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First Year Chemistry provides a foundational introduction to chemical principles and laboratory techniques essential for further studies in the sciences. Topics include the structure of atoms and molecules, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, thermochemistry, chemical equilibria, and basic concepts of acids and bases. Hands-on laboratory sessions complement theoretical knowledge, emphasizing safe practices, experimental design, accurate measurements, and critical data analysis. This course develops problem-solving skills and scientific literacy, equipping students with the tools needed to approach complex chemical phenomena in advanced coursework and real-world applications.
Recommended Textbook Chemistry A Molecular Approach 1st Canadian Ediiton by Nivaldo J. Tro
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Sample Questions
Q1) Convert 1.34 km<sup>2</sup> to m<sup>2</sup>.
A)1340000 m<sup>2</sup>
B)134000 m<sup>2</sup>
C)1.34 × 10<sup>7</sup> m<sup>2</sup>
D)1.34 × 10<sup>4</sup> m<sup>2</sup>
E)1340 m<sup>2</sup>
Answer: A
Q2) If the outside air temperature is 30 °F, what is the temperature in kelvin?
A)303 K
B)307 K
C)274 K
D)272 K
Answer: D
Q3) A person is 64.00 inches tall. How tall is she in cm?
A)162.6 cm
B)25.20 cm
C)25.60 cm
D)192.0 cm
E)128.0 cm
Answer: A

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Q1) How many moles of potassium are contained in 449 g of potassium?
A)11.5 moles
B)17.6 moles
C)69.2 moles
D)23.9 moles
E)41.5 moles
Answer: A
Q2) Which element has the chemical symbol S?
A)selenium
B)silicon
C)sulfur
D)scandium
Answer: C
Q3) How many xenon atoms are contained in 2.36 moles of xenon?
A)3.92 × 10<sup>24 </sup>xenon atoms
B)2.55 × 10<sup>23 </sup>xenon atoms
C)1.42 × 10<sup>24 </sup>xenon atoms
D)7.91 × 10<sup>25 </sup>xenon atoms
E)1.87 × 10<sup>26 </sup>xenon atoms
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the formula for barium nitrite.
A)Ba<sub>3</sub>N<sub>2</sub>
B)BaNO<sub>3</sub>
C)BN
D)Ba(NO<sub>2</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
E)B(NO<sub>2</sub>)<sub>3</sub>
Answer: D
Q2) Calculate the mass percent composition of lithium in Li<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>.
A)26.75%
B)17.98%
C)30.72%
D)55.27%
E)20.82%
Answer: B
Q3) Calculate the mass percent composition of oxygen in Al<sub>2</sub>(SO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub>.
Answer: 56.11%
Q4) Give the name for HNO<sub>2</sub>.
Answer: nitrous acid
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Q1) Calcium oxide reacts with water in a combination reaction to produce calcium hydroxide: CaO(s)+ H<sub>2</sub>O(l) Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub>(s)
A 4.50 g sample of CaO is reacted with 4.34 g of H<sub>2</sub>O. How many grams of water remain after the reaction is complete?
A)0.00
B)0.00892
C)2.90
D)1.04
E)0.161
Q2) Which one of the following compounds behaves as an acid when dissolved in water?
A)RaO
B)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
C)HI
D)RbOH
Q3) What is the concentration (M)of CH<sub>3</sub>OH in a solution prepared by dissolving 16.8 g of CH<sub>3</sub>OH in sufficient water to give exactly 230 mL of solution?
Q4) How many grams of NaOH (MW = 40.0)are there in 250.0 mL of a 0.275 mol L<sup>-1</sup> NaOH solution?
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Q1) How many moles of an ideal gas are required to produce a pressure of 3.00 bar in a 1.50 L container with a temperature of 25.0 °C?
A)0.146
B)0.0874
C)0.182
D)0.914
E)1.08
Q2) Identify the gas particle that travels the slowest.
