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Financial Markets and Institutions Midterm Exam - 2334 Verified Questions

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Financial Markets and Institutions

Midterm Exam

Course Introduction

This course provides an in-depth exploration of the structure and functioning of financial markets and institutions, emphasizing their critical role in the global economy. Students will examine the various types of financial markets such as money, capital, and derivatives markets as well as the major financial institutions, including banks, insurance companies, mutual funds, and investment firms. Key topics include the mechanisms of fund flow between savers and borrowers, risk management, regulatory frameworks, interest rate determination, and the impact of monetary policy. The course also covers financial innovation, globalization of finance, and recent trends affecting the stability and efficiency of financial systems.

Recommended Textbook

Financial Markets and Institutions 8th Edition by Frederic Mishkin

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27 Chapters

2334 Verified Questions

2334 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Why Study Financial Markets and Institutions?

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Sample Questions

Q1) Have interest rates been more or less volatile in recent years? Why?

Answer: Assumption - We are talking about internet rates in the United States.

As far as the internet is concerned, the digital medium and technology have shown tremendous growth over the last 20 years.

The internet prices which were very high as compared to the recent prices, will be going down only as we see the industry going more mature.

The advent of the new 3G / 4G and 5G has been driving down the prices of the internet rates and the data usage has been growing.

hence, lately, the volatility of the internet rates (per GB charges ) has gone down.

Q2) Financial innovation has provided more options to both investors and borrowers. A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: Overview of the Financial System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Intermediaries who link buyers and sellers by buying and selling securities at stated prices are called

A) investment bankers.

B) traders.

C) brokers.

D) dealers.

E) none of the above.

Answer: D

Q2) U.S.dollars deposited in foreign banks outside the United States or in foreign branches of U.S.are referred to as

A) Eurodollars.

B) Eurocurrencies.

C) Eurobonds.

D) foreign bonds.

Answer: A

Q3) An example of direct financing is if you were to lend money to your neighbor.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 4

Chapter 3: What Do Interest Rates Mean and What Is Their

Role in Valuation?

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Sample Questions

Q1) The current yield goes up as the price of a bond falls.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) The interest rate that equates the present value of the cash flow received from a debt instrument with its market price today is the

A) simple interest rate.

B) discount rate.

C) yield to maturity.

D) real interest rate.

Answer: C

Q3) The real interest rate is equal to the nominal rate minus inflation. A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) The current yield is the yearly coupon payment divided by the current market price. A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Why Do Interest Rates Change?

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Sample Questions

Q1) When stock prices become less volatile,the demand curve for bonds shifts to the ________ and the interest rate ________.

A) right; rises

B) right; falls

C) left; falls

D) left; rises

Q2) When the growth rate of the money supply is increased,interest rates will rise immediately if the liquidity effect is ________ than the other effects and if there is ________ adjustment of expected inflation.

A) larger; rapid

B) larger; slow

C) smaller; slow

D) smaller; rapid

Q3) When the federal government's budget deficit decreases,the ________ curve for bonds shifts to the ________.

A) demand; right

B) demand; left

C) supply; left

D) supply; right

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Chapter 5: How Do Risk and Term Structure Affect Interest

Rates?

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Sample Questions

Q1) If income tax rates rise,then

A) the prices of municipal bonds will fall.

B) the prices of Treasury bonds will rise.

C) the interest rate on Treasury bonds will rise.

D) the interest rate on municipal bonds will rise.

Q2) Of the four theories that explain how interest rates on bonds with different terms to maturity are related,the one that assumes that bonds of different maturities are not substitutes for one another is the

A) expectations theory.

B) segmented markets theory.

C) liquidity premium theory.

D) preferred habitat theory.

Q3) Risk,liquidity,and income tax rules all play a role in determining the risk structure of interest rates.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The term structure of interest rates describes how interest rates move over time.

A)True

B)False

7

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Chapter 6: Are Financial Markets Efficient?

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Sample Questions

Q1) To say that stock prices follow a "random walk" is to argue that

A) stock prices rise, then fall.

