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First Responder Training Final Exam Questions - 1984 Verified Questions

Page 1


First Responder Training Final

Exam Questions

Course Introduction

First Responder Training equips students with the essential knowledge and practical skills needed to effectively respond to emergency situations before professional medical help arrives. The course covers fundamental principles of emergency care, including scene safety, patient assessment, basic life support, bleeding control, trauma management, and the use of automated external defibrillators (AEDs). Through a combination of classroom instruction, hands-on practice, and scenario-based simulations, participants gain confidence in providing vital assistance during medical emergencies, accidents, or natural disasters. This course is ideal for individuals seeking to serve as first responders in their communities or occupational settings and fulfills prerequisites for more advanced emergency medical training.

Recommended Textbook

Emergency Care 13th Edition by Daniel J. Limmer

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39 Chapters

1984 Verified Questions

1984 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1614

Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Emergency Medical Care

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32036

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate?

A) Self-starter

B) Strong student

C) Strong communication

D) Good eyesight

Answer: A

Q2) You and your new EMT partner arrive first on the scene of a single car rollover on the shoulder of a busy highway.You pull off in a safe location and just as you stop the ambulance,your partner throws the passenger door open,steps out of the truck,and begins jogging through the scattered debris toward the overturned car.You shout for him to stop and he looks back at you,but then continues to the vehicle and begins assessing the driver.Later,as you are restocking in the ambulance bay of the local trauma center your partner tells you that he thinks you acted unprofessionally by shouting at him.What is the best way to respond?

A) Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene.

B) New EMTs should expect partners to yell at them occasionally.

C) The On-Duty Supervisor should be called.

D) An EMT should never hurry to assist a patient.

Answer: A

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Page 3

Chapter 2: The Well-Being of the Emt

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62 Verified Questions

62 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis (TB)?

A) The incubation period of TB is from 1 to 7 days.

B) TB is not spread through surface contamination.

C) The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue.

D) A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure.

Answer: D

Q2) What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis A?

A) Respiratory droplet

B) Unprotected sex

C) Fecal-oral

D) Bloodborne

Answer: C

Q3) What is the EMT's highest priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?

A) Personal safety

B) Identification of hazardous materials

C) Patient care

D) Safety of bystanders

Answer: A

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Lifting and Moving Patients

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43 Verified Questions

43 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct when performing a log roll?

A) Keep your back straight.

B) Lean forward from the hips.

C) Use your shoulder muscles.

D) Place both feet flat on the ground.

Answer: D

Q2) Stretchers that are designed to carry obese patients weighing up to 800 pounds (or more)are called:

A) battery-powered stretchers.

B) wheeled stretchers.

C) hydraulic stretchers.

D) bariatric stretchers.

Answer: D

Q3) What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair chair?

A) Two: one in front and one in back

B) Only one with the track-like chair

C) Four: one for each corner of the device

D) Three: two lifting and one spotting

Answer: D

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Medicallegal and Ethical Issues

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30 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house.Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment?

A) Act on implied consent.

B) Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene.

C) Call the patient's mother at work.

D) Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.

Q2) The EMT's obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the following?

A) Legal responsibility

B) Scope of practice

C) Duty to act

D) Standard of care

Q3) Which of the following is the EMT's primary responsibility at a secured crime scene?

A) Identifying any potential suspects encountered at the scene

B) Providing patient care

C) Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony

D) Preserving evidence

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6

Chapter 5: Medical Terminology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are the abdominal regions created by drawing two imaginary lines intersecting at the navel?

A) Abdominal quadrants

B) Abdominal planes

C) Abdominal regions

D) Abdominal sextants

Q2) The term lateral is best defined as:

A) under the arms.

B) toward the middle of.

C) to the back of.

D) to the side.

Q3) A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following?

A) Two fractures in the same femur

B) A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma

C) A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh

D) Fractures of both femurs

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Chapter 6: Anatomy and Physiology

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The two major portions of the skull are the:

A) atlas and axis.

B) manubrium and mandible.

C) cranium and face.

D) frontal bone and ilium.

Q2) Failure of the liver would result in which of the following?

A) Inability to filter out old and damaged blood cells

B) Inability to secrete insulin

C) Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream

D) None of the above

Q3) You are caring for a 47-year-old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a myocardial infarction.Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system,you know he could be suffering from damage,narrowing,or blockage of what arteries?

