First Year Biology Review Questions
Course Introduction
First Year Biology introduces students to the fundamental principles of life sciences, exploring topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, and group discussions, students gain an understanding of how biological systems operate at molecular, cellular, and organismal levels. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and the practical applications of biological knowledge in real-world contexts, laying the groundwork for more advanced studies in biology and related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) On an evolutionary tree,any group that includes a common ancestor and all of its descendants is called monophyletic ("one-tribe").Draw the tree for Bacteria,Archaea,and Eukarya.Are prokaryotes monophyletic?
A)yes
B)no
Answer: B
Q2) How does artificial selection differ from natural selection?
A)Artificial selection occurs only in computer simulations,not with actual organisms.
B)Artificial selection is based on conscious choices by humans.
C)Artificial selection occurs only with plants.
D)Artificial selection is not based on heritable variation,but on new mutations.
Answer: B
Q3) In the Linnaean classification system,which taxon would generally include the largest number of species?
A)family
B)phylum
C)order
D)genus
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) When are atoms most stable?
A)when they have the fewest possible valence electrons
B)when they have the maximum number of unpaired electrons
C)when all of the electron orbitals in the valence shell are filled
D)when all electrons are paired
Answer: C
Q2) Why are some reactions exothermic?
A)The products have lower potential energy than the reactants.
B)They are spontaneous.
C)They are nonspontaneous.
D)The products have higher entropy (are more disordered)than the reactants.
Answer: A
Q3) There are four elements that make up 95% of all matter found in organisms.Which of the following is not one of these?
A)nitrogen
B)calcium
C)hydrogen
D)oxygen
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A peptide bond is
A)an ionic bond,not a covalent one.
B)a triple covalent bond.
C)a particularly stable,planar covalent bond.
D)a particularly unstable covalent bond.
Answer: C
Q2) An isomer of a particular molecule is
A)a molecule that has the same structure as the target molecule,but a different formula.
B)a molecule that is the same except it has an additional side group.
C)another copy of the same molecule.
D)a molecule that has the same formula,but a different structure.
Answer: D
Q3) In the figure above,which of the following statements is true?
A)The reaction is considered to be endergonic.
B)The free energy change of the reaction is indicated by arrow #1.
C)The reaction will have a positive G value.
D)The free energy change of the reaction is indicated by arrow #2.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Sample Questions
Q1) What forms the "backbone" of a nucleic acid?
A)a chain of sugar and phosphate groups,linked through phosphodiester bonds
B)purine and pyrimidine pairs,hydrogen-bonded to each other
C)a chain of amino and carboxyl groups,linked via peptide bonds
D)a double helix of antiparallel strands
Q2) By convention,the sequence of bases in a nucleic acid is always written in which direction?
A)amino to carboxyl
B)carboxyl to amino
C)3' 5'
D)5' 3'
Q3) Which of the following did Watson and Crick already know when they were trying to determine the structure of DNA?
A)The number of purines is always larger than the number of pyrimidines.
B)The number of pyrimidines is always larger than the number of purines.
C)The number of cytosines is always the same as the number of adenines.
D)The number of guanines is always the same as the number of thymines.
E)The number of purines is always the same as the number of pyrimidines.
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6
Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the hydrolysis of -glycosidic linkages in starch?
A)amylase
B)phosphorylase
C)glycolase
Q2) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the hydrolysis of -glycosidic linkages in glycogen?
A)amylase
B)phosphorylase
C)glycolase
Q3) Glucose (C H O )has a single carbonyl group (-C=O)in its linear form.Based on the number of oxygen atoms in glucose,how many hydroxyl groups (-OH)would you expect glucose to have?
A)6
B)5
C)3
D)1
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) Why does cholesterol lower membrane permeability?
A)It is polar.
B)It fills gaps in membranes and increases hydrophobic interactions.
C)It participates in hydrogen bonding in the membrane interior.
D)It is small relative to most phospholipids.
Q2) Suppose some blood cells were in an isotonic solution.What would happen to them?
A)They would shrink.
B)They would expand.
C)They would remain the same size.
D)The outcome is not predictable.
Q3) To determine if membrane proteins affect membrane permeability,you could isolate the proteins from the lipid components of the membrane by using detergents.Then you could separate the individual proteins and test each of them in a planar bilayer.What technique could you use to separate the proteins from one another after they have been isolated from the membrane?
A)gel electrophoresis
B)freeze-fracture electron microscopy
C)diffusion
D)amino acid analysis
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cell is found to contain a series of damaged organelles.Which process will play a role in removal of these damaged organelles from the cytosol?
A)Phagocytosis
B)Exocytosis
C)Autophagy
D)Pinocytosis
Q2) You have a distant cousin,age 4,who is always tired and fatigued and is not able to play games and sports like other healthy children.He is most likely to have an enzyme deficiency or defect associated with which intracellular organelle?
A)lysosomes
B)Golgi stacks
C)peroxisomes
D)mitochondria
Q3) What is a purpose of the cell wall for both prokaryotes and plant cells?
