, molds, and viruses in food spoilage, preservation, and fermentation. Students learn about microbial growth, detection methods, and how to control harmful pathogens in food processing and storage. Emphasis is placed on understanding foodborne illnesses, regulatory standards, and modern techniques used to ensure food safety. Through lectures and laboratory work, students gain practical skills in microbial analysis and the application of microbiological principles to food technology.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition by Gerard
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Page 2
J. Tortora
Chapter 1: The Microbial World and You
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Sample Questions
Q1) Molecular biology includes the study of A)DNA synthesis.
B)RNA replication.
C)protein synthesis.
D)enzyme function.
E)how genetic information directs protein synthesis.
Answer: E
Q2) When our bodies overcome the offensive tactics of a particular microorganism,this is referred to as
A)therapy.
B)colonization.
C)disease.
D)resistance.
E)deficiency.
Answer: D
Q3) Microbes are associated with life-sustaining benefits as well as life-threatening diseases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Chemical Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Figure 2.1,which is an alcohol?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e Answer: C
Q2) Table 2.1 \[{ } _ { 8 } ^ { 16 } \mathrm { O } \quad { } _ { 6 } ^ { 12 } \mathrm { C } \quad { } _ { 1 } ^ { 1 } \mathrm { H }\]
Using the information in Table 2.1,calculate the number of moles in 92 grams of ethanol,C H OH.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)The answer cannot be determined. Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope
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Q1) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of the counterstain.What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
A)purple
B)red
C)colorless
D)brown
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following places the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order?
1-Alcohol-acetone
2-Crystal violet
3-Safranin
4-Iodine
A)1-2-3-4
B)2-1-4-3
C)2-4-1-3
D)4-3-2-1
E)1-3-2-4
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
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Q1) Fimbriae and pili differ in that
A)there are only one or two pili per cell.
B)pili are used for motility.
C)pili are used to transfer DNA.
D)pili are used for transfer of DNA and motility.
E)pili are used for attachment to surfaces.
Q2) Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized?
A)slime layer
B)fimbriae
C)capsule
D)cell membrane
E)cell wall
Q3) A particular type of inclusion body that is used to orient bacteria in three-dimensional space in a fluid environment is the
A)gas vacuole.
B)carboxysome.
C)sulfur granule.
D)metachromatic granule.
Q4) Compare and contrast the characteristics of a typical prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Q1) All of the following are required in the reactions of microbial respiration EXCEPT A)electron transport system.
B)cytochromes.
C)a source of electrons.
D)oxygen.
E)final electron acceptor.
Q2) Refer to Figure 5.8.In aerobic respiration,where is water formed?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e
Q3) In Figure 5.8,the structure labeled "1" is A)NAD .
B)ATP synthase.
C)a plasma membrane.
D)a cell wall.
E)cytoplasm.
Q4) Explain the overall purpose of metabolic pathways.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Growth
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Q1) In Figure 6.1,which line best illustrates the growth of a facultative anaerobe incubated aerobically?
A)a
B)b
C)c
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of the direct microscopic count?
A)can readily count organisms that are motile
B)can easily distinguish live from dead cells
C)requires no incubation time
D)sample volume is unknown
E)requires a large number of cells
Q3) For the three types of media in Table 6.1,which medium (or media)is/are chemically defined?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)A and B
E)A and C
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8
Chapter 7: The Control of Microbial Growth
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Q1) The thermal death time is the time needed to kill all the bacteria in a particular culture at a certain temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q2) HEPA filters are effective because they are designed to remove all airborne particulates,including microorganisms down to
A)0.01 micrometers.
B)0.3 micrometers.
C)1 micrometer.
D)10 micrometers.
E)10 nanometers.
Q3) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)ionizing radiation - hydroxyl radicals
B)ozone - takes electrons from substances
C)plasma sterilization - free radicals
D)supercritical fluids - CO
E)ultraviolet radiation - desiccation
Q4) What are the advantages of gluteraldehyde compared to formaldehyde?
Q5) How is hydrogen peroxide antimicrobial?
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by A)mutation.
B)conjugation.
C)transduction.
D)transformation.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q2) In Figure 8.1,which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine-requiring?