A) Pulmonary arteries

B) Coronary arteries

C) Brachial arteries

D) Femoral arteries

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Chapter 7: Ventilation, perfusion, and Shock: Understanding Pathophysiology

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65 Verified Questions

65 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Janie is having difficulty breathing.Her current tidal volume is 350 mL,and she is breathing at 28 times per minute.What would be her minute volume?

A) 9,800 mL

B) 12.5 mL

C) 342 mL

D) 378 mL

Q2) You and your EMT partner respond to a local shipping warehouse for a worker who was hit by a falling crate.Upon arrival,you find the man lying on the concrete floor of the facility,alert and oriented but unable to move or even feel his legs below the waist.Based on the mechanism of injury and the symptoms,which of the patient's body systems would you suspect has been impaired?

A) Endocrine system

B) Nervous system

C) Cardiopulmonary system

D) Immune system

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Chapter 8: Life Span Development

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26 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is a normal heart rate for a school age child?

A) 140-160/minute

B) 80-130/minute

C) 80-120/minute

D) 70-110/minute

Q2) When you startle a 4-month-old,he throws his arms out,spreads his fingers,then grabs with his fingers and arms.The reaction is known as the:

A) rooting reflex.

B) startle reflex.

C) Moro reflex.

D) scaffolding reflex.

Q3) At which of the following stages is toilet-training most likely to begin?

A) Preschool age

B) Infant

C) Toddler

D) School age

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Chapter 9: Airway Management

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23 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient is breathing 4 shallow breaths per minute due to overdosing on his pain medication but he has a palpable radial pulse.He vomited prior to your arrival and is choking.You should:

A) insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate.

B) roll him over onto his side to clear the airway.

C) perform chest thrusts to clear the lungs.

D) move the patient to the ambulance and suction.

Q2) What is the danger that an altered mental status can pose to a patient's breathing?

A) Depressed alveolar function

B) Loss of muscle tone and airway collapse

C) Bronchospasms

D) Hyperoxia

Q3) You are ventilating an 85-year-old male without difficulty.A nurse tells you that the patient has dentures.To ensure a good mask seal,you should:

A) tape the dentures in place.

B) remove the dentures.

C) leave the dentures in place.

D) use an infant mask over the nose.

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11

Chapter 10: Respiration and Artificial Ventilation

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45 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) What device is used to perform mouth-to-mask ventilation?

A) Pocket face mask

B) Bag-valve mask

C) Stoma

D) Automatic transport ventilator

Q2) You have arrived at the scene of a call for a "man down." As you enter the residence you note that your patient is a male in his mid-60s who is awake but does not seem to acknowledge your presence.He is perspiring profusely,has cyanosis of his ears and lips,and has rapid,shallow respirations.Which of the following should you do first?

A) Check for a radial pulse.

B) Obtain the patient's medical history.

C) Listen to his lung sounds.

D) Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen.

Q3) Which of the following is the best device to deliver high-concentration oxygen to a breathing patient?

A) Simple face mask

B) Nonrebreather mask

C) Nasal cannula

D) Oropharyngeal airway

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Scene Size-Up

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) At which of the following points should you begin your scene size-up?

A) After exiting the ambulance, but before making patient contact

B) When you arrive on the scene, but before exiting the ambulance

C) As you approach the scene in the ambulance

D) When the patient or family member opens the door to the residence

Q2) In which of the following situations should the EMT consult the Emergency Response Guidebook?

A) Chlorine gas leak at a public swimming pool

B) Domestic disturbance with the potential for violence

C) Patient with a suspected infectious disease

D) Downed power lines at the scene of a vehicle collision

Q3) When determining possible injuries suffered from a gunshot wound,which of the following is true?

A) The EMT must ask the patient or bystanders exactly where the shooter was standing.

B) Bullets pass in a straight line through the body from the point of entry to the exit wound.

C) The EMT must determine the caliber of ammunition involved.

D) The EMT must be aware that bullets cause damage in more than one way.

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Chapter 12: The Primary Assessment

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44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following represents the correct order of assessment for the EMT during the primary assessment from start to end?