B) stock prices rise, then fall in a predictable fashion.

C) stock prices tend to follow trends.

D) stock prices are, for all practical purposes, unpredictable.

Q2) "Short selling" refers to the practice of buying a stock and holding it for only a short time before selling it.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The elimination of a riskless profit opportunity in a market is called

A) the efficient market hypothesis.

B) random walk.

C) arbitrage.

D) market fundamentals.

Q4) According to the January effect,stock prices

A) experience an abnormal price rise from December to January.

B) experience an abnormal price decline from December to January.

C) follow a random walk during January.

D) set the pattern for the entire year in January.

Q5) What is a rational bubble?

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Chapter 7: Why Do Financial Institutions Exist?

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Sample Questions

Q1) Of the sources of external funds for nonfinancial businesses in the United States,stocks account for approximately ________ of the total.

A) 10%

B) 20%

C) 30%

D) 40%

Q2) Commercial and farm mortgages,in which property is pledged as collateral,account for

A) one-quarter of borrowing by nonfinancial businesses.

B) one-half of borrowing by nonfinancial businesses.

C) one-twentieth of borrowing by nonfinancial businesses.

D) two-thirds of borrowing by nonfinancial businesses.

Q3) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 and the Global Legal Settlement of 2002 both have the potential to reduce economies of scope.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What factors usually cause an increase in adverse selection?

Q5) What is the free-rider problem? Describe some situations that this problem creates.

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Chapter 8: Why Do Financial Crises Occur and

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the problem with government safety nets,such as deposit insurance,during the formative stages of a financial crisis?

Q2) In addition to having a direct effect on increasing adverse selection problems,increases in interest rates also promote financial crises by ________ firms' and households' interest payments,thereby ________ their cash flow.

A) increasing; increasing

B) increasing; decreasing

C) decreasing; increasing

D) decreasing; decreasing

Q3) Describe the sequence of events in a financial crisis in an advanced economy and explain why they can cause economic activity to decline.

Q4) When asset prices fall following a boom,

A) moral hazard may increase in companies that have lost net worth in the bust.

B) financial institutions may see the assets on their balance sheets deteriorate, leading to deleveraging.

C) both A and B are correct.

D) none of the above are correct.

Q5) Describe how the European debt crisis evolved.

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Chapter 9: Central Banks and the Federal Reserve System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are duties of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System?

A) Setting margin requirements, the fraction of the purchase price of securities that has to be paid for with cash.

B) Setting the maximum interest rates payable on certain types of time deposits under Regulation Q.

C) Regulating credit with the approval of the President under the Credit Control Act of 1969.

D) None of the above has been a duty of the Board since the mid-1980s.

Q2) Each member of the seven-member Board is appointed by the president and confirmed by the Senate to serve 14-year terms.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following central banks has the greatest degree of independence?

A) Bank of England

B) European Central Bank

C) Bank of Japan

D) Federal Reserve System

Q4) Are central banks in other nations moving toward more or less independence? Why?

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Chapter 10: Conduct of Monetary Policy: Tools, Goals, Strategy, and Tactics

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Sample Questions

Q1) When there is a mismatch between job requirements and the skills of available workers,the resulting unemployment is called

A) structural unemployment.

B) frictional unemployment.

C) cyclical unemployment.

D) underemployment.

Q2) If the desired intermediate target is an interest rate,then the preferred operating target will be a(n)________ variable like the ________.

A) interest rate; three-month Treasury bill rate

B) interest rate; federal funds rate

C) reserve aggregate; monetary base

D) reserve aggregate; nonborrowed base

Q3) Describe an asset-price bubble.

Q4) The monetary base consists of

A) currency in circulation and reserves.

B) government securities held by the Fed and discount loans.

C) government securities held by the Fed and currency in circulation.

D) discount loans and reserves.

Q5) Describe what criteria is applied when choosing a policy instrument.

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Chapter 11: The Money Markets

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain how the Federal Reserve can influence the federal funds interest rate.