A)H<sub>2</sub>
B)O<sub>2</sub>
C)Ne
D)N<sub>2</sub>
E)CO
Q3) Which of the following gas samples would be most likely to behave ideally under the stated conditions?
A)Ne at STP
B)CO at 200 bar and 25 °C
C)SO<sub>2</sub> at 2 bar and 0 K
D)N<sub>2</sub> at 1 bar and -70 °C
E)O<sub>2</sub> at 400 bar and 25 °C
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chemist wishes to calibrate a bomb calorimeter, so he combusts 7.529 g of D-galactose, <sub>combustion</sub>U = -15.48 kJ g<sup>-1</sup>, which causes a temperature change from 26.38 °C to 34.60 °C. What should the chemist report for the value of C<sub>cal</sub>?
A)24.34 kJ °C<sup>-1</sup>
B)8.009 kJ °C<sup>-1</sup>
C)14.18 kJ °C<sup>-1</sup>
D)16.67 kJ °C<sup>-1</sup>
E)9.170 kJ °C<sup>-1</sup>
Q2) Choose the reaction that illustrates <sub>f</sub>H° for NaHCO<sub>3</sub>.
A)Na(s)+ H<sub>2</sub>(g)+ C(s)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g) NaHCO<sub>3</sub> (s)
B)Na<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ HCO<sub>3</sub> <sup>-1</sup> (aq) NaHCO<sub>3</sub> (s)
C)Na<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ H2O (l)+ CO<sub>2</sub> (g) NaHCO<sub>3</sub>(s)
D)Na(s)+ 1/2 H<sub>2</sub>(g)+ C(s)+ 3/2 O<sub>2</sub>(g) NaHCO<sub>3</sub> (s)
E)Na(s)+ 2 H(g)+ C(s)+ 3 O(g) NaHCO<sub>3</sub>(s)
Q3) Why are the standard heats of formation for elements in their most stable form assigned a value of 0?
Q4) Give the equation with the elements in MgSO<sub>4</sub> in their standard state as the reactants and MgSO<sub>4</sub> as the product.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the colour of a flame test for sodium.
A)violet
B)red
C)white
D)yellow
E)blue
Q2) Define diffraction.
Q3) Identify the colour that has a wavelength of 460 nm.
A)blue
B)green
C)red
D)yellow
Q4) Sketch one of the 3p orbitals below. How are they different from the 2p orbitals?
Q5) Give the value of l for a 3p sublevel.
A)1
B)0
C)-1
D)2
E)-2
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Q1) Identify the element that has a ground-state electronic configuration of [Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>4d<sup>5</sup>.
A)Tc
B)Mn
C)Nb
D)Ru
Q2) How many unpaired electrons are present in the ground-state Ge atom?
A)0
B)3
C)1
D)2
E)4
Q3) Use the periodic table to predict the most stable oxidation state for the following element: Al
A)+1
B)+2
C)+3
D)-1
E)-2
Q4) Why do successive ionization energies increase?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the bond below that is least polar.
A)P-F
B)C-Br
C)C-F
D)C-I
E)C-Cl
Q2) Identify the compound with the lowest magnitude of lattice energy.
A)KCl
B)KBr
C)SrO
D)CaO
Q3) Using periodic trends, place the following bonds in order of increasing ionic character. S-F Se-F O-F
A)Se-F < S-F < O-F
B)S-F < Se-F < O-F
C)O-F < Se-F < S-F
D)Se-F < O-F < S-F
E)O-F < S-F < Se-F
Q4) List the least electronegative atom.
Q5) Describe a covalent bond.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Determine the electron geometry for the molecule CS<sub>2</sub>.
A)Linear
B)Trigonal planar
C)Tetrahedral
D)Trigonal bipyramidal
E)Octahedral
Q2) Give the approximate bond angle for a molecule with T-shape molecular geometry.
A)<90°
B)90°
C)>90°
D)<120°
E)120°
Q3) Determine the electron geometry (eg)and molecular geometry (mg)of ICl<sub>2</sub> .