A) General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority

B) Mental status, general impression, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority

C) Patient priority, general impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation

D) None of the above

Q2) You are approaching a 16-year-old male with bright red spurting blood coming from his leg.He is screaming,and he begs you to help him.You should:

A) control the bleeding.

B) ask him to calm down.

C) assess his airway.

D) apply oxygen.

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14

Chapter 13: Vital Signs and Monitoring Devices

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The term cyanosis is used when the patient's skin color is noted to be which of the following characteristics?

A) Yellow

B) Blue-gray

C) Very pale

D) Flushed

Q2) Which of the following is a normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest?

A) 12 breaths per minute

B) 10 breaths per minute

C) 24 breaths per minute

D) 22 breaths per minute

Q3) The range of normal blood glucose level is from a low of 60 to 80 mg/dL to a high of:

A) 110 to 130.

B) 100 to 120.

C) 90 to 100.

D) 120 to 140.

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Chapter 14: The Secondary Assessment

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101 Verified Questions

101 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient is a 23-year-old male with a stab wound to the abdomen.You have bandaged the wound and are transporting the patient to a trauma center.During your reassessment,you note that the bandage has become soaked with blood.What should your priority be with this patient?

A) Notify the receiving facility that the patient has developed arterial bleeding.

B) Control the bleeding.

C) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position.

D) Check the patient's blood pressure.

Q2) Under what circumstance should a reassessment NOT be performed?

A) The patient is being transported to a hospital close to his home.

B) Ongoing lifesaving interventions are required.

C) The patient has life-threatening injuries.

D) The patient does not receive a secondary assessment.

Q3) On which of the following patients should a reassessment be performed?

A) All patients should be reassessed

B) Patient with chest pain

C) Patient with a gunshot wound

D) Patient having difficulty breathing

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Chapter 15: Communication and Documentation

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61 Verified Questions

61 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate use of patient care report (PCR)information?

A) To conduct research

B) To provide EMS personnel with education and quality assurance

C) For billing and insurance purposes

D) For referral to Alcoholics Anonymous or similar social services

Q2) Which of the following BEST describes a base station?

A) A two-way radio at a fixed site

B) A device used to receive and then amplify transmissions that must be carried over long distances

C) A two-way radio mounted in a vehicle

D) A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip

Q3) You have an urgent transmission you need to make to the dispatch center.Which of the following is the appropriate way to communicate this?

A) Interrupt less urgent radio traffic to get your message across.

B) Speak loudly to convey the urgency of the message.

C) Listen to the frequency first to avoid stepping on another transmission.

D) Use the phrase, "Attention, attention, I have priority traffic."

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17

Chapter 16: General Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are on the scene of a 48-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain.He has nitroglycerin prescribed and available.After performing your physical examination,you contact medical control and are ordered to assist the patient in taking his nitroglycerin.Five minutes after taking his nitroglycerin,the patient complains of being dizzy and having a headache.You lie the patient down on the stretcher and reassess his vital signs.He is now hypotensive.The patient is suffering from:

A) an allergic reaction to nitroglycerin.

B) an anaphylactic reaction to nitroglycerin.

C) an untoward reaction to nitroglycerin.

D) the side effects of nitroglycerin.

Q2) How is activated charcoal,which is carried by some EMS systems,supplied for use in emergency situations?

A) As a powder, which is mixed with water before administration

B) As a gel or paste

C) As tablets

D) As a fine liquid spray for inhalation

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18

Chapter 17: Respiratory Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) The EMTs should provide patients with viral respiratory infections:

A) antibiotics.

B) oxygen.

C) a prescribed inhaler.

D) a small-volume nebulizer.

Q2) While assessing the airway of a pediatric patient,you will notice that it is different than that of an adult.Which of the following is one of those differences?

A) The cricoid cartilage is less developed, reducing the possibility that it can be completely occluded.

B) The tongue is smaller, taking up less room in the mouth and allowing larger objects to occlude the airway.

C) The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed.

D) The chest wall is softer, making it easier for the chest to expand.

Q3) Which of the following patients does NOT necessarily have inadequate breathing?

A) Patient with cyanosis

B) Patient's whose breath sounds cannot be heard

C) Patient with agonal respirations

D) Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Cardiac Emergencies

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50 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When using an AED,which of the following people is responsible for calling to "clear" the patient before delivering a shock?

