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Financial Reporting is a university course that explores the principles and practices involved in the preparation, presentation, and interpretation of financial statements. The course covers key accounting concepts, regulatory frameworks, and standards such as International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) or Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP). Students learn how organizations communicate their financial performance and position to stakeholders through balance sheets, income statements, cash flow statements, and notes to the accounts. Emphasis is placed on the analysis of reported information for decision-making, ethical considerations, and the impact of business transactions on financial reports.
Recommended Textbook
Financial and Managerial Accounting 9th Edition by Belverd E. Needles
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Q1) The income statement is also known as the statement of financial position.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q2) Authorized shares of stock refer to the number of shares currently held by the stockholders.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) Transfer of ownership will not affect the continuity of a
A) corporation..
B) sole proprietorship.
C) partnership
D) corporation or partnership.
Answer: A
Q4) The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCOAB)was created to determine the standards that auditors must follow.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Q1) When payment is received for services not yet rendered,no entry is recorded until that service has been rendered.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The ledger account form has a Balance column.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following accounts has a normal debit balance?
A) Art Fees Earned
B) Notes Payable
C) Prepaid Insurance
D) Unearned Art Fees
Answer: C
Q4) When a company purchases goods that it will resell,it must record the goods in an expense account.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

Page 4
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Q1) Assets become liabilities when they expire.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The Store Supplies account had a $360 debit balance at the end of the accounting period before adjustment for supplies used,and an inventory of $80 worth of unused supplies was on hand.Which of the following is the required adjusting entry?
A) Debit Store Supplies Expense $80 and credit Store Supplies $80.
B) Debit Store Supplies Expense $280 and credit Store Supplies $280.
C) Debit Store Supplies $80 and credit Store Supplies Expense $80.
D) Debit Store Supplies $280 and credit Store Supplies Expense $280.
Answer: B
Q3) Failure to record depreciation at year end will result in an
A) understatement of total liabilities.
B) overstatement of total assets.
C) understatement of net income.
D) overstatement of total liabilities.
Answer: B
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Q1) An important reason to use a work sheet is to
A) aid the accountant in the daily preparation of journal entries.
B) replace the journal when making adjusting and closing entries.
C) check the accuracy of adjusting entries before they are entered formally into the accounting records.
D) accompany the financial statements in the company's annual report.
Q2) The Adjusted Trial Balance columns of the work sheet are prepared by combining the Trial Balance and Adjustments columns of the work sheet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Closing entries may be prepared by referring solely to the Income Statement columns of the work sheet.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When the Income Statement columns of the work sheet are initially footed,they should be out of balance by the amount of net income or net loss.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) For accounting information to be useful,it must be both relevant and reliable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Using the following data,prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31,2010,for the Lee Company.There are 2,000 shares of $10 par value common stock issued and outstanding.
\(\begin{array}{lrlr}
\text { Accounts Payable } & \$ 1,600 & \text { Accounts Receivable } & 3,000 \\
\text { Building Not Currently Used } & 19,000 & \text { Cash } & 5,200 \\
\text { Accumulated Depreciation, } & 8,000 & \text { Unearned Revenue } & 800 \\
\text { Equipment } & & &\\
& & \text { Short-Term Investments } & 2,000 \\
\text { Common Stock } & 20,000 & \text { Land } & 16,000 \\
\text { Retained Earnings } & 22,600 & \text { Equipment } & 15,000 \\
\text { Copyright } & 5,000 & \text { Long-Term Investments } & 800 \\
\text { Bonds Payable (due in } 20 & 13,000 & & \\
\text {years) } & & & \end{array}\)
Q3) State the definition of a current asset.
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Q1) Which of the following activities is not a component of the operating cycle?
A) Payment of employees' wages
B) Sale of merchandise
C) Purchase of merchandise
D) Collection of cash from merchandise sales
Q2) A company would be more likely to know the amount of inventory on hand if it used the periodic inventory system rather than the perpetual inventory system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Upon making a credit card sale,a business should record the sale as an accounts receivable until the customer pays his or her credit card bill.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A merchandising business will earn an income before income taxes of exactly $0 when
A) net sales equals cost of goods sold.
B) operating expenses equal net sales.
C) gross margin equals operating expenses.
D) cost of goods sold equals gross margin.
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Q1) Which of the following costs usually would not be included in the inventory cost?
A) Storage costs
B) Related tariffs
C) Invoice price less purchases discounts
D) Insurance on goods in transit
Q2) Which of the following accounts would not appear as an asset on a manufacturer's balance sheet?
A) Finished Goods
B) Work in Process
C) Factory Overhead
D) Raw Materials
Q3) Which of the following is an inventory valuation method?