A)1,2,3,and 9
B)3 and 9
C)4,6,and 8
D)4 and 8
E)5 and 6
Q3) The cancer gene ras produces mRNA containing an extra exon that includes a number of UAA codons.Cancer cells produce ras mRNA missing this exon.This mistake most likely is due to a mistake by
A)a chemical mutagen.
B)DNA polymerase.
C)photolyases.
D)snRNPs.
E)UV radiation.
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Dna Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bioinformatics is the use of computer technology to compare and analyze genome sequence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following techniques is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA into plants?
A)gene guns
B)protoplast fusion
C)Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium
D)microinjection
E)electroporation
Q3) The random shotgun method is used in
A)amplification of unknown DNA.
B)transforming plant cells with recombinant DNA.
C)genome sequencing.
D)RFLP analysis.
E)forensic microbiology.
Q4) Your research group is investigating the possible use of genetically-engineered cells to produce a vaccine for malaria.List the pros and cons of using E.coli,Saccharomyces,and animal cells to produce the vaccine.
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Chapter 10: Classification of Microorganisms
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Q1) A genus can best be defined as
A)a taxon composed of families.
B)a taxon composed of one or more species and a classification level lying below family.
C)a taxon belonging to a species.
D)a taxon comprised of classes.
E)the most specific taxon.
Q2) One of the advantages of some newly developed rapid identification tools is that pure cultures are not needed.Why is a pure culture necessary for biochemical tests such as the Enterotube,but not for DNA probes?
Q3) In Figure 10.1,species "c." is most closely related to which of the following?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e
Q4) Pure cultures of the same species are not always identical in all ways.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: The Prokaryotes: Domains Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Both Beggiatoa and the purple sulfur bacteria use H S.These bacteria differ in that Beggiatoa
A)uses H S for an energy source.
B)uses H S for a carbon source.
C)uses light energy.
D)can photosynthesize.
E)is gram negative.
Q2) Borrelia is classified as a spirochete because it
A)is aerobic.
B)possesses an axial filament.
C)is a rod.
D)is a pathogen.
E)is transmitted by ticks.
Q3) Actinomycetes differ from fungi in that actinomycetes
A)are chemoheterotrophs.
B)lack a membrane-bounded nucleus.
C)require light.
D)are decomposers.
E)cause disease.
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Chapter
Helminths
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Sample Questions
Q1) Three weeks after a river rafting trip,three family members experienced symptoms of coughing,fever,and chest pain.During the rafting trip,the family had consumed crayfish that they caught along the river banks.An examination of the patients' sputum revealed helminth eggs,and serum samples were positive for antibodies to Paragonimus.All of the family members recovered following treatment with praziquantel.In the Paragonimus life cycle,
A)the crayfish are the definitive host and humans are the intermediate host.
B)humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host.
C)both humans and crayfish are intermediate hosts.
D)both humans and crayfish are definitive hosts.
E)the source of the infection was the river water.
Q2) The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a A)redia.
B)cercaria.
C)cysticercus.
D)metacercaria.
E)proglottid.
Q3) Explain how the presence of algae can indicate either pollution or productivity of a body of water.
Q4) Contrast the economic benefits and the harmful effects of fungi.
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Chapter 13: Viruses,viroids,and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oncogenic viruses
A)cause acute infections.
B)are genetically unstable.
C)cause tumors to develop.
D)are lytic viruses that kill the host cell.
E)have no effect on the host cell.
Q2) Which one of the following steps does NOT occur during multiplication of a picornavirus?
A)synthesis of + strands of RNA
B)synthesis of - strands of RNA
C)synthesis of viral proteins
D)synthesis of DNA
E)None of the answers is correct.
Q3) Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT
A)immunity to reinfection by the same phage.
B)acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell.
C)immunity to reinfection by any phage.
D)specialized transduction.
E)phage conversion.
Q4) Explain the steps involved in bacteriophage DNA entering a bacterial cell.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Principles of Disease and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can be directly attributed to A)increased use of antibiotics.
B)improved handwashing.
C)vaccinations.
D)antibiotic-resistant microorganisms.
E)None of the answers is correct.
Q2) Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?
A)botulism
B)tuberculosis
C)measles
D)the common cold
E)diphtheria
Q3) A healthcare-associated infection (traditionally known as a nosocomial infection)is
A)always present,but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization.
B)acquired during the course of hospitalization.
C)always caused by medical personnel.
D)only a result of surgery.