A) EMT supervising bystanders

B) EMT operating the defibrillator

C) EMT managing the airway

D) EMT doing chest compressions

Q2) You are on-scene with a 48-year-old unresponsive male patient.Bystanders state he complained of chest pain and then suddenly collapsed.Vital signs are blood pressure 68/42,pulse 36,and respiratory rate 3.He is unresponsive to painful stimuli.After performing the primary assessment and treating all life threats,what is your next intervention?

A) Insert an oral airway.

B) Administer high-concentration oxygen at 15 lpm by bag-valve mask.

C) Package the patient for rapid transport.

D) Apply the AED.

Q3) Which of the following may be a symptom of a problem with the heart?

A) Mild chest discomfort

B) Severe, crushing pain in the chest

C) Nausea, with or without vomiting

D) All of the above

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Chapter 19: Diabetic Emergencies and Altered Mental

Status

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59 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) For the EMT,which of the following is the most important question to ask of a diabetic patient or his family members?

A) When was the last time you had something to eat?

B) Do you have a fruity taste in your mouth?

C) Do you have a family history of diabetes?

D) What kind of insulin do you take?

Q2) Which of the following is LEAST important for the patient who has stopped seizing before the EMT's arrival at the scene?

A) Checking for mechanism of injury

B) Requesting advanced life support

C) Suctioning

D) Administering oxygen

Q3) Your patient is a 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior.Upon your arrival you introduce yourself to the patient,who responds,"Not until nine o'clock." This phenomenon is BEST described as:

A) receptive aphasia.

B) disorientation to time.

C) unresponsive to verbal stimuli.

D) expressive aphasia.

Page 21

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Chapter 20: Allergic Reaction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient is a 45-year-old female who is allergic to sesame seeds,which she accidentally ingested when she ate a deli sandwich.She is having difficulty breathing,and she has hives,watery eyes,a weak pulse of 120 per minute,and swelling of the face and tongue.Which of the following is the BEST course of immediate action?

A) Transport immediately.

B) Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector.

C) Contact dispatch to see where the closest ALS unit is.

D) Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA).

Q2) You are called to a residence for a 60-year-old male complaining of chest pain.You find the patient seated in bed.His past medical history includes hypertension and high cholesterol.The patient presents with hives over the chest,stridor,a swollen tongue,and wheezing in the upper fields.He denies any shortness of breath or respiratory distress,but does so in short two to three word statements.What condition do you suspect?

A) Anaphylaxis

B) Asthma

C) Acute myocardial infarction

D) Angina pectoris

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Chapter 21: Poisoning and Overdose Emergencies

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75 Verified Questions

75 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which patient would most likely benefit from the administration of activated charcoal?

A) 18-year-old patient who is passed out from drinking too much beer

B) 45-year-old patient suffering from organophosphate poisoning

C) 14-year-old female who overdoses on her grandfather's cardiac medication

D) 8-year-boy who has a headache from carbon monoxide poisoning

Q2) Your patient is a conscious 4-year-old female who has ingested a medication prescribed for her grandfather.To determine appropriate treatment,which of the following information is NOT necessary to provide to medical control?

A) Patient's weight and the amount of medication taken

B) Patient's vital signs and the time the medication was taken

C) Any home remedies attempted by the patient's family

D) Grandfather's name and the name of the physician who prescribed the medication

Q3) What clinical finding is MOST suggestive of an inhaled poison?

A) Altered mental status

B) Tachypnea

C) Black-colored sputum

D) Swollen tongue

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Chapter 22: Abdominal Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are called to a nursing home for an 85-year-old patient complaining of abdominal pain.The patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you.The nurse states the patient has n vomiting dark coffee ground emesis for about an hour.His blood pressure is 90/40,pulse 100,and respiratory rate of 24.Why should the EMT use an oxygen mask with caution?

A) The oxygen will cause the patient to start vomiting again.

B) The patient may hyperventilate.

C) The patient may go unresponsive.

D) The patient cannot clear any additional emesis.

Q2) You respond,along with fire department Emergency Medical Responders,to a 48-year-old female having a syncope episode in the bathroom.You find the patient sitting on the commode vomiting into the trash can.The vomitus appears to look like coffee grounds and has a foul smell.The patient is pale and has n weak for the past few days.She has:

A) peritonitis.