A)eg = tetrahedral, mg = bent
B)eg = tetrahedral, mg = trigonal pyramidal
C)eg = trigonal bipyramidal, mg = linear
D)eg = trigonal bipyramidal, mg = trigonal planar
E)eg = octahedral, mg = linear
Q4) Explain why oil and water do not mix.
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Q1) How much energy is required to vaporize 158 g of butane (C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>)at its boiling point if its <sub>vap</sub>H is 24.3 kJ mol<sup>-1</sup>?
A)15.1 kJ
B)66.1 kJ
C)89.4 kJ
D)11.2 kJ
E)38.4 kJ
Q2) Place the following compounds in order of increasing strength of intermolecular forces. CO<sub>2</sub> F<sub>2</sub> NH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
A)NH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> < CO<sub>2</sub> < F<sub>2</sub>
B)F<sub>2</sub> < NH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> < CO<sub>2</sub>
C)NH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> < F<sub>2 </sub>< CO<sub>2</sub>
D)F<sub>2</sub> < CO<sub>2</sub> < NH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
E)CO<sub>2</sub> < NH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> < F<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which is expected to have the largest dispersion forces?
A)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
B)C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>26</sub>
C)F<sub>2</sub>
D)Be<sub> </sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>
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Sample Questions
Q1) Twice as much pentane (C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>)is mixed with hexane (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>)by mass. Calculate the vapour pressure of the resulting solution. The vapour pressures of pure pentane and hexane are 425 Torr and 151 Torr, respectively. Assume ideal behaviour.
A)386 Torr
B)300 Torr
C)311 Torr
D)253 Torr
E)344 Torr
Q2) Solutions having osmotic pressures less than those of body fluids are called
A)isosmotic
B)hyperosmotic
C)hyposmotic
D)neosmotic
E)magnosmotic
Q3) Explain why water does not dissolve in gasoline.
Q4) What happens to a supersaturated solution of potassium acetate once it is cooled and a small crystal of solid potassium acetate is added?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rate constant, k, for a first-order reaction is equal to 4.2 × 10<sup>-4</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>. What is the half-life for the reaction?
A)2.9 × 10<sup>-4</sup> s
B)1.2 × 10<sup>3 </sup>s
C)1.7 × 10<sup>3</sup> s
D)2.4 × 10<sup>3</sup> s
Q2) What are the units of k in a first-order reaction?
A)mol L<sup>-1</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>
B)mol L<sup>-1</sup> s
C)L mol<sup>-1 </sup>s<sup>-1</sup>
D)M<sup>2</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>
E)s<sup>-1</sup>
Q3) What are the units of k in the following rate law? Rate = k[X][Y]<sup>1/2</sup>
A)mol L<sup>-1</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>
B)L mol<sup>-1 </sup>s<sup>-1</sup>
C)L<sup> </sup>mol<sup>-1/2 </sup>s<sup>-1</sup>
D)L<sup>1/2 </sup>mol<sup>-1/2 </sup>s<sup>-1</sup>
E)L mol<sup>-1 </sup>s<sup>-1/2</sup>
Q4) Explain what the exponential factor in the Arrhenius equation represents.
Q5) Define half-life.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The equilibrium constant, K<sub>p</sub>, equals 3.40 for the isomerization reaction: cis-2-butene trans-2-butene
If a flask initially contains 0.250 bar of cis-2-butene and 0.165 bar of trans-2-butene, what is the equilibrium pressure of each gas?
