
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Financial Accounting introduces students to the fundamental principles and concepts underlying the preparation and interpretation of financial statements. The course covers essential topics such as the accounting cycle, recording and summarizing business transactions, adjusting entries, and the preparation of income statements, balance sheets, and cash flow statements in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP). Students will also analyze the use of financial information for decision-making by internal and external stakeholders, develop skills in interpreting financial data, and gain a foundational understanding necessary for advanced accounting studies and professional accounting roles.
Recommended Textbook Principles of Accounting 11th Edition by Belverd E. Needles
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Q1) Financial accounting information is used primarily by management.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q2) The economic resources invested in a business by the owner are represented by owner's equity.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) The purchase of equipment is an example of a financing activity.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q4) Which of the following transactions involves an exchange of value?
A) Accumulation of interest
B) Sale of services
C) Flood loss
D) Wear and tear on equipment
Answer: B
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Q1) When a magazine company receives advance payment for a subscription, what is the required journal entry to be recorded?
A) Cash - Debit; Unearned Subscriptions Revenue - Credit
B) Prepaid Subscriptions - Debit; Cash - Credit
C) Cash - Debit; Subscriptions Revenue - Credit
D) Unearned Subscriptions Revenue - Debit; Cash - Credit
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following accounts has a normal debit balance?
A) Art Fees Earned
B) Notes Payable
C) Prepaid Insurance
D) Unearned Art Fees
Answer: C
Q3) In a journal entry, assets are always recorded before liabilities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Adjusting entries are useful in apportioning costs among two or more accounting periods.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) If an adjusting entry were not made at the end of an accounting period to remove the earned revenue from the Unearned Revenue account, A) assets would be understated.
B) owner's equity would be overstated.
C) liabilities would be understated.
D) liabilities would be overstated.
Answer: D
Q3) Revenue cannot be recognized unless delivery of goods has occurred or services have been rendered.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) On the work sheet, under what circumstances will the last two columns be in balance after the initial footing?
A) Under all circumstances, assuming no arithmetical errors have been made
B) When net income is zero
C) When no adjustments have been entered on the work sheet
D) Under no circumstances
Q2) The adjusting entries involving Rent Receivable and Salaries Payable could be reversed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Depreciation Expense-Buildings is a permanent account.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following could not possibly be a closing entry?
A) Debit Income Summary and credit owner's Capital
B) Debit Income Summary and credit Withdrawals
C) Debit owner's Capital and credit Withdrawals
D) Debit owner's Capital and credit Income Summary
Q5) What does the preparation of reversing entries accomplish?
Q6) Why will the Income Summary account never appear on any financial statement?
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Q1) Which type of account is cost of goods sold?
A) An asset account
B) A liability account
C) An expense account
D) An income account
Q2) Contributed capital is shown on a corporate balance sheet as two amounts: the par value of the issued stock and additional paid-in capital.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Working capital measures
A) the excess of current assets over current liabilities-what is on hand to continue business operations.
B) the ability to earn a satisfactory income.
C) the amount of debt in the company.
D) the profitability of the business.
Q4) One of the three objectives of financial reporting established by the FASB is to provide information useful in assessing cash flow prospects.
A)True B)False
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Q1) The calculation of cost of goods available for sale during the year is not affected by the previous year's ending merchandise inventory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Financing period represents the time during which merchandizing company has to finance its customers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Computerization has led to a large increase in the use of the perpetual inventory system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For a company that takes an average of 50 days to sell inventory, takes an average of 110 days to collect for its sales, and has payment terms of 45 days on its purchases, what is the financing period? Show calculations.
Q5) Under a perpetual inventory system, is it necessary to take a physical inventory at the end of the period? Why or why not?
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Q1) Which of the following documents would be prepared (by a buyer of goods) after the others?
A) Purchase order
B) Check
C) Purchase requisition
D) Receiving report
Q2) Which of the following would not be found in a good system of internal control?
A) Requiring all employees to take earned vacations
B) Establishing a system of checks and balances
C) Having one person handle all the responsibilities of a department
D) Establishing an internal audit staff
Q3) Bonding provides a guarantee against theft.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following attributes of internal control would be violated if the chief accounting clerk wrote checks to pay accounts payable?
A) Adequate design of documents
B) Sound personnel procedures
C) Periodic independent verification
D) Separation of duties

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Q1) Costs incurred in storing inventory usually are included in inventory costs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An understatement of year 1's beginning inventory will
A) cause year 2's gross margin to be overstated.
B) cause year 1's cost of goods sold to be understated.
C) cause year 2's gross margin to be understated.
D) have no effect on year 1's gross margin.
Q3) For each of the following descriptive statements, indicate whether FIFO or LIFO is being described.