Q2) The U.S.Treasury Department is the single largest borrower in the U.S.money market.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Banks are unusual participants in the money market because they buy,but do not sell,money market instruments.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Repos are

A) usually low-risk loans.

B) usually collateralized with Treasury securities.

C) low interest rate loans.

D) all of the above.

E) only A and B of the above.

Q5) Money market instruments issued by the U.S.Treasury are called

A) Treasury bills.

B) Treasury notes.

C) Treasury bonds.

D) Treasury strips.

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Chapter 12: The Bond Market

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Sample Questions

Q1) Long-term unsecured bonds that are backed only by the general creditworthiness of the issuer are called

A) junk bonds.

B) callable bonds.

C) convertible bonds.

D) debentures.

Q2) Which of the following are true for the current yield?

A) The current yield is defined as the yearly coupon payment divided by the price of the security.

B) The formula for the current yield is identical to the formula describing the yield to maturity for a discount bond.

C) The current yield is always a poor approximation for the yield to maturity.

D) All of the above are true.

E) Only A and B of the above are true.

Q3) The current yield on a $6,000,10 percent coupon bond selling for $5,000 is A) 5%.

B) 10%.

C) 12%.

D) 15%.

Q4) What are Treasury STRIPS?

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Chapter 13: The Stock Market

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Sample Questions

Q1) Using the Gordon growth model,explain why the 2001 terrorist attacks and the Enron financial scandal caused stock prices to decline.

Q2) A stock currently sells for $30 per share and pays $1.00 per year in dividends.What is an investor's valuation of this stock if he expects it to be selling for $37 in one year and requires a 12 percent return on equity investments?

A) $38

B) $33.50

C) $34.50

D) $33.93

Q3) The main cause of fluctuations in stock prices is changes in A) tax laws.

B) errors in technical stock analysis.

C) daily trading volume in stock markets.

D) information available to investors.

E) total household wealth in the economy.

Q4) How do over-the-counter markets differ from organized exchanges?

Q5) About half of new equity issues are preferred stock.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: The Mortgage Markets

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74 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What factors are used in determining a person's FICO score?

A) Past payment history

B) Outstanding debt

C) Length of credit history

D) All of the above

Q2) Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac together either own or insure the risk on nearly one-fourth of America's residential mortgages.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Between 2000 and 2005,home prices increased an average of ________ per year.

A) 2%

B) 4%

C) 8%

D) 12%

Q4) During the early years of a mortgage loan,the lender applies most of the payment to the principal on the loan.

A)True

B)False

Q5) How does an amortizing mortgage loan differ from a balloon mortgage loan?

Q6) What are points? What is their purpose?

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Chapter 15: The Foreign Exchange Market

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the value of the dollar changes from 0.50 pounds to 0.75 pounds,the pound has appreciated and the dollar has depreciated.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In the short run,the quantity of dollars supplied (deposits,bonds,equities)is

A) fixed with respect to the exchange rate.

B) quite volatile and difficult to model in a supply-demand framework.

C) typically following the business cycle (procyclical).

D) is best represented with a horizontal supply curve.

Q3) An increase in tariffs and quotas on imports causes a country's currency to appreciate.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The more modern asset market approach to exchange rate determination

A) emphasizes the role of import and export demand.

B) emphasizes stocks of assets.

C) emphasizes both of the above.

D) emphasizes neither of the above.

Q5) Explain the logic underlying the law of one price and the theory of purchasing power parity.

Page 17

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Chapter 16: The International Financial System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Briefly explain what it means to be a "reserve-currency" country.What are the advantages? Can you think of any disadvantages?

Q2) An unsterilized intervention in which domestic currency is purchased by selling foreign assets leads to a rise in international reserves,a decrease in the money supply,and an appreciation of the domestic currency.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Under the Bretton Woods system,when a nonreserve-currency country was running a balance of payments deficit,

A) it gained international reserves.

B) it lost international reserves.

C) it was necessary for the policymakers to implement a contractionary monetary policy.

D) both A and C of the above occurred.

E) both B and C of the above occurred.