A)P(cis-2-butene)= 0.0485 bar and P(trans-2-butene)= 0.165 bar
B)P(cis-2-butene)= 0.0458 bar and P(trans-2-butene)= 0.156 bar
C)P(cis-2-butene)= 0.0735 bar and P(trans-2-butene)= 0.250 bar
D)P(cis-2-butene)= 0.0943 bar and P(trans-2-butene)= 0.321 bar
Q2) Determine the value of K<sub>p</sub> for the following reaction if the equilibrium concentrations are as follows: P(NOCl)<sub>eq</sub> = 0.22 atm, P(NO)<sub>eq</sub> = 0.10 atm, P(Cl<sub>2</sub>)<sub>eq</sub> = 0.081 atm. 2NOCl(g) 2NO(g)+ Cl<sub>2</sub>(g)
A)3.7 × 10<sup>-2 </sup>atm
B)60 atm
C)27 atm
D)1.7 × 10<sup>-2 </sup>atm
E)1.8 × 10<sup>-3 </sup>atm
Q3) Can the K<sub>p</sub> and K<sub>c</sub> for a reaction ever have the same value? Why or why not?
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Q1) Determine the pOH in a 0.235 mol L<sup>-1</sup> NaOH solution.
A)13.76
B)0.24
C)13.37
D)0.63
E)12
Q2) Identify the strongest acid.
A)H<sub>2</sub>O
B)H<sub>2</sub>S
C)H<sub>2</sub>Se
D)H<sub>2</sub>Te
E)CaH<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Calculate the concentration of bicarbonate ion, HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>, in a 0.010 mol L<sup>-1</sup> H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> solution that has the stepwise dissociation constants K<sub>a1</sub> = 4.3 × 10<sup>-7</sup> and K<sub>a2</sub> = 5.6 × 10<sup>-11</sup>.
A)6.6 × 10<sup>-5</sup> mol L<sup>-1</sup>
B)4.3 × 10<sup>-7</sup> mol L<sup>-1</sup>
C)4.3 × 10<sup>-9</sup> mol L<sup>-1</sup>
D)5.6 × 10<sup>-11</sup> mol L<sup>-1</sup>
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Q1) Determine the molar solubility of CaSO<sub>4</sub> in a solution containing 0.100 mol L<sup>-1</sup> Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>. K<sub>sp</sub> (CaSO<sub>4</sub>)= 2.4 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.
A)4.9 × 10<sup>-3</sup> mol L<sup>-1</sup>
B)2.4 × 10<sup>-4</sup> mol L<sup>-1</sup>
C)5.8 × 10<sup>-10 </sup>mol L<sup>-1</sup>
D)1.2 × 10<sup>-5</sup> mol L<sup>-1</sup>
E)0.10 mol L<sup>-1</sup>
Q2) Determine the molar solubility of BaF<sub>2 </sub>in pure water. K<sub>sp</sub> for BaF<sub>2</sub> = 2.45 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.
A)1.83 × 10<sup>-2</sup> mol L<sup>-1</sup>
B)1.23 × 10<sup>-5</sup> mol L<sup>-1</sup>
C)2.90 × 10<sup>-2</sup> mol L<sup>-1</sup>
D)4.95 × 10<sup>-3</sup> mol L<sup>-1</sup>
E)6.13 × 10<sup>-6</sup> mol L<sup>-1</sup>
Q3) Identify the compound that forms stalactites and stalagmites.
Q4) Define a buffer.
Q5) Explain the common ion effect with respect to molar solubility.
Q6) Give the name of the compound that is in antifreeze and is toxic to pets.
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Q1) Consider a reaction that has a negative <sub>r</sub>H and a negative <sub>r</sub>S. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)This reaction will be spontaneous only at low temperatures.
B)This reaction will be spontaneous at all temperatures.
C)This reaction will be nonspontaneous at all temperatures.
D)This reaction will be nonspontaneous only at low temperatures.
E)This reaction will be spontaneous only at absolute zero (0 Kelvin).