_____ 1. Preferable method for conforming to matching principle
_____ 2. Preferable method for tax purposes under rising prices
_____ 3. Results in more up-to-date ending inventory figure
_____ 4. Results in fictitious profits under rising prices
_____ 5. Produces higher income when prices are declining
_____ 6. Produces higher ending inventory when prices are rising
Q4) The higher the inventory turnover, the higher the days' inventory on hand.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the chief objective of supply-chain management? How is it accomplished?
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Q1) Securitization delays the receipt of cash from sales made on credit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Use this information to answer the following question. The general ledger account for Accounts Receivable shows a debit balance of $50,000. Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts has a credit balance of $1,000. Net sales for the year were $500,000. In the past, 2 percent of sales have proved uncollectible, and an aging of accounts receivable accounts results in an estimate of $13,500 of uncollectible accounts. Using the accounts receivable aging method, the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts balance (after adjustment) would be
A) $14,500.
B) $14,000.
C) $13,500.
D) $12,500.
Q3) Both the allowance method and the direct charge-off method are acceptable for tax purposes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a compensating balance? By whom is it required?
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Q1) A company sells merchandise on a deferred payment plan, ultimately receiving $5,000 on the account receivable. On the payment date, the company would
A) credit Accounts Receivable for less than $5,000.
B) debit Interest Income for the imputed amount.
C) credit Sales for less than $5,000.
D) debit the asset account for $5,000.
Q2) The product warranty liability is an example of an estimated liability.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lines of credit from the bank need not be disclosed in the financial statements or in the notes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements is true regarding the time value of money?
A) Compound interest will produce equal amounts of interest each period on a fixed deposit.
B) Earning simple interest is more beneficial than earning compound interest.
C) When making a purchase, it is better to make payment as soon as possible.
D) It is better to receive $1 now than a year from now.
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Q1) Rebuilding the engine of a company vehicle is an example of an ordinary repair.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Indicate whether each of the following items normally would be considered a capital expenditure (C) or a revenue expenditure (R).
_____ 1. Oil change for company vehicle
_____ 2. Replacement of a few roof shingles
_____ 3. Cost to overhaul the heating system
_____ 4. Battery replacement for company vehicle
_____ 5. Painting factory walls
_____ 6. Installation of expensive paneling in executive offices
Q3) When a company can prove it is worth more than its balance sheet indicates, it may record some goodwill.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ordinary repairs usually result in a debit to the appropriate Accumulated Depreciation account.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Stockholders elect the board of directors who appoints the officers of a corporation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Beckham Corporation has 3,000 shares of $100 par value, 7 percent cumulative preferred stock, and 10,000 shares of $10 par value common stock outstanding during its first five years of operation. Beckham Corporation paid cash dividends as follows: 2006, $10,500; 2007, $0; 2008, $65,000; 2009, $30,000; 2010, $15,000. The amount of dividends in arrears at the end of 2007 was
A) $0.
B) $10,500.
C) $17,500
D) $31,500.
Q3) A liquidating dividend is
A) a dividend that exceeds current retained earnings.
B) normally declared when a corporation is experiencing large profits.
C) a dividend that exceeds current profits.
D) legal in most states.
Q4) Why must a corporation have sufficient retained earnings before it may declare cash dividends?
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Q1) The market interest rate is the rate that an issuer of bonds actually will have to bear and that an investor (purchaser) actually will earn over the bond's life.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Term bonds are bonds that
A) are also called serial bonds.
B) may be called in and redeemed by the issuing corporation prior to their scheduled maturity date.
C) are secured by specific assets of the issuing corporation.
D) mature in one lump sum at a single maturity date.
Q3) Bondholders are creditors of the issuing corporation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Under an operating lease, the lessee
A) debits Capital Lease Equipment.
B) debits Rent Expense.
C) records depreciation on the leased asset.
D) credits Capital Lease Obligations.
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Q1) Which of the following would have the least likelihood of being treated as an extraordinary item?
A) Uninsured loss from earthquake
B) Gain or loss on sale of equipment
C) Gain or loss arising from enactment of new law
D) Uninsured loss from fire
Q2) How do the accounting conventions of full disclosure and consistency facilitate the interpretation of the quality of earnings?
Q3) An extraordinary loss of $250,000 that results in income tax savings of $60,000 should be reported as an extraordinary loss (net of tax) of $190,000 on the income statement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Income tax allocation procedures are justified by which of the following basic concepts?
A) Cash basis accounting
B) Revenue recognition
C) Conservatism
D) Matching
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Q1) Under the indirect method, gains or losses from the sale of equipment used in operations would appear as adjustments in the cash flows from operating activities section of the statement of cash flows.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Royer Corporation engaged in this transaction: Paid interest on note.
Indicate which section, if any, the above transaction would appear in, or relate to, on a statement of cash flows.
A) Financing activities section
B) Schedule of noncash investing and financing transactions
C) Investing activities section
D) Operating activities section
Q3) The statement of cash flows shows the effects on net income of a company's operating, investing, and financing activities for an accounting period.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cash flows to assets is measured in "times."