Q4) Explain graphically the speculative attacks that occurred against the British pound in 1992,the Mexican peso in 1994,the Thai baht in 1997,the Brazilian real in 1999,and the Argentine peso in 2002.

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Banking and the Management of Financial Institutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a $10 check written on the First National Bank is deposited in an account at the Second National Bank,then

A) the liabilities of the First National Bank decrease by $10.

B) the liabilities of the Second National Bank increase by $10.

C) the reserves of the First National Bank increase by $10.

D) all of the above occur.

E) only A and B of the above occur.

Q2) In the absence of regulation,banks would probably hold

A) too much capital, reducing the efficiency of the payments system.

B) too much capital, reducing the profitability of banks.

C) too little capital, increasing the return on equity.

D) none of the above.

Q3) Which of the following is checkable deposits?

A) Savings accounts

B) Small-denomination time deposits

C) Money market deposit accounts

D) Certificates of deposit

Q4) Loan loss reserves are an asset on a bank's balance sheet.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: Financial Regulation

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Sample

Questions

Q1) Why did the United States experience a banking crisis in the 1980s?

Q2) Banks do not want to hold too much capital because A) they do not bear fully the costs of bank failures. B) higher returns on equity are earned when bank capital is smaller, all else equal. C) higher capital levels attract the scrutiny of regulators. D) all of the above.

E) only A and B of the above.

Q3) The result of the too-big-to-fail policy is that ________ banks will take on ________ risks,making bank failures more likely.

A) small; fewer B) small; greater C) large; fewer D) large; greater

Q4) How has bank regulation in the United States changed since the late 1980s? What accounts for these changes?

Q5) How have bank capital requirements changed since the banking crisis of the 1980s? Explain.

Q6) Describe the difference between macroprudential and microprudential regulation.

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Chapter 19: Banking Industry: Structure and Competition

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Sample Questions

Q1) The driving force behind the securitization of mortgages and automobile loans has been

A) the rising regulatory constraints on substitute financial instruments.

B) the desire of mortgage and auto lenders to exit this field of lending.

C) the improvement in computer technology.

D) the relaxation of regulatory restrictions on credit card operations.

Q2) Which of the following are important factors in determining the degree and timing of financial innovation?

A) Changes in technology

B) Changes in financial market conditions

C) Changes in regulation

D) All of the above

E) Only A and B of the above

Q3) Reserve requirements that force banks to keep a certain fraction of their deposits as reserves and restrictions on the interest rates that can be paid on deposits have been the major forces behind financial innovation.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Are bank consolidations and nationwide banking good things? Why?

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Chapter 20: The Mutual Fund Industry

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Sample Questions

Q1) A mutual fund's board of directors picks the securities that will be held and makes buy and sell decisions.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Over ________ of the total daily volume in stocks is due to institutions initiating trades.

A) 70%

B) 50%

C) 25%

D) 90%

Q3) Hedge funds have a minimum investment requirement of between $100,000 and $20 million,with the typical minimum investment being $1 million.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What benefits do mutual funds offer investors?

Q5) Whether a fund is organized as a closed- or an open-end fund,is will have the same basic organizational structure.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 21: Insurance Companies and Pension Funds

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which proposal for insuring that sufficient funds will be available to provide Social Security benefits to future retirees does the AARP find least objectionable?

A) Raise the maximum income cap on which workers and employers are taxed.

B) Provide more generous annual cost of living increases.

C) Privatize Social Security.

D) Lower immigration restrictions to increase the number of workers paying into the Social Security system.

Q2) Why do life insurance companies and pension plans invest heavily in long-term assets?

Q3) Insurance management tools that give policyholders incentives to avoid accidents insured against include ________.

A) deductibles

B) risk-based premiums

C) coinsurance

D) all of the above

Q4) What are the major differences between life insurance and property and casualty insurance?

Q5) Why must insurance companies screen applicants so carefully?

Q6) Distinguish between different types of life insurance.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Investment Banks, Security Brokers and Dealers,

and Venture Capital Firms

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Sample Questions

Q1) Venture capital firms reduce risk by investing in only a few companies which can be carefully monitored and nurtured.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The buyers of private placement securities are most likely to be ________.