Q2) Calculate <sub>r</sub>S° for the following reaction. The S° for each species is shown below the reaction. 4NH<sub>3</sub>(g)+ 5O<sub>2</sub>(g) 4NO(g)+ 6H<sub>2</sub>O(g)
S°(J K<sup>-1</sup> mol<sup>-1</sup>)192.8 205.2 210.8 188.8
A)+287.4 J K<sup>-1</sup> mol<sup>-1</sup>
B)-401.2 J K<sup>-1</sup> mol<sup>-1</sup>
C)+160.0 J K<sup>-1</sup> mol<sup>-1</sup>
D)-336.6 J K<sup>-1</sup> mol<sup>-1</sup>
E)+178.8 J K<sup>-1</sup> mol<sup>-1</sup>
Q3) Give the standard states for a gas, liquid, solid, and solution.
Q4) Why can endothermic reactions be spontaneous?
Q5) Why is heating your home with gas more efficient than heating it with electricity?
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Q1) Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent?
A)Al(s)
B)Zn(s)
C)Mg(s)
D)Al<sup>3+</sup>(aq)
E)Mg<sup>2+</sup>(aq)
Q2) Use the standard half-cell potentials listed below to calculate the standard cell potential for the following reaction occurring in an electrochemical cell at 25 °C. (The equation is balanced.) 2K(s)+ I<sub>2</sub>(s) 2K (aq)+ 2I (aq)
K<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ e K (s) E° = -2.93 V
I<sub>2</sub>(s)+ 2 e 2 I (aq) E° = +0.54 V
A)+6.40 V
B)+1.85 V
C)-5.32 V
D)+3.47 V
E)+5.32 V
Q3) Why are iron nails coated with zinc?
Q4) Explain the significance of the standard hydrogen electrode (SHE)in the tabulation of standard reduction potentials of other species.
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Q1) Describe what changes occur in the atomic nucleus during alpha decay.
A)The mass number and atomic number decrease.
B)The mass number and atomic number increase.
C)The mass number is unchanged and the atomic number decreases.
D)The mass number is unchanged and the atomic number increases.
E)The mass number and atomic number do not change.
Q2) Nuclides below the valley of stability can become more stable through which of the following processes?
A)gamma emission
B)beta emission
C)positron emission
D)neutron emission
E)neutron bombardment
Q3) Find a correct technique used in radiometric dating.
A)uranium-238 to bismuth-206
B)potassium-40 to argon-40
C)carbon-14 to nitrogen-11
D)lead-206 to uranium-238
E)calcium-41 to argon-42
Q4) How does a dosimeter measure exposure to radioactivity?
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Q1) Explain the concept of bond polarization and inductive effect using organic halides as an example.
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE regarding index of hydrogen deficiency (IHD)?
A)When calculating IHD, oxygen does not change the number of H atoms in the parent formula, halogens are considered equal to hydrogen, and nitrogen requires one additional hydrogen atom in the parent formula.
B)When calculating IHD, oxygen requires one additional hydrogen atom in the parent formula, halogens are considered equal to hydrogen, and nitrogen does not change the number of H atoms in the parent formula.
C)When calculating IHD, oxygen is treated like hydrogen, halogens require one additional hydrogen atom in the parent formula, and nitrogen does not change the number of H atoms in the parent formula.
D)When calculating IHD, oxygen does not change the number of H atoms in the parent formula, halogens are considered equal to hydrogen, and nitrogen requires two additional hydrogen atoms in the parent formula.
E)When calculating IHD, oxygen and halogens do not change the number of H atoms in the parent formula, and nitrogen requires two additional hydrogen atoms in the parent formula.
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Q1) Which part of HCN, the hydrogen or the cyano group, adds to the O in a C=O bond and why?
Q2) Write a balanced chemical reaction to represent the combustion of 2,2-dimethylpropane.
A)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub> + 8O<sub>2</sub> 5CO<sub>2</sub> + 6H<sub>2</sub>O
B)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub> + 5O<sub>2</sub> 3CO<sub>2</sub> + 4H<sub>2</sub>O
C)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub> + H<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>4</sub> + 2C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
D)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub> + H<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>4</sub> + C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
E)2 C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> 3CH<sub>4</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O
Q3) What are primary alcohols oxidized to?