A) First-in, first-out
B) Average-cost
C) Lower-of-cost-or-market
D) Perpetual
Q4) The LIFO method tends to smooth out the peaks and valleys of a business cycle.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Bad debts are considered as an expense of selling on credit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) On a bank reconciliation,interest earned on a checking account should be
A) deducted from the balance per books.
B) added to the balance per books.
C) added to the balance per bank.
D) deducted from the balance per bank.
Q3) Installment accounts receivable covering periods longer than twelve months are classified as long-term assets.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following would be added to the balance per bank?
A) Outstanding checks
B) Bank service charges
C) Collection of a note receivable by the bank
D) Deposit in transit
Q5) The allowance method of handling bad debts violates the matching principle.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Lee Provo is paid $8 per hour,plus time-and-one-half for hours over 40 for a given week.During the week of January 21,Provo worked 46 hours.Social security taxes are 6.2 percent,Medicare taxes are 1.45 percent,$50 is withheld for federal income taxes,$12 is withheld for state income taxes,and $15 is withheld for medical insurance.In addition,Provo's employer must pay social security taxes of 6.2 percent,Medicare taxes of 1.45 percent,state unemployment taxes of 5.4 percent,and federal unemployment taxes of .8 percent.Calculate (a)Provo's gross earnings,(b)Provo's take-home pay,(c)the employer's payroll taxes expense,and (d)the total cost of employing Provo for the week.Round all amounts to the nearest penny.
Q2) Commercial paper consists of secured loans that are sold to the public.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding the time value of money?
A) Compound interest will produce equal amounts of interest each period on a fixed deposit.
B) Earning simple interest is more beneficial than earning compound interest.
C) When making a purchase, it is better to make payment as soon as possible.
D) It is better to receive $1 now than a year from now.
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Q1) Oren Company's air-conditioning system has just completed the eighth year of an estimated ten-year life.The system cost $60,000 and now has accumulated depreciation of $48,000.At the beginning of the ninth year,the company expects to spend $16,000 on a complete renovation of the system and expects the total life of the system to be fifteen years.Neither the capacity of the system nor the residual value was increased.The company uses the straight-line method to determine depreciation.Determine the following: (a)the account debited for the cost of renovation,(b)the carrying value of the system after renovation,and (c)the depreciation expense for the ninth year.
Q2) The exclusive right to sell a computer program is called a copyright.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Carrying value
A) equals cost minus accumulated depreciation.
B) equals cost minus residual value.
C) is the expired cost of an asset.
D) is the same as residual value.
Q4) Under what circumstances will a loss be recorded on the sale of equipment,and what effect will the loss have on stockholders' equity?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most bonds issued today are coupon bonds rather than registered bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Suffolk Corporation issued $100,000 of 20-year,6 percent bonds at 98 on one of its semi-annual interest dates.The straight-line method of amortization is to be used.What is the total interest cost of the bonds?
A) $120,000
B) $122,000
C) $118,000
D) $117,500
Q3) Any unamortized bond discount should be reported on the balance sheet of the issuing corporation as a(n)
A) asset.
B) direct deduction from retained earnings in the stockholders' equity section.
C) addition to the face amount of the bonds in the liability section.
D) direct deduction from the face amount of the bonds in the liability section.
Q4) The par value of a bond is equal to its face value.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) On the balance sheet,treasury stock owned by the company is classified properly as A) contra-stockholders' equity.
B) current assets.
C) investments.
D) a note to the financial statements.
Q2) The balance in the Additional Paid-in Capital account must be added to the balance of the Common Stock account to compute the amount of legal capital for a corporation with a par value common stock.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Margil Industries has 40,000 shares of 9 percent cumulative preferred stock and 30,000 shares of common stock outstanding.Par value for each is $50.The company has paid no dividends for the past two years.This year,a $620,000 dividend is paid.How much of the $620,000 is paid to the common shareholders?
Q4) Financing a business with common stock is less risky than financing it with bonds.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Insider trading is considered unethical,but it is not illegal in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The reporting currency is defined as the currency in which the consolidated financial statements are presented.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Long-term bond investments that are classified as available-for-sale must be valued on the balance sheet at fair value.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unrealized gains and losses on available-for-sale securities are reported on the income statement.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When are eliminating entries made,where are they entered,and why are they needed?
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Q1) One objective of the corporate income statement is to separate the results of continuing operations from those of discontinued operations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true about a 35 percent stock dividend?
A) The market value of the stock is needed to record the stock dividend.
B) Retained earnings decreases.
C) Contributed capital increases.
D) Par value per share remains the same.
Q3) Draw two distinctions between accounting for a stock split and accounting for a stock dividend.
Q4) Comprehensive income could contain all of the following except A) revenues.
B) investments by stockholders.
C) expenses.
D) unrealized investment gains and losses.
Q5) Why must certain income statement items be presented "net of taxes"?