B) abdominal aortic aneurysm.

C) hernia.

D) GI bleeding.

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Chapter 23: Behavioral and Psychiatric Emergencies and Suicide

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Sample Questions

Q1) It is important that,as an EMS provider,you avoid creating a situation where positional asphyxia could occur.Which of the following is positional asphyxia?

A) Positional asphyxia is the position the person is seated in when you approach him.

B) Positional asphyxia is a birth defect that causes psychiatric issues and is initiated because of the way the fetus was positioned in the uterus.

C) Positional asphyxia is inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body position that restricts breathing.

D) Positional asphyxia is the name for the position someone assumes after she has been hit with a taser.

Q2) Which of the following should NOT be included in documentation of an incident involving a patient with a behavioral or psychiatric emergency?

A) Description of the patient's behavior

B) Whether or not you think the patient is mentally ill

C) Your observations of the patient's surroundings at the scene

D) Your actions

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Chapter 24: Hematologic and Renal Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a medical history of sickle cell anemia is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath.The patient is breathing 26 times a minute in short,shallow respirations.However,the patient's oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry is 100% on room air.The best approach regarding supplemental oxygen is to:

A) do nothing; no supplemental oxygen is necessary.

B) place the patient on a nonrebreather mask.

C) place the patient on a nasal cannula.

D) place the patient on a simple face mask.

Q2) You are dispatched to a private residence for a sick person.When you arrive you are told by the patient that due to the snow storm yesterday he missed his scheduled appointment at the dialysis center and is not feeling well.Your assessment does not reveal anything remarkable outside of the fact that he has missed his dialysis.Which of the steps below would NOT be part of your care?

A) Assess the ABCs.

B) When you obtain vital signs, obtain a blood pressure on an arm that does not have a fistula.

C) Place the patient in a supine position.

D) Administer oxygen at 15 lpm by nonrebreather mask.

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26

Chapter 25: Bleeding and Shock

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Sample Questions

Q1) Although many of the signs and symptoms of shock are the same no matter what the cause,the symptoms follow a logical progression as shock develops and worsens.Arrange the following signs and symptoms in the likely order that they will appear. 1.Altered mental status

2)Dropping blood pressure

3)Nausea and vomiting

4)Pale,cool,and clammy skin

5)Increased pulse

6)Increased respirations

A) 1, 4, 3, 6, 5, 2

B) 2, 5, 6, 3, 4, 1

C) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2

D) 5, 3, 4, 2, 6, 1

Q2) Which of the following is a classification of the severity of shock?

A) Consumption

B) Compensated

C) Uncompensated

D) Non-compensated

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Chapter 26: Soft-Tissue Trauma

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury?

A) Treat for shock if you think there are internal injuries even if the patient's vital signs are normal.

B) Anticipate vomiting.

C) Splint any swollen, deformed extremities.

D) Allow the patient to have small sips of water.

Q2) When using the rule of palm to estimate the approximate body surface area burned,the patient's palm equals about what percentage of the body's surface area (BSA)?

A) 1%

B) 2%

C) 5%

D) 3%

Q3) Which of the following is NOT considered soft tissue?

A) The skin

B) Muscles

C) Membranes

D) Cartilage

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Chapter 27: Chest and Abdominal Trauma

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Sample Questions

Q1) Some drawbacks to using sterile aluminum foil as an occlusive dressing include:

A) sterility cannot be ensured unless the materials were autoclaved.

B) a flutter valve is difficult to create.

C) foil cannot create an airtight seal.

D) skin lacerations may occur from the sharp edges.

Q2) You are dispatched to a 42-year-old male who was shot in the abdomen and thrown from a vehicle.The patient is critical and a high-category trauma; however,due to the mechanism of injury,it is necessary to backboard the patient prior to transport.What is an important assessment before securing the patient?

A) Verifying trauma center ER bed availability

B) Examining the patient for entrance and exit wounds

C) Searching for presence of diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hypotension

D) Performing a distal neurological assessment

Q3) Which of the following injuries requires the use of an occlusive dressing?