A) insurance companies

B) pension funds and mutual funds

C) commercial banks

D) all of the above

E) only A and B of the above

Q3) The primary function of investment banks is to

A) extend credit to stock brokers and dealers.

B) extend credit to investors.

C) extend credit to corporations.

D) help corporations issue new securities.

Q4) What niche in the financial system do venture capital firms fill?

Q5) Discuss the several ways in which venture capitalists reduce asymmetric information.

Q6) Discuss the difference between full-service and discount brokers.

Q7) What is the difference between a venture fund and a capital buyout? Page 24

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Chapter 23: Risk Management in Financial Institutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Referring to Table 23.2,First National Bank has a gap of ________.

A) -10

B) 10

C) 20

D) 0

Q2) If First National Bank has a gap equal to a negative $30 million,then a 5 percentage point increase in interest rates will cause profits to

A) increase by $15 million.

B) increase by $1.5 million.

C) decline by $15 million.

D) decline by $1.5 million.

Q3) If a bank has more rate-sensitive assets than rate-sensitive liabilities,then a(n)________ in interest rates will ________ bank profits.

A) increase; increase

B) increase; reduce

C) decline; increase

D) decline; not affect

Q4) What is gap analysis and why is it important to a bank?

Q5) What is the difference between credit risk and interest-rate risk?

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Chapter 24: Hedging with Financial Derivatives

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following features of Treasury bond futures contracts were not designed to increase liquidity?

A) standardized contracts

B) traded up until maturity

C) not tied to one specific type of bond

D) can be closed with offsetting trade

Q2) As compared to a default on the notional principle,a default on a swap

A) is more costly.

B) is about as costly.

C) is less costly.

D) may cost more or less than default on the notional principle.

Q3) To reduce foreign exchange risk from selling goods to a foreign country,futures contracts should be sold.

A)True

B)False

Q4) With a short contract,the investor (may)

A) sell securities in the future.

B) buy securities in the future.

C) hedge in the future.

D) close out his position in the future.

Page 27

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Chapter 25: Financial Crises In Emerging Market Economies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Financial crises

A) cause failures of financial intermediaries and leave only securities markets to channel funds from savers to borrowers.

B) are a recent phenomenon that occur only in developing countries.

C) invariably lead to debt deflation.

D) all of the above.

E) none of the above.

Q2) The experience with financial crises in emerging market economies suggests a number of government policies that can help make financial crises in emerging market countries less likely,including A) rapid financial liberalization.

B) better bank risk disclosure.

C) limiting the currency mismatch.

D) all of the above.

E) only B and C of the above.

Q3) What is the problem with government safety nets,such as deposit insurance,during the formative stages of a financial crisis?

Q4) What are some of the steps that emerging market economies can take to avoid a financial crisis?

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Chapter 26: Savings Associations and Credit Unions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regulatory forbearance reduces moral hazard because an operating but insolvent S&L will take fewer risks than healthy S&Ls that can take risks and still remain solvent.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Credit unions view commercial banks as government-supported and hence unfair competitors due to their tax advantages.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Federal legislation allows credit unions representing groups with different common bonds to merge into a single credit union.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The Federal Home Loan Bank Board and the FSLIC,both of which failed in their regulatory tasks,were abolished by the

A) Competitive Equality in Banking Act of 1987.

B) Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989.

C) Office of Thrift Supervision.

D) Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.

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Chapter 27: Finance Companies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe how floor plans work in the automobile industry.Why can finance companies offer these arrangements at a lower cost than banks?

Q2) As presented in the Consolidated Finance Company Balance Sheet,the largest asset of finance companies is consumer loans,representing ________ of assets.

A) 10%

B) 22%

C) 25%

D) 33%

Q3) In which industry is factoring a common practice?

A) Automobile

B) Tech services

C) Entertainment

D) Apparel

Q4) In which industry is factoring a common practice?

A) Automobile

B) Tech services

C) Entertainment

D) Apparel

Q5) What are the various types of finance companies?

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