Q6) Extraordinary gains and losses are a component of income from operations. A)True B)False Page 16
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Q1) Noncash investing and financing transactions
A) appear as a separate schedule on the statement of cash flows.
B) appear in either the investing or financing activities section, but not both.
C) are excluded from the statement of cash flows.
D) appear in both the investing and financing activities sections.
Q2) Elkwood Corporation acquired a land site with a building by issuing a 30-year mortgage payable.In Elkwood's statement of cash flows,this transaction should be shown
A) only as a cash flow from investing activity for the purchase of the land and building.
B) only as a cash flow from financing activity for the issuance of the mortgage payable.
C) in the schedule of noncash investing and financing transactions.
D) as both a cash flow from investing activity and a cash flow from financing activity.
Q3) The primary purpose of the statement of cash flows is to provide information about a company's cash receipts and cash payments during an accounting period.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Activity-based management is an extension of activity-based costing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a management accountant gives information about a future merger of his or her company to a relative,the accountant has acted unethically.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Although the purpose of the confidentiality standard is to encourage management accountants to remain loyal to their company,failure to disclose knowledge of internal illegal acts to outside authorities can result in the accountants being charged as an accessory to the crime.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Total quality management focuses on reducing waste.
A)True
B)False
Q5) JIT,TQM,and ABM all seek continuous improvement in operations.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Overhead has been underapplied when the
A) Overhead account has a credit balance.
B) Overhead account has a debit balance.
C) company has overspent in the overhead cost area.
D) adjusting entry to account for the underapplied overhead involves a credit to Cost of Goods Sold.
Q2) Which of the following results in a predetermined overhead rate?
A) Estimated overhead divided by estimated units produced
B) Estimated overhead divided by actual direct labor hours
C) Actual units produced divided by estimated overhead
D) Estimated direct labor dollars divided by estimated overhead
Q3) Which of the following is a typical example of a variable cost?
A) Sales commissions
B) Rent
C) Depreciation
D) Salaries
Q4) All labor costs can be directly traced to finished products.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Job order costing is used by companies that make large or unique products.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Job costs in a service organization end up in the Finished Goods Inventory account when a job is completed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A job order cost card is a type of subsidiary ledger.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a job order costing system,the Factory Payroll account is a clearing account.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A basic part of a job order costing system is the set of procedures and entries used to record the costs incurred for materials,labor,and overhead.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the similarities and differences between job order costing and process costing.Focus on the characteristics of each type of system.
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Q1) Nader,Inc.,has the following information available: \(\begin{array}{lrr}&\text { Costs from }&\text { Costs from }\\ &\text { Beginning Inventory}&\text { Curent Period }\\ \text { Direct materials } & \$ 2,300 & \$ 21,252 \\ \text { Conversion costs } & 6,200 & 150,536 \end{array}\) At the beginning of the period,there were 500 units in process that were 40 percent complete as to conversion costs and 100 percent complete as to direct materials costs.During the current period,4,300 units were started and completed.Ending inventory contained 320 units that were 80 percent complete as to conversion costs and 100 percent complete as to direct materials costs.(Assume that the company uses the FIFO costing method.)
The total costs that will be transferred into the Finished Goods Inventory account during the current period are
A) $153,080.
B) $170,880.
C) $171,788.
D) $189,600.
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Q1) A just-in-time operating environment requires maintenance of large material and finished goods inventories in order to meet customer demand for products.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A supply chain is a related sequence of value-creating activities within an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a nonvalue-adding activity?
A) Product distribution activity
B) Customer service activity
C) Data processing activity
D) Product design activity
Q4) The value chain is also called the supply network.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Typically,there are seven levels in the cost hierarchy.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Practical capacity is theoretical or ideal capacity reduced by normal and anticipated work stoppages,such as machine breakdowns.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Contribution Margin Income Statement is prepared to present for external users of financial information.
A)True B)False
Q3) a.Provide two different ways of computing breakeven units: one with the contribution margin in the computation and one without the contribution margin.
b.Compare and contrast the two different methods of computing breakeven units.Does the use of the contribution margin alter the resulting number of breakeven units? Why or why not?
c.Comment on how the contribution margin affects the computation of breakeven units.Would an increase in the contribution margin increase or decrease the number of breakeven units required?
Q4) Explain what cost-volume-profit analysis is and how managers use it.Give examples of some purposes for which it might be used.
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Q1) Fill in the blanks.
1.The cash budget serves two purposes.First,it shows the ending _________,which is needed to complete the __________.Second,it highlights period's excess cash reserves or cash shortages.
2.A projection of cash receipts and cash payments for a future period of time is called a(n)______________.
3.Since the __________ is a summary of all expected transactions for a future time period,it also must be the key to all expected cash transactions.
4.The _________________________ oversees each stage in the preparation of the _______________ budget,decides any departmental disputes that may rise in the process,and gives final approval to the budget.