E)always caused by pathogenic bacteria.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat A)viral infections.
B)gram-negative bacterial infections.
C)gram-positive bacterial infections.
D)protozoan infections.
E)helminth infestations.
Q2) The M protein enhances the virulence of Streptococcus by preventing phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many pathogens use the same portal for entry and exit from the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect of viruses?
A)cell death
B)host cells fusing to form multinucleated syncytia
C)inclusion bodies forming in the cytoplasm or nucleus
D)increased cell growth
E)toxin production
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Chapter 16: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Defenses of the Host
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Sample Questions
Q1) The swelling associated with inflammation decreases when the fluid
A)returns to the blood.
B)goes into lymph capillaries.
C)is excreted in urine.
D)is lost as perspiration.
E)is transported into macrophages.
Q2) Normal microbiota provide protection from infection in each of the following ways
EXCEPT
A)they produce antibacterial chemicals.
B)they compete with pathogens for nutrients.
C)they make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bacteria.
D)they produce lysozyme.
E)they change the pH of the environment.
Q3) Chronic inflammation can result in a(n)________,which can cause impairment of normal tissue function.
A)abscess
B)fever
C)scar tissue/fibrosis
D)parenchyma
E)blood clot
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Chapter 17: Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells?
A)They originate in bone marrow.
B)They have antibodies on their surfaces.
C)They are responsible for the memory response.
D)They are responsible for antibody formation.
E)They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.
Q2) A person has antibodies against the measles virus.Identify three ways in which these antibodies could be acquired.
Q3) Which of the following terms regarding roles of chemical messengers is mismatched?
A)hematopoetic cytokine - development of blood cells
B)interleukins - communication between white blood cells
C)chemokines - stimulate chemotaxis
D)interferons - interruption of viral infection
E)tumor necrosis factor - stimulate tumor metastasis
Q4) Apoptosis results in significant leakage of cellular contents.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the production of antibodies using the clonal selection theory.
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Chapter 18: Practical Applications of Immunology
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Q1) Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(n)
A)conjugated vaccine.
B)subunit vaccine.
C)nucleic acid vaccine.
D)attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
E)toxoid vaccine.
Q2) A highly specific diagnostic test will be unlikely to indicate a positive result if a specimen being tested is a true negative.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease.This antiviral drug is a(n)
A)toxoid.
B)monoclonal antibody.
C)vaccine.
D)immunosuppressive.
E)nucleoside analog.
Q4) Blood typing tests are examples of hemagglutination reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Disorders Associated With the Immune System
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Q1) Explain the relationship between thymic selection of maturing T cells and self-tolerance.
Q2) In rheumatoid arthritis,IgM,IgG,and complement deposit in joints.This is an example of
A)cytotoxic autoimmunity.
B)immune complex autoimmunity.
C)cell-mediated autoimmunity.
D)immunosuppression.
E)acquired immunodeficiency.
Q3) In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1,what is the small,circular/spherical structure labeled "a"?
A)antibody
B)antigen
C)complement
D)neutrophil
E)mast cell
Q4) A hypersensitivity reaction refers to immune responses to antigens beyond what would be normal.
A)True
B)False
21
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) In Table 20.2,the most effective antibiotic tested was A)A.
B)B.
C)C.
D)D.
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q2) Both trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole inhibit reactions along the same metabolic pathway.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the difficulties in developing antiviral drugs against DNA viruses,when compared to RNA viruses.
Q4) Phage therapy has been used in the past as an effective,common antiviral treatment.
A)True B)False
Q5) Only microbes produce antimicrobial peptides.
A)True B)False
Q6) Can you determine both MIC and MBC from an E-test? Explain.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Assume that your lab partner swabs the side of his face and uses the swab to inoculate a nutrient agar plate.The next day,he performs a Gram stain on the colonies.They are gram-positive cocci.You advise him that he should next look for A)an acid-fast reaction.
B)a coagulase reaction.
C)conidiospores.
D)pseudohyphae.
E)pseudopods.
Q2) The patient has a papular rash.Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals small eight-legged animals.The etiology is
A)Candida.
B)Microsporum.
C)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
E)Sarcoptes.
Q3) The abbreviation "GAS" refers to pathogenic strains of Staphylococcus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) There is an antitoxin for botulism.Why,then,is the outcome of botulism often fatal?