A)to provide a means of cell-cell interaction
B)to enable the cell to obtain nutrients from its environment
C)to regulate the passage of solutes into and out of the cell
D)to protect the cell from the effects of a hypotonic environment
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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells of capillaries that nourish the cells of the central nervous system are joined by tight junctions,whereas the capillaries to most other organs are characterized by having large openings or clefts between adjacent cells.How would the difference in cell-cell connections affect their functions?
A)Capillaries of the blood-brain barrier are more likely to rupture.
B)The blood-brain barrier is more selective regarding the types of molecules that can pass out of circulation.
C)There is more pressure on the blood passing through the central nervous system than to other organs.
D)Capillaries of the central nervous system are more tightly anchored to adjacent tissues.
Q2) Hormones are chemical substances produced in one organ that are released into the bloodstream and affect the function of a target organ.For the target organ to respond to a particular hormone,it must
A)have the same genetic makeup.
B)be from the same cell type as the organ that produced the hormone.
C)be experiencing a disruption in homeostasis.
D)have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electron transport chain
A)is a series of redox reactions.
B)is a series of substitution reactions.
C)is driven by ATP consumption.
D)takes place in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells.
Q2) Which of the following statements describes the pathway shown above?
A)It is a catabolic pathway.
B)It is an anabolic pathway.
C)It is a set of reactions,each of which is exergonic.
D)It is a pathway that occurs in plants,algae,and some prokaryotes,but not in other organisms (such as animals,fungi).
Q3) Why are fermentation reactions important for cells?
A)They produce alcohol used in alcoholic beverages.
B)They regenerate NAD so that glycolysis can continue.
C)They utilize oxygen.
D)They generate oxygen.
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In photosynthesis,what is the role of water (H O)?
A)It accepts electrons liberated from the reaction centre of photosystem I.
B)It donates electrons to replace lost electrons in the reaction centre of photosystem II.
C)It provides the necessary H+ ions needed to reduce glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P).
D)It provides O2,the terminal electron acceptor for the electron transport chain.
E)It allows cyclic photophosphorylation to occur when ATP levels are low in the stroma.
Q2) The absorption spectrum of a plant shows what wavelengths of light the plant absorbs.The absorption spectrum depends on
A)the wavelengths of light that hit the plant.
B)wavelengths of light that are transmitted by the plant.
C)wavelengths of light to which the plant's pigments respond.
D)the thickness of the plant's leaves.
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12
Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exposure of zebrafish nuclei to meiotic cytosol resulted in phosphorylation of NEP55 and L68 proteins by cyclin-dependent kinase 2.NEP55 is a protein of the inner nuclear membrane,and L68 is a protein of the nuclear lamina.What is the most likely role of phosphorylation of these proteins in the process of mitosis?
A)They enable the attachment of the spindle microtubules to kinetochore regions of the centromere.
B)They are involved in the disassembly and dispersal of the nucleolus.
C)They are involved in the disassembly of the nuclear envelope.
D)They assist in the movement of the centrosomes to opposite sides of the nucleus.
Q2) Nerve cells lose their ability to undergo mitosis.Instead,they are permanently stuck in A)G .
B)G .
C)S of interphase.
D)meiosis.
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Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Egg and sperm,involved in sexual reproduction,are formed through a process called A)binary fission.
B)mitosis.
C)meiosis.
D)fertilization.
Q2) For the duration of meiosis I,each chromosome is A)in the form of a tetrad.
B)two sister chromatids joined by a centromere. C)a chromosome and its homologue.
D)undergoing synapsis.
Q3) The karyotype shown above is that of a snail,Pomacea patula catemacensis.What is the diploid number for this organism?
A)13
B)26
C)46
D)7
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) Snapdragons are flowers that come in a variety of colors,including red,pink,and white.A series of crosses with snapdragons having flowers of different colors produced the following results: pink × pink: 27 pink,13 red,14 white
Red × red: all red
White × white: all white
Pink × white: 29 pink,26 white
Pink × red: 28 pink,27 red
White × red: all pink
Based on the results,what is the most reasonable explanation for the inheritance of these flower colors?
A)more than two alleles
B)incomplete dominance
C)codominance
D)pleiotropic effects
E)qualitative effects
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) Put the following steps of DNA replication in chronological order. 1. Single-stranded binding proteins attach to DNA strands.
2) Hydrogen bonds between base pairs of antiparallel strands are broken.
3) Primase binds to the site of origin.
4) DNA polymerase binds to the template strand.
5) An RNA primer is created.
A)1,2,3,4,5
B)2,1,3,5,4
C)3,2,1,5,4
D)1,2,3,4,4
Q2) Which of the following agents can cause mutations in DNA?
A)aflatoxins that are found in moldy grains
B)free radicals that are formed as by-products of aerobic respiration
C)ultraviolet radiation from sunlight
D)All of the above are mutagenic agents.
Q3) What is a telomere?
A)the mechanism that holds two sister chromatids together
B)the reorganization of the cell nucleus that takes place during telophase
C)the site of origin of DNA replication
D)the ends of linear chromosomes
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once researchers identified DNA as the unit of inheritance,they asked how information was transferred from the DNA in the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm.What is the mechanism of information transfer?