A) Open wound to the chest

B) Open wound to the neck

C) Open wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding

D) All of the above

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29

Chapter 28: Musculoskeletal Trauma

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Sample Questions

Q1) The sound or feeling of the ends of broken bones rubbing together is called:

A) crepitus.

B) krepitus.

C) crapilation.

D) breakilation.

Q2) The strong white fibrous material called the periosteum:

A) covers the bones.

B) protects the perineum.

C) surrounds the heart.

D) surrounds the abdominal cavity.

Q3) Although it can be difficult to definitively determine hip dislocation in the field,certain signs and symptoms are usually there.Which of the following statements is false?

A) An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward and the hip would usually be flexed.

B) A posterior hip dislocation presents with a bent knee and the foot may hang loose.

C) The posterior hip dislocation is the most common.

D) Often there is lack of sensation in the limb.

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Chapter 29: Trauma to the Head, neck, and Spine

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following causes worsening of the damage in a brain injury?

A) Allowing seepage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose

B) Administration of 100% oxygen

C) Failure to keep the patient awake and talking

D) Improper management of airway and ventilation

Q2) What is another name for the zygomatic bone?

A) Malar

B) Maxillae

C) Temporal

D) Mandible

Q3) Which of the following measures is NOT appropriate for a patient with a significant isolated head injury?

A) Treat for shock by elevating the foot of the backboard.

B) Keep the patient from becoming overheated.

C) Try to keep the patient from being agitated.

D) Control bleeding from head wounds.

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Chapter 30: Multisystem Trauma

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are on the scene of a 50-year-old male who lacerated his arm on a sheet of plate glass.He is pale,diaphoretic,and mumbling incoherently.You have controlled an arterial bleed with direct pressure.His blood pressure is 70/40,pulse 120,and respiratory rate of 28.Which of the following signs is the most concerning?

A) Tachycardia

B) Altered mental status

C) Respiratory rate

D) Blood pressure

Q2) What is the definition of multisystem trauma?

A) Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system

B) Trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury

C) A trauma in which there are multiple casualties

D) A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies

Q3) What is the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS)measurement of altered mental status,which according to CDC guidelines necessitates transport to a trauma center?

A) 12

B) 13

C) 8

D) 14

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Page 32

Chapter 31: Environmental Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a patient with extreme hypothermia who appears to be in cardiac arrest,you should assess the pulse for how long?

A) 30 to 45 seconds

B) 20 to 30 seconds

C) 5 to 10 seconds

D) 15 to 20 seconds

Q2) Which of the following is acceptable in the management of a patient stung by a honey bee?

A) Soak the affected area in warm water.

B) Pull the stinger out using tweezers.

C) Remove jewelry from any affected limbs.

D) Elevate the affected site above the level of the heart to reduce swelling.

Q3) The term blanching,used to describe localized cold injury,means the tissue has turned to which of the following colors?

A) White or lighter

B) Blue or purple

C) Red

D) Black

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33

Chapter 32: Obstetric and Gynecologic Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) If assisting in a prehospital delivery while off-duty,which of the following would be the BEST choice for tying or clamping the umbilical cord?

A) Section of wire coat hanger

B) Pair of shoelaces

C) White cotton thread

D) Clothespin

Q2) By which of the following means does the fetus's blood pick up nourishment from the mother?

A) Direct circulation

B) Indirect circulation

C) Diffusion

D) Osmosis

Q3) Which of the following is true concerning trauma in the pregnant woman?

A) The mother's body will preferentially protect the life of the fetus over that of the mother.

B) She may lose up to 35% of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.

C) The increase in blood volume during pregnancy makes shock an unlikely cause of death.

D) She may lose up to 15% of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.

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Page 34

Chapter 33: Pediatric Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the MOST common cause of cardiac arrest in the pediatric patient?

A) Hypoglycemia

B) Congenital heart defects

C) Ventricular fibrillation

D) Respiratory failure

Q2) As a rule,as a child gets older the blood pressure:

A) falls and the pulse rate rises.

B) rises and the pulse rate falls.

C) falls and the pulse rate falls.

D) rises and the pulse rate rises.

Q3) Which of the following is an early sign of respiratory distress in an 18-month-old patient?

A) Wheezing

B) Heart rate of 60 beats per minute

C) Drowsiness

D) Respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute

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35

Chapter 34: Geriatric Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Of the older patients seen in the emergency department due to a fall,________% will die within 1 year.