Q2) Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is A)tetanus toxoid.
B)tetanus immune globulin.
C)penicillin.
D)none;no action is necessary.
E)debridement.
Q3) All of the following are true of poliomyelitis EXCEPT
A)infection is due to ingestion of contaminated water.
B)initial sites of viral replication are the throat and small intestine.
C)most cases result in muscle paralysis.
D)the majority of cases are asymptomatic.
E)the oral polio vaccine contains attenuated strains of the virus.
Q4) Describe the challenges produced by prion diseases in herds of animals used for human food supplies.
Q5) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the Salk and Sabin vaccines.
Q6) What is chronic fatigue syndrome,and how is it diagnosed? What are some of the challenges facing clinicians trying to help CFS patients?
Q7) Explain the transmission and etiology of meningococcal meningitis.
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following EXCEPT
A)microbial fermentation.
B)necrotizing exotoxins.
C)proteolytic enzymes.
D)hyaluronidase.
E)endocarditis
Q2) Which set of pairs is mismatched?
A)Dengue - Aedes aegypti
B)Chikungunya - Anopheles
C)Yellow fever - Aedes aegypti
D)Trypanosoma cruzi - Reduviid bug
E)Marburg virus -African monkeys
Q3) The most likely primary site of replication during mononucleosis is the B lymphocyte.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rodent urine is the source of the Lassa virus.
A)True
B)False
25
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which one of the following is NOT a typical symptom of influenza?
A)fever
B)chills
C)headache
D)diarrhea
E)muscle aches
Q2) Infection by which one of the following is often confused with viral pneumonia?
A)Blastomyces
B)Coccidioides
C)Mycoplasma
D)Streptococcus
E)Mycobacterium
Q3) A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation.What is the etiology of the symptoms?
A)Bordetella
B)Corynebacterium
C)Burkholderia
D)Mycobacterium
E)Mycoplasma
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Chapter 25: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications
A)are transmitted via contaminated water.
B)are more severe.
C)have shorter incubation times.
D)are treated with antibiotics.
E)are accompanied by high fever.
Q2) Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever
A)the microorganisms multiply within macrophages.
B)the organism is only spread in the feces of humans.
C)the incubation period is much shorter.
D)the organism first invades the intestinal mucosa.
E)infection occurs due to ingestion of endospores.
Q3) Thinking of a mumps infection,how do the symptoms involve the GI tract,yet lead to airborne transmission of the disease? Why isn't the disease transmitted by fecal-oral contamination instead?
Q4) Bacterial infections,but not intoxications,can cause diarrhea.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare the modes of transmission for hepatitis A,B,and C.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ________ to ________ by bacteria.
A)glucose;ethanol
B)protein;acetic acid
C)glycogen;lactic acid
D)mucosal cells;lactic acid
E)urine;lactic acid
Q2) The most common NGU in the United States is treated with A)penicillin.
B)cephalosporins.
C)acyclovir.
D)AZT.
E)doxycycline.
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)?
A)lymphogranuloma venereum
B)genital herpes
C)gonorrhea
D)chancroid
E)bacterial vaginosis
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Chapter 27: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Coliforms detected in water samples always have a fecal source.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drinking water supplies are routinely tested for the presence of A)Giardia.
B)Cryptosporidium.
C)fecal coliforms.
D)fecal viruses.
E)Vibrio.
Q3) All of the following are used in secondary sewage treatment EXCEPT A)trickling filters.
B)sludge granules or floc formation.
C)aeration.
D)anaerobic digestion.
E)activated sludge.
Q4) Microorganisms in deep-sea vents and caves serve as autotrophic primary producers in the absence of sunlight.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Differentiate endomycorrhizae from ectomycorrhizae and give an example of each.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) What process does yeast use to produce ethanol for automobile fuel from corn?
A)anaerobic respiration
B)fermentation
C)the Krebs cycle
D)oxidation
E)photosynthesis
Q2) The field of study related to study of small molecule chemical fingerprints of cellular processes is known as
A)metabolomics.
B)bioconversion.
C)fermentation.
D)food preservation.
E)biofuel production.
Q3) All of the following are industrial products produced using microbial fermentations EXCEPT
A)aspartic acid.
B)citric acid.
C)glutamic acid.
D)riboflavin.
E)saccharin.
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