A)DNA from a single gene is replicated and transferred to the cytoplasm,where it serves as a template for protein synthesis.
B)Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene and transfers information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm,where protein synthesis takes place.
C)Proteins transfer information from the nucleus to the ribosome,where protein synthesis takes place.
D)Lipids are soluble in the nuclear membrane and serve to transfer information from the DNA to the cytoplasm,where protein synthesis takes place.
Q2) Which molecule carries the message from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm where the code is translated?
A)mRNA
B)DNA
C)rRNA
D)tRNA
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation
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Q1) What molecule/feature ensures that the correct amino acid is added with reading of a specific codon during translation?
A)the anticodon of a properly formed aminoacyl tRNA
B)the methyl-guanosine cap of a properly modified mRNA
C)the poly (A)tail of a properly modified mRNA
D)the twisting number of a properly supercoiled DNA
Q2) What is the function of the group of amino acids on the RNA polymerase called the rudder?
A)It provides the energy required for formation of phosphodiester bonds in the elongation RNA molecule.
B)It helps unwind and open the DNA molecule.
C)It moves template and non-template strands of DNA through channels inside the enzyme.
D)It helps sigma bind to the RNA polymerase molecule.
Q3) What is the function of the 3 end of the tRNA?
A)It attaches to the amino acid.
B)It base pairs with the codon of mRNA.
C)It stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex.
D)It is the active site of this ribozyme.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A distinct part of a protein that often has a distinct function is a A)substrate.
B)domain.
C)primary structure.
D)footprint.
Q2) If the genetically engineered albino mice were given no special treatment,how would the tyrosinase gene be expressed?
A)It would not be transcribed.
B)It would be transcribed to a moderate level.
C)It would be transcribed to a high level.
Q3) Imagine that you've run a DNA footprinting analysis.Many closely spaced bands (DNA fragments)are seen in the lane of the gel prepared from DNA without protein.In the adjacent lane prepared from DNA mixed with protein,a subset of the bands is seen,but there is a large region where no bands are observed.This empty region represents
A)the region where protein did not bind to DNA.
B)the region where protein bound to DNA.
C)a region where there was no DNA for protein binding.
D)a region where protein was digested by the enzyme.
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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) If the DNA sequences of a particular gene in a skin cell and a liver cell were compared,there would be
A)no differences.
B)a small number of differences.
C)a very large number of differences.
D)so many differences that it would be impossible to identify corresponding genes in skin and liver cells.
Q2) Gene expression is often assayed by measuring the level of mRNA produced from a gene.If one is interested in knowing the amount of a final active gene product,a potential problem of this method is that it ignores the possibility of
A)chromatin condensation control.
B)transcriptional control.
C)alternative splicing.
D)translational control.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since dideoxy sequencing is based on the chain termination,why are normal deoxynucleotides also included in the reaction?
A)to enhance the chain termination ability of the deoxynucleotides
B)to provide a substrate for DNA polymerase
C)to produce a range of DNA synthesis products that terminate at every occurrence of a particular base
D)to create DNA synthesis products long enough to allow running a gel
Q2) To create a viral vector for delivery of genes into mammalian cells,the virus must be engineered to
A)remove viral coat proteins.
B)remove all viral genes,replacing them with the mammalian genes to be delivered.
C)remove viral genes involved with virus replication and add mammalian genes to be delivered.
D)remove the viral genome and coat proteins and replace them with recombinant plasmids carrying the mammalian genes to be delivered.
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21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) LINES transposable elements are closely related to A)plasmids.
B)retroviruses.
C)poliovirus.
D)restriction enzymes.
E)DNA polymerase.
Q2) Mutations that occur in one member of a gene pair that arose from genes duplication may create
A)a pseudogene.
B)a gene with a new function.
C)a gene family with two distinct but related members.
D)A and B only.
E)all of the above.
Q3) What is the main goal of obtaining a detailed human haplotype map?
A)to develop more effective vaccines
B)to locate introns
C)to locate regulatory elements
D)to locate genes associated with disease
E)to locate virulence genes
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose you found several Drosophila mutants that possessed additional legs growing out of the head segments.The probable mutation would be found in
A)segment-polarity genes.
B)gap genes.
C)pair-rule genes.
D)homeotic genes.
Q2) Suppose there was a mutation in the segment-polarity genes of Drosophila.What do you suppose might be the outcome?
A)Several segments of the embryo will be missing.
B)Every other segment of the embryo will be missing.
C)Legs will appear in the place of antennae.
D)Antennae will appear in a different part of their usual segment.
Q3) One form of programmed cell death is apoptosis.In which developmental situation would you predict apoptosis would NOT play a major role?
A)growth of nerves and blood vessels into a body segment
B)sculpting of digits in the developing hindlimb
C)growth of the atrial septum in the four-chambered mammalian heart
D)disappearance of the embryonic tail in developing humans
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Page 23
Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) In Xenopus embryos,which developmental sequence is correct?