A)secondary alcohols
B)ethers
C)esters
D)aldehydes
E)ketones
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Monosaccharides are the building blocks of polypeptides.
B)Nucleotides are the building blocks of saccharides.
C)Fatty acids are responsible for DNA replication.
D)Peptides are the building blocks of amino acids.
E)Carbohydrates are water soluble and responsible for short-term energy storage.
Q2) Which of the following link together into amino acid units?
A)glycosidic linkages
B)disulfide linkages
C)peptide bonds
D)hydrogen bonds
E)ester linkages
Q3) Which of the following shows all of the tripeptides that can be formed from one molecule each of alanine (Ala), methionine (Met), and proline (Pro)?
A)AlaMetPro
B)AlaMetPro and AlaProMet
C)AlaMetPro, AlaProMet, ProMetAla, ProAlaMet, MetProAla, MetAlaPro
D)AlaMetPro, AlaProMet, ProAlaMet
E)AlaMetPro, AlaProMet, ProAlaMet, MetProAla
Q4) How do cis- and trans-fats differ?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Write the balanced reaction that shows the formation of ICl<sub>3</sub> from its elements.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Ionic carbides form between carbon and another highly electronegative element.
B)Carbides are soft materials with low melting points.
C)Metallic carbides are more malleable than the pure metal.
D)Covalent carbides are formed between carbon and a nonmetal with low electronegativity.
E)Carbides can be cationic, anionic, and covalent.
Q3) pyrosilicate
A)Si<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub><sup>2-</sup>
B)SiO<sub>4</sub><sup>4-</sup>
C)Si<sub>4</sub>O<sub>11</sub><sup>6-</sup>
D)SiO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>
E)Si<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub><sup>6-</sup>
Q4) Why are the chemical properties of nitrogen and phosphorus so different when they are in the same family?
Q5) Draw the Lewis structure for IF<sub>4</sub> and determine the geometry of the ion.
Q6) Describe the major production method for obtaining oxygen.
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Q1) Which of the following is TRUE concerning substitutional alloys?
A)The metals involved must have similar radii.
B)One type of metal atom is inserted in between the metal atoms in the initial crystal structure of the other metal.
C)The two metals must be miscible over the entire composition range.
D)Titanium carbide is an example of a substitutional alloy.
E)The metals forming a substitutional alloy must have very different electronegativities.
Q2) Which of the following is a general property of a metal?
A)high resistivity
B)good conductor of heat
C)low boiling point
D)low melting point
E)high electronegativity
Q3) What are the components of bronze?
A)copper and tin
B)lead and aluminum
C)nickel and zinc
D)copper and zinc
E)zinc and lead
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Q1) What is the ground-state electron configuration for Cr<sup>3+</sup> (Z = 24)?
A)[Ar] 4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>7</sup>
B)[Ar] 4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>1</sup>
C)[Ar] 3d<sup>3</sup>
D)[Ar] 4s<sup>1</sup>3d<sup>2</sup>
Q2) coordination
A)[Zn(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>]Br<sub>2 and </sub>[Zn(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>Br<sub>2</sub>]Cl<sub>2</sub>
B)[Cr(en)<sub>3</sub>]<sup>3+</sup>
C)[Ni(CN)<sub>2</sub>(OH)<sub>2</sub>]<sup>2-</sup>
D)[Cu(SCN)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>3- </sup>and<sup> </sup>[Cu(NCS)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>3-</sup>
E)[Cr(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>(CO)<sub>3</sub>]<sup>3+</sup>
Q3) Which of the following can function as a bidentate ligand?
A)CN<sub> </sub><sup>-</sup>
B)SH<sup>-</sup>
C)HO<sub> </sub><sup> </sup>
D)H<sub>2</sub>NCH<sub>2</sub><sup> </sup>
Q4) What is the difference between a weak-field complex and a strong-field complex?
Q5) Explain how EDTA is used to treat lead poisoning.
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