Q2) The main difference in the master budget process for the three types of organizations involves the preparation of the A) cash budget.
B) capital expenditures budget.
C) financial budgets.
D) operating budgets.
Q3) Describe three benefits budgeting provides to an organization's success.
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Q1) Dana Klammer is the manager of the Cutting Department in the Northwest Division of Steel Products.Which of the following costs is a controllable cost?
A) Salaries of cutting machine workers
B) Cost of electricity for the Northwest Division
C) Lumber Department hauling costs
D) Vice president's salary
Q2) ROI,residual income,and economic value added all represent performance measures that can be utilized to determine investment center performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ROI is a performance measure mainly connected with a company's income statement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why are managers more likely to achieve their objectives in both the short term and the long term when they utilize a tool such as the balanced scorecard?
Q5) What are some of the limitations of utilizing ROI,residual income,and EVA to measure the performance of investment centers?
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Q1) Underfoot Products uses standard costing.The following information about overhead was generated during May: \[\begin{array} { l l }
\text { Standard varable cverhead rate } & \$ 2 \text { per machine hour } \\
\text { Standard fixed cverhead rate } & \$ 1 \text { per machine hour } \\
\text { Actual variable overhead costs } & \$ 390,000 \\
\text { Actual Eixed cverhead costs } & \$ 175,000 \\
\text { Budgeted fixed dverhead costs } & \$ 190,000 \\
\text { Standard machine hours per urit produced } & 10 \\
\text { Good urits produced } & 18,000 \\
\text { Actual machine hours } & 195000
\end{array}\]
Compute the variable overhead efficiency variance.
A) $50000 (F)
B) $50000 (U)
C) $40000 (F)
D) $30000 (U)
Q2) A production manager usually is responsible for direct materials used and direct labor hours used.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A cost that does not change between the alternatives is known as a differential cost.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The term incremental cost refers to
A) the difference in total costs between alternatives.
B) a cost that does not entail any dollar outlay but that is relevant to the decision-making process.
C) the profit forgone by selecting one choice instead of another.
D) a cost that constitutes expenses to be incurred even though there is no activity.
Q3) Managers rely strictly on financial information when faced with decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The difference in total costs between two alternatives is referred to as the A) incremental cost.
B) sunk cost.
C) opportunity cost.
D) direct cost.
Q5) What are the two steps in the analysis for a sales mix decision?
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Q1) Depreciation is a unique expense because it
A) does not require a cash outlay.
B) does not affect income taxes.
C) is the same amount every accounting period.
D) has to be calculated.
Q2) The acceptable proposals are ranked in order of net present value,payback period or rate of return in capital investment decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The components of cost of capital include all of the following except
A) the cost of debt
B) the cost of preferred stock
C) the cost of common stock and retained earnings
D) the minimum rate of return
Q4) What criteria must be met for accepting any capital expenditure proposal with respect to minimum rate of return on investment?
Q5) The accounting rate-of-return method does not consider the time value of money. A)True
B)False
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Q1) The cost-plus transfer price is the sum of the costs incurred by the producing division plus an agreed-upon profit percentage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The economic approach to pricing is based on microeconomic theory.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pricing of services
A) requires the same approach as pricing of products.
B) uses a markup percentage to add the cost of overhead to the direct costs of labor, materials, and parts.
C) always requires three pricing computations, one for materials, one for parts, and one for labor.
D) is less accurate than pricing of products.
Q4) If engineers determine that a product can be produced for less than its target cost,then production of the product should not be undertaken.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Woodruff Company manufactures custom-designed medical equipment for paramedic units.In June 2010,the company incurred the following costs of quality:
\[\begin{array} { l r }
\text { Praduct design costs } & \$12,800 \\
\text { Praduct recall costs } & 6,700 \\
\text { Praduct simulation costs } & 20,500 \\
\text { Praduct testing costs } & 8,000 \\
\text { Praduct warranty clains } & 3,000 \\
\text { Scrap and rewark costs } & 5,000 \end{array}\] Total quality costs of conformance for June were
A) $41,300.
B) $32,800.
C) $40,300.
D) $43,800.
Q2) Low costs of conformance usually result in high costs of nonconformance.
A)True B)False
Q3) The Six Sigma quality standard was used by Motorola to improve its performance. A)True B)False
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/71761
Sample Questions
Q1) When using an index number,one sets the first (oldest)number in a series equal to 100.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Does the existence of conglomerates make financial performance evaluation easier or more difficult? Why?
Q3) Which of the following is not a profitability ratio?
A) Return on equity
B) Asset turnover
C) Return on assets
D) Quick ratio
Q4) It is possible for horizontal analysis to indicate a decrease in revenues from one year to another and an increase in net income.
A)True
B)False
Q5) It is in the best interests of a company to base executive compensation on a single performance measure.
A)True
B)False
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