A)neurula,blastula,gastrula,cleavage
B)cleavage,neurula,gastrula,blastula
C)gastrula,neurula,cleavage,blastula
D)cleavage,blastula,gastrula,neurula
E)cleavage,gastrula,blastula,neurula
Q2) Cytoplasmic contents in the fertilized egg move along microtubule networks.What kinds of proteins would you predict would facilitate these movements?
A)enzymes
B)kinesins
C)tubulins
D)keratins
E)collagens
Q3) During organogenesis,the first organ system to begin forming in animal embryos is
A)the digestive system.
B)the nervous system.
C)the endocrine system.
D)the circulatory system.
E)the excretory system.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) Which of the following is correct regarding sperm cell development in Arabidopsis?
A)Sperm are produced by mitotic division of a haploid cell within the pollen grain.
B)Sperm are produced by meiotic divisions of a diploid cell within the male plant.
C)Sperm are produced by meiotic divisions of a haploid cell within a pollen grain on the male plant.
D)Sperm are produced by mitotic divisions of a diploid cell once the pollen has landed on the stigma.
Q2) In their study of the Madagascar lace plant,how did the researchers establish that the holes were formed through programmed cell death?
A)They tested for apoptosis using the TUNEL assay.
B)They found suberin around the margins of the holes.
C)They found no nutrients in the cells forming the hole.
D)They tested for a waxy substance that triggered programmed cell death.
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) Which of the following scientists argued that variation among individuals allows evolution to occur?
A)Aristotle
B)Lamarck
C)Linnaeus
D)Wallace
Q2) Who proposed that organisms could be organized into a great chain of being?
A)Aristotle
B)Lamarck
C)Linnaeus
D)Darwin
E)Wallace
Q3) Parasitic species tend to have simple morphologies.Which of the following statements best explains this observation?
A)Parasites are lower organisms,and this is why they have simple morphologies.
B)Parasites do not live long enough to inherit acquired characteristics.
C)Simple morphologies have been naturally selected for in most parasites.
D)Parasites have not yet had time to progress,because they are young evolutionarily.
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in homozygous recessives (ff)that typically causes death in the early 30s.Over time,we would expect the f allele frequency to ________ for this trait.
A)remain the same
B)increase
C)decrease
D)fluctuate
Q2) In a population of parrots on an island,there is considerable variation in beak size.Parrots with small,thick beaks can efficiently eat locusts (insect),while birds with long,thin beaks can efficiently eat beetles.Both food types are available on the island.Which of the following types of selection,and effects on phenotypic variation would you expect to see?
A)Directional selection;phenotypic variation decreases.
B)Directional selection;phenotypic variation increases.
C)Disruptive selection;phenotypic variation decreases.
D)Disruptive selection;phenotypic variation is maintained.
E)Directional selection;phenotypic variation remains the same.
Q3) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) Most causes of speciation are relatively slow,in that they may take many generations of organism to see changes,except
A)polyploidy.
B)vicariance.
C)colonization.
D)natural selection.
Q2) Refer to Figure 26.1.Which of the following forms a monophyletic group?
A)A,B,C,D
B)C and D
C)D,E,and F
D)E,F,and G
E)all of the above
Q3) Two species of tree frogs that live sympatrically in the northeastern United States differ in ploidy: Hyla chrysocelis is diploid,and Hyla versicolor is tetraploid.The frogs are identical in appearance,but their mating calls,which females use to find mates,differ.Which difference most likely evolved first?
A)polyploidy
B)difference in mating calls
C)A and B must have occurred at the same time.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) You know that a particular stretch of DNA changes at the rate of 1 base per 10 million years.You sequence this length of DNA in two species and find that they differ by 4 bases: AATGCGATCG and AATGTTATGC.Based on these data,how long has it been since these two species diverged? (Hint: Ancestral sequence is AATGCTATGG.)
A)10 million years
B)20 million years
C)40 million years
D)100 million years
Q2) What does the circled part of the phylogenetic tree above indicate?
A)an adaptive radiation
B)a mass extinction event
C)rapid speciation
D)A and C
E)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to fossilize?
A)a rare worm
B)a common worm
C)a rare squirrel
D)a common squirrel
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) What is the goal of bioremediation?
A)Improve human health with the help of living organisms such as bacteria.
B)Clean up areas polluted with toxic compounds by using bacteria.
C)Improve soil quality for plant growth by using bacteria.
D)Improve bacteria for production of useful chemicals.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) What is the major goal of cellular respiration?
A)reduce an electron acceptor molecule
B)supply cell with fixed carbon
C)produce ATP
D)generate O
E)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) What experiment can distinguish between high-GC Gram-positive bacteria and low-GC Gram-positive bacteria?
A)analysis of cell shape
B)Gram-staining test
C)DNA analysis
D)analysis of metabolic pathways
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30
Chapter 29: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A particular species of protist lacks the ability to engulf food and does not contain chloroplasts.However,gene sequencing data indicate that this species evolved from a lineage containing many species with the ability to engulf food.What does this information suggest about this species of protist?