A) 50

B) 25

C) 10

D) 35

Q2) Upon your arrival for a medical call at a private residence,you find an elderly male patient complaining of difficulty breathing.Which of the following findings would provide you with the most valuable information about potential problems this patient may be experiencing?

A) Temperature in the house

B) Patient's positioning on the couch

C) Patient's mental status

D) Patient's vital signs

Q3) Which of the following statements is believed to be true regarding domestic elder abuse?

A) The elders are usually in good health.

B) The abusers are usually well-adjusted.

C) There is seldom a family history of elder abuse.

D) None of the above.

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Chapter 35: Emergencies for Patients With Special Challenges

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the easiest way for an EMT to communicate with a patient with drastic hearing loss?

A) Slow down your speech so that the patient can read your lips.

B) Write your questions using paper and pen.

C) Use a TDD/TYY telephone.

D) Speak loudly and directly into the patient's ear.

Q2) To determine the appropriate depth an EMT should insert a catheter tip into a tracheostomy tube in order to clear a blocked airway,the EMT should:

A) measure from the stoma to the carina.

B) measure against the length of the obturator.

C) insert the catheter until the tip is no longer visible.

D) multiply the internal diameter of the tracheal tube by 10.

Q3) Which of the following refers to a condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living?

A) Handicapped

B) Disabled

C) Terminal

D) Disability

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Chapter 36: Ems Operations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following should be checked with the vehicle engine turned off?

A) Dash-mounted gauges

B) Windshield wiper operation

C) Warning lights

D) Battery

Q2) When deciding whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and siren activated for any patient,the driver should consider:

A) the patient's past medical history.

B) potential risks of making the patient's condition worse.

C) the patient's preference for lights and siren.

D) how many calls are waiting for an available ambulance.

Q3) A study of emergency collisions demonstrated that the majority of collisions occurred

A) at intersections.

B) at night.

C) during inclement weather.

D) during turning.

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Chapter 37: Hazardous Materials, multiple-Casualty Incidents,

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Sample Questions

Q1) To respond to a hazardous materials incident,the EMT should be trained at which of the four levels?

A) Operations

B) Specialist

C) Technician

D) Awareness

Q2) Johnny is an EMT with a local ambulance service.As part of his job,he is trained to recognize the existence of a potentially dangerous scene involving hazardous materials and know when to request a hazmat response.Johnny's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level.

A) First Responder Awareness

B) First Responder Operations

C) Hazardous Materials Technician

D) Hazardous Materials Specialist

Q3) Where is the decon corridor located where patients,personnel,and equipment are decontaminated?

A) Hot zone

B) Cold zone

C) Warm zone

D) Cool zone

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Chapter 38: Highway Safety and Vehicle Extrication

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following activities should NOT occur during the scene size-up?

A) Providing airway management

B) Determining the mechanism of injury

C) Determining the extent of the patient's entrapment

D) Determining the need for additional resources

Q2) Which of the following considerations should be determined when conducting a scene size-up at night of a single vehicle collision involving a rollover?

A) Make and model of the vehicle involved

B) Mechanism of injury

C) How many EMS supervisors are needed for command

D) Which patient is the least injured

Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of removing the roof of a vehicle that has sustained major damage in a collision?

A) It makes the entire interior of the vehicle accessible.

B) The EMT can better access the patients.

C) It creates a large exit through which to remove the patient.

D) All of the above

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Chapter 39: Ems Response to Terrorism

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32074

Sample Questions

Q1) Three methods for minimizing exposure to harmful incidents are:

A) time, decontamination, and shielding.

B) technique, distance, and serum.

C) time, distance, and shielding.

D) time, decontamination, and serum.

Q2) Standard management of chemical burn caused by a terrorist incident includes:

A) rinsing the area with ice water.

B) using a neutralizing agent.

C) leaving any corrosive materials on the skin.

D) irrigating vigorously with cool water.

Q3) Terrorist incidents typically involve all of the following agents except:

A) explosives.

B) biological agents.

C) allergens.

D) nuclear agents.

Q4) Which of the following is a type of chemical weapon?

A) Bacterial toxin

B) Bomb containing radioactive material

C) Vesicants

D) Plastic explosives

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