A)It probably reproduces asexually.
B)It is likely parasitic.
C)It is likely aquatic.
D)It probably eats bacteria.
Q2) Imagine there are 25 different species of protists living in a tide pool.Some of these species reproduce both sexually and asexually,and some of them can reproduce only asexually.The pool gradually becomes infested with disease-causing viruses and bacteria.Which species are more likely to thrive in the changing environment?
A)the sexually reproducing species
B)the asexually reproducing species
Q3) How are algal blooms (red tides)typically harmful to humans?
A)The blooms destroy shellfish and other food sources for humans.
B)Shellfish eat the harmful algae,and humans eat the contaminated shellfish.
C)Humans can become poisoned when swimming in contaminated water.
D)All of the above answers apply.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants
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Q1) Conifers and pines both have needlelike leaves.Why might their leaves be of this type?
A)to increase surface area for photosynthesis
B)to increase surface area for gas exchange
C)to decease surface area for gas exchange
D)to decrease surface area for water loss
Q2) The most direct ancestors of land plants were probably
A)any of the green algae that live in water.
B)certain groups of algae.
C)photosynthesizing prokaryotes (cyanobacteria).
D)liverworts and mosses.
Q3) Which of the following have biologists used in an attempt to understand the phylogenetic relationships among organisms?
A)examined the fossil record
B)compared morphological features
C)examined similarities and differences in DNA sequences of homologous genes
D)all of the above
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32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Based on the van der Heijden et al.(1998)graphs in Figure 31.4,which of the following is the best description of the data supporting the idea that a plant species did not form mycorrhizae with a fungus?
A)Its biomass is greatest when no AMF are present.
B)Its biomass is greatest when AM fungus A is present.
C)Its biomass is greatest when AM fungus B is present.
D)Its biomass is greatest when AM fungus C is present.
E)Its biomass is greatest when all AMF are present.
Q2) The fungi that we commonly know as mushrooms produce which of the following reproductive structures?
A)basidia
B)zygosporangium
C)chytrids
D)asci
Q3) Looking at Figure 31.1,draw a new graph that plots the percentage of plant species in the fossil pollen and spore record,and write a figure legend comparing it to the original figure.
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) Which of the following groups of terms best describes the acoelomorpha?
A)diploblastic;bilaterally symmetric;complex digestive tracts;mobile
B)triploblastic;radially symmetric;simple digestive tracts;mobile
C)triploblastic;bilaterally symmetric;simple digestive tracts;mobile
D)triploblastic;radially symmetric;simple digestive tracts;immobile
Q2) As you are on the way to Tahiti for a vacation,your plane crash-lands on a previously undiscovered island.You soon find that the island is teeming with unfamiliar organisms and,as a student of biology,you decide to survey them (with the aid of the Insta-Lab Portable Laboratory you brought along in your suitcase).You select three organisms and observe them in detail,making the notations found in Figure 32.1. Which organism would you classify as an animal?
A)organism A
B)organism B
C)organism C
Q3) If humans were characterized as undergoing metamorphosis,infant humans would be described as A)nymphs. B)larvae.
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) How could you tell a millipede apart from a centipede?
A)Millipedes have 1000 legs each,while centipedes have 100 legs each.
B)Millipedes have two pairs of legs per body segment,while centipedes have one.
C)Millipedes catch prey using poison,while centipedes are detritivores.
D)Millipedes bear live young,while centipedes lay eggs.
E)None of the above answers is correct.
Q2) Among protostomes,which morphological trait has shown the most diversity?
A)type of symmetry (bilateral vs.radial vs.none)
B)type of body cavity (coelom vs.pseudocoelom vs.acoelom)
C)number of embryonic tissue types (diploblasty vs.triploblasty)
D)direction of gastrulation (protostome vs.deuterostome)
Q3) What do all the Lophotrochozoa phyla discussed in the text have in common?
A)They feed using lophophores,specialized ciliated structures.
B)They have trochophore larvae,which swim with the aid of a ring of cilia.
C)They have members that reproduce sexually and members that reproduce asexually.
D)They expand their bodies continuously during growth.
E)None of the above answers is correct.
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Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is found in tetrapods and not in fish?
A)extensive parental care
B)asexual reproduction
C)internal fertilization
D)viviparity
E)production of amniotic eggs
Q2) Which of the following groups is classified as Homo sapiens?
A)Neanderthals
B)Cro-Magnons
C)Paranthropus
D)Australopithecus
E)None of the above
Q3) The hypothesis that birds evolved from dinosaurs is potentially confusing because dinosaurs-at least the ones thought to be the ancestors of birds-did not fly.Why do biologists still hold to this hypothesis despite this point?
A)Feathers in dinosaurs are believed to have served as insulation.
B)Dinosaurs may have used feathers to attract mates.
C)Dinosaurs may have used feathers as an aggressive display to ward off enemies.
D)All of the above are supporting evidence for this hypothesis.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) If you were trying to create an attenuated virus in order to develop a vaccine,which of the following strategies might you use?
A)Isolate the virus and inject it directly into a person.
B)Isolate the virus,destroy it with UV light,and inject it into a person.
C)Isolate the virus,expose it to a culture of bovine cells for several generations,and inject the live virus into a person.
D)Use mechanical forces to break the virus into smaller pieces,then inject these pieces into a person.
Q2) The European spruce sawflies pose a potential threat to spruce forests.In order for the Baculoviruses to kill the larva,which of the following must occur first?
A)The viral polyhedra,must be digested to release viral particles.
B)Viral polyhedra must fuse with intestinal cells.
C)Viral particles must enter into the host's nucleus for transcription and replication.
D)Viral particles must be digested by gut proteases.
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Imagine that you bought three identical young tomato plants.One you put to grow in the sunny location in tranquil part of your garden,one on the windy and sunny hill nearby,and one in the shady part of the garden.How these plants will look in two months' time?
A)The first one will be a medium size,the second one will be short with small leaves,and the third one will be spindly with big leaves.
B)The first one will be short with small leaves,the second one will be a medium size,and the third one will be spindly with big leaves.
C)The first one will be spindly with big leaves,the second one will be short with small leaves,and the third one will be a medium size.
D)The first one will be a medium size,the second one will be spindly with big leaves,and the third one will be short with small leaves.
E)The plants will be indistinguishable because they were identical when planted.
Q2) In a meristematic region,the cell plate during mitosis is perpendicular to the side of the stem.In what direction will the stem grow?
A)laterally in width
B)vertically in height
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Most biologists consider loss of water from plant tissues to be a negative thing,and,in fact,many plants have features that reduce water loss.Yet,plants still transpire.Which of the following is the least likely explanation for the fact that plants continue to transpire?
A)Transpiration drives water flow through the plant,which is necessary for uptake and distribution of essential nutrients.
B)Transpiration must be occurring for photosynthesis to take place.
C)It is difficult to produce a means of gas exchange that doesn't also allow water loss.
D)Evaporative cooling during transpiration may help prevent leaves from overheating.
Q2) Water potential of plants during night is ________ compared to day water potential due to ________.
A)increased;open stomata
B)increased;closed stomata
C)decreased;open stomata
D)decreased;closed stomata
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most energy-demanding process?
A)reduction of N to NH
B)reduction of NO to NH
C)nitrification of NH to NO
D)nitrification of NO to NO
E)denitrification of NO to N
Q2) Why do plants use cotransporters instead of ion channels to transfer anions into cells?
A)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the membrane potential gradient,but ion channels cannot.
B)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the concentration gradient,but ion channels cannot.
C)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the proton gradient,but ion channels cannot.
D)Anions are too bulky to be transported by ion channels.
Q3) What kind of climate is most often associated with epiphytic plants?
A)warm
B)humid
C)sunny
D)all of the above
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) Suppose you laid a seedling on its side so that the root was parallel to the ground.Several hours after the change in position,where in the root cells (position A,B,or C in the figure above)would you find the amyloplasts?
A)A
B)B
C)C
Q2) Why does auxin move through the plant slower than sucrose does?
A)Auxin transport is active (requires energy)while sucrose transport is passive.
B)Auxin is transported by diffusion while cotransporters are involved in sucrose transport.
C)Auxin transport through phloem is slower than sucrose transport through parenchyma cells.
D)Auxin transport through parenchyma cells is slower than sucrose transport through phloem.
E)Both auxin and sucrose are transported through phloem and parenchyma cells,but auxin is a bigger molecule and moves slower by diffusion.
Q3) Plant C is a long-day plant.
A)true
B)false
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) Plants in crop fields such as corn are genetically very similar.What are benefits of this phenomenon? What are pitfalls of that phenomenon?
Q2) To conclude that the Clark's nutcracker is a mutualistic seed disperser,not just a predator,you would need to determine that
A)if the birds are not present,whitebark pine cannot spread. B)the birds eat all the seeds they cache.
C)seeds in the caches can germinate to produce seedlings. D)bears and squirrels do not eat any of the seeds.
Q3) The flowering hormone is made in ________ and alters development of ________.
A)flowers;leaves
B)flowers;root meristem
C)leaves;apical meristem
D)leaves;flowers
E)roots;flowers
Q4) Gardeners purchase packets of seeds that are put in the ground and germinate.Native plant seeds usually need a scarification treatment or a real or simulated winter (stratification),some seeds need light,and others need a smoke treatment.What do these adaptations to the environmental conditions reveal about where the plants grow?
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Epithelial cells have multiple functions.They may have different structures on one of their surfaces compared to their opposite surface.What property of these cells allows them to undergo these various functions?
A)Epithelial cells are polar.
B)Epithelial cells have an apical membrane and a basolateral membrane.
C)Epithelial cells have different proteins in different parts of their cell membrane.
D)Only A and B are true.
E)A,B,and C are all true.
Q2) Gills serve multiple functions in fish in addition to gas exchange.Given the large surface area of gills with lamellae,what is the most likely explanation for why crucian carp cover protruding lamellae in their gills when levels of oxygen are normal?
A)to prevent loss of heat to the surrounding water
B)to prevent loss of ions to the surrounding water
C)to prevent protein loss to the surrounding water
D)to prevent loss of oxygen to the surrounding water
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43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The functional unit of the kidney is
A)the renal corpuscle.
B)the nephron.
C)the loop of Henle.
D)the ureters.
Q2) Paramecia live in pond water (a hypotonic environment).They have a structural feature,a contractile vacuole,that enables them to osmoregulate.If you observed paramecia in the following solutions,at which sucrose concentration would you expect the contractile vacuole to be most active?
A)0)0 mM sucrose
B)0)05 mM saline
C)0)08 mM sucrose
D)1)0 mM saline
Q3) Which of the following is an example of osmoregulation?
A)two solutions that are isotonic
B)the contractile vacuole of a Paramecium
C)type 2 diabetes mellitus
D)all of the above
Q4) Where does filtration take place in the figure above?
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) Which of the following is a major function of the small intestine?
A)to initiate protein digestion
B)to absorb the end-products of digestion
C)to produce and release bile to aid in fat absorption
D)to store bile
Q2) The stomach releases hydrochloric acid to create an acidic environment.Which cells release acid?
A)goblet cells
B)chief cells
C)parietal cells
D)smooth muscle cells
Q3) Which of the following words best completes this sentence? The human body cannot ________ essential nutrients.
A)excrete
B)make
C)secrete
D)absorb
Q4) Refer to Figure 43.1.Which of the mouthparts shown in the figure above are specialized for crushing and grinding?
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) Which of the following result,either directly or indirectly,when carbonic anhydrase is functioning properly?
A)The amount of oxygen released by hemoglobin decreases.
B)The amount of carbon dioxide diffusing into red blood cells increases.
C)The pH of capillary blood decreases.
D)Only A and B are true.
E)Only B and C are true.
Q2) A rabbit taken from a meadow near sea level and moved to a meadow high on a mountainside would have some trouble breathing.Why?
A)The percentage of oxygen in the air at high elevations is lower than at sea level.
B)The percentage of oxygen in the air at high elevations is higher than at sea level.
C)The partial pressure of oxygen in the air at high elevations is lower than at sea level.
D)The partial pressure of oxygen in the air at high elevations is higher than at sea level.
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (Ach).What would you expect to happen if the acetylcholine is released in high concentrations and is not properly degraded after it binds the receptor on the postsynaptic membrane?
A)paralysis of muscle tissue
B)gradual loss of resting potential
C)convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation
D)decrease in the frequency of action potentials
E)no effect
Q2) Which letter on Figure 45.1 corresponds to a large influx of Na ions into the cell?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) If an action potential is triggered in a neuron,what must have happened?
A)resting potential was reached
B)threshold potential was reached
C)membrane potential was reached
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) You have a baby that does not seem to respond to sound.Upon thorough investigation by the doctor,there is nothing visibly wrong with the baby's ears.What internal issue may there be that is causing hearing impairment in your baby?
A)The stereocilia within the middle ear are malformed so sound is not transmitted from the outer ear to the inner ear.
B)The auditory ossicles within the inner ear are not transmitting the sound waves properly because the first and second ossicles broke apart.
C)The stereocilia within the cochlea are malformed,causing them not to bend properly in response to vibrations of the cochlear membranes caused by different sound frequencies.
Q2) Pit vipers can detect and strike in complete darkness because of their ability to detect
A)infrared wavelengths.
B)ultraviolet wavelengths.
C)rapid movements.
D)odors at extremely low concentration.
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) A cluster of tumor cells that produces and secretes growth factors to induce surrounding cells to grow and divide are showing which type of cell-to-cell signalling?
A)autocrine
B)paracrine
C)endocrine
D)neuroendocrine
Q2) What changes might you predict/expect if a mutation caused a change in the timing of juvenile hormone,such that it remained high throughout the lifetime of the organism?
A)The organism would undergo metamorphosis at an earlier time.
B)The organism would maintain its juvenile state for the remainder of its life.
C)The organism would mature reproductively.
D)The organism would form structures that allowed it to respond to stress.
Q3) Removing which of the following glands would have the most wide-reaching effect on bodily functions of an adult human?
A)adrenal glands
B)pituitary gland
C)thyroid gland
D)ovaries (in female)or testes (in male)
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) What is the most likely reason the 1.5-mm body of Drosophila bifurca has sperm that are 6 cm long?
A)The female's vaginal cavity is very deep and has a convoluted pathway.
B)The male has no penis-just an opening-and the sperm must create its own connection from the male opening to the female vagina.
C)The egg of this species is highly resistant to penetration,and the longer sperm stores sufficient energy to burrow through the egg wall.
D)The sperm can fill the female's sperm storage area,thus blocking competing male sperm.
Q2) Which one of the following criteria is not required to induce Daphnia to switch from asexual to sexual reproduction?
A)water from crowded populations of Daphnia
B)the absence of males in the population
C)short day lengths
D)low food supply
Q3) All vertebrates rely exclusively on sexual reproduction.
A)true
B)false
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Lymphocytes are formed in what organ(s)?
A)spleen
B)thymus
C)bone marrow
D)both A and C
E)both B and C
Q2) Which of the following is true of the allergic response?
A)Sufferers produce the IgE class of gamma globulins in response to allergens.
B)Upon the very first exposure to an allergen,an allergy sufferer will probably experience a runny nose,watery eyes,and mild wheezing.
C)It is a normal,healthy,adaptive response to an allergen.
D)All of the above answers are true.
Q3) If you were developing artificial B-cell receptors (BCRs)based on the natural version and wanted to change the BCRs' ability to bind certain antigens,which region of the natural receptor would you alter?
A)transmembrane domain
B)amino terminus of light and heavy chains
C)carboxy terminus of light and heavy chains
D)the region projecting into the cytoplasm of the cell
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Page 51
Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) Besides sunlight,which would be the next most important climatic factors for plants?
A)wind and fire
B)moisture and wind
C)temperature and wind
D)temperature and moisture
Q2) Based on the figure above,and knowing what you know about cattle,what is the most logical conclusion?
A)Cattle distribution is primarily affected by temperature.
B)Tsetse flies somehow negatively affect cattle.
C)Cattle distribution is primarily affected by grass distribution.
D)Cattle somehow affect the reproduction of the tsetse fly.
Q3) Which of the following is not a biotic component of a burrow community?
A)the different species living in the burrow
B)the population of each species in the burrow
C)the air quality of the burrow
D)the food sources in the burrow
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Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following statements about imprinting is FALSE?
A)Imprinting only occurs during a critical period.
B)Imprinting is fast and irreversible.
C)Imprinting only occurs on a specific color/shape.
D)Imprinting is a type of learning.
Q2) You observe scrub jays hiding food and notice that one particular individual only pretends to hide food.What kind of experiment could you perform to test whether this was random or in response to another signal?
A)Observe more of these behaviors in the wild and try to determine if the behaviour is random.
B)Hypothesize a set of signals that could produce this behavior and try to match the behaviours with the signals.
C)Attempt to reproduce the behaviour in captivity by using bird models and a computer simulation.
D)All of the above would be excellent experiments.
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Questions
Q1) Looking at the data in the figure above from the hare/lynx experiment,what conclusion can you draw?
A)Hares control lynx population size.
B)Lynx control hare population size.
C)Lynx and hare populations are independent of each other.
D)Hare populations are limited by both predation and food availability.
Q2) In the figure above,which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity?
A)arrow A
B)arrow B
C)arrow C
Q3) What is Earth's carrying capacity?
A)2 billion
B)6 billion
C)over 1 trillion
D)Earth's carrying capacity is what we decide it will be.
Q4) Which statement about K is false?
A)K varies among populations.
B)K varies in space.
C)K varies in time.
D)K is specific for a given species.
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Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) According to Figure 53.11,a species has the highest chance of extinction when
A)the island is large and close to the mainland.
B)the island is small and close to the mainland.
C)the island is large and remote.
D)the island is small and remote.
Q2) Which are the only two interaction types to depend on density and effective defense to determine the short-term impact?
A)competition and consumption
B)consumption and parasitism
C)parasitism and mutualism
D)mutualism and commensalism
Q3) During succession,tall canopies of maple trees form allowing chipmunks to be better hidden against hawks.This is an example of A)interaction.
B)tolerance.
C)inhibition.
D)facilitation.
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) After looking at the experiment in the figure above,what can be said about productivity in marine ecosystems?
A)Nothing can be said based on this information.
B)Marine organisms break down iron for energy and thus for productivity.
C)Iron can be a limiting nutrient in productivity.
D)Productivity increases when chlorophyll a is added.
Q2) Which habitat type in the figure above covers the largest area on Earth?
A)tropical wet forest
B)open ocean
C)algal beds and reefs
D)wetlands
Q3) Which of the following could be a cause of eutrophication?
A)adding a large amount of a limiting resource to an aquatic ecosystem
B)adding a large amount of a limiting resource to a terrestrial ecosystem
C)removing a limiting resource from an aquatic ecosystem
D)removing a limiting resource from a terrestrial ecosystem
Q4) How are the components in the figure above linked by the flow of energy?
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26886
Sample Questions
Q1) On Easter Island,data show that it was once covered by massive palm trees.How can an ecosystem collapse from removal of just one species of large tree?
A)Without large trees,soil erosion increases and reduces productivity.
B)Species of plants needing shade no longer have it.
C)Large trees are habitats for many species.
D)Humans use the trees as a resource.
E)All of the above apply.
Q2) According to the figure above,what is the least likely explanation for the data after 1985?
A)emigration
B)immigration
C)introduction of new individuals to the population
D)increased resources in the area
Q3) Upon looking at Figure 55.3 regarding Tilman's experiments,what can you conclude about the data?
A)As species richness changes,plant biomass remains consistent.
B)As species richness increases,plant biomass increases.
C)As species richness increases,plant biomass increases and then levels off.
D)As species richness decreases,plant biomass increases.
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