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the effect of the payment of an account payable on the current ratio and the quick ratio, respectively? (Assume the current ratio was 2.3 times and the quick ratio was 2.1 times before this transaction.)
A) Decrease in current ratio; no effect on quick ratio
B) Increase in current ratio; increase in quick ratio
C) No effect on current ratio; no effect on quick ratio
D) Decrease in current ratio; decrease in quick ratio
Q2) Days' payable is a measure of
A) liquidity.
B) volatility.
C) long-term solvency.
D) profitability.
Q3) What is the best way to study the relationship of the components of financial statements?
A) Perform ratio analysis.
B) Perform trend analysis.
C) Perform horizontal analysis.
D) Prepare common-size statements.
Q4) What is vertical analysis, and why is it useful in performing financial performance measurement?
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Q1) It is possible to allocate income or loss to partners based solely on interest.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of partnerships?
A) Limited life
B) Limited liability
C) Voluntary association
D) Mutual agency
Q3) Total partners' equity will not change when a withdrawing partner
A) withdraws assets equal to his or her capital balance
B) withdraws assets amounting to less than his or her capital balance
C) sells his or her interest to a new or remaining partner
D) withdraws assets amounting to greater than his or her capital balance
Q4) A partner will not bind the partnership to an outside purchase contract when the
A) the item purchased is considered immaterial in amount
B) item purchased is not within the normal scope of the business
C) partner was not authorized by the other partners to make the purchase
D) partner who made the purchase withdraws from the partnership
Q5) Describe how a dissolution of a partnership is different from a liquidation of a partnership.
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Q1) Although some management accountants strive to update their knowledge and skills, such updating is not within the realm of management accountants' ethical standards.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Activity-based management is an extension of activity-based costing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The just-in-time philosophy emphasizes
A) completing products on schedule.
B) increasing production.
C) finishing all products before starting new ones.
D) eliminating waste.
Q4) Accountants have ranked among the highest in ethics among business professions and other occupations. List and briefly describe five ethical standards that management accountants subscribe to that, in your opinion, help maintain the impression that accountants are highly ethical.
Q5) JIT, TQM, and ABM all seek continuous improvement in operations.
A)True
B)False
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Questions
Q1) Sleney Company applies overhead on the basis of direct labor dollars, using a rate of $1.65 per labor dollar. How much overhead would be applied to products in January if $15,200 of labor costs were incurred and 2,200 labor hours were worked?
A) $33,440
B) $25,080
C) $3,630
D) $15,200
Q2) Prime costs consist of
A) direct materials and overhead.
B) direct labor and overhead.
C) direct labor and indirect labor.
D) direct materials and direct labor.
Q3) For a manufactured product, all costs incurred to get the product ready for sale are included in the inventory value of the product.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The product is the cost object when assigning indirect product costs.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Costs for individual jobs are maintained on job order cost cards when job order costing is in use.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Process costing is applicable to production operations that A) utilize several processes, departments, or work cells in a series.
B) do not assign overhead costs to operations.
C) produce products that are made to order.
D) are found in only a few industries.
Q3) In a process costing system, product costs are traced to individual products. A)True
B)False
Q4) The typical product costing system in a factory incorporates parts of both job order costing and process costing to create a hybrid system.
A)True B)False
Q5) In a job order costing system, the Factory Payroll account is a clearing account. A)True B)False
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Q1) In a process costing system, unit cost is computed
A) on the basis of productive output for a period of time.
B) for each job worked on.
C) for direct materials costs only.
D) only for the last production process.
Q2) In a process costing system, each department's production costs are transferred to the next department and ultimately to the Finished Goods Inventory account.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a process costing system, the cost of ending work in process inventory for a period can be verified by reference to supporting analysis in A) materials requisitions and labor time tickets.
B) cost recap included in the statement of production.
C) cost recap included in the process cost report.
D) none of the above.
Q4) In a process costing system, products flow in a LIFO manner, from department to department.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A manufacturer of audio equipment employing an activity-based cost hierarchy uses the unit, batch, product, and facility levels to classify its activities. A facility-level activity is
A) testing products.
B) redesigning the process.
C) lighting the factory.
D) materials handling.
Q2) How does pull-through production help minimize inventories in a just-in-time operating environment?
A) Products are made in anticipation of customer demand.
B) Products are made only when customer orders are received.
C) Products are made in large production runs.
D) Products are made identically.
Q3) A bill of activities is useful for estimating a company's profits. A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is process value analysis not part of the general ledger accounting system?
Q5) The JIT operating philosophy requires pull-through production system.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Theoretical operating capacity is the level at which management expects to operate during a normal business environment.
A)True B)False
Q2) Cost-volume-profit analysis assumes a constant sales mix. A)True
B)False
Q3) If the contribution margin on a new product line is $15, fixed costs are $165,000, and the total market for the product is 22,000 units, then the breakeven analysis would recommend that the company
A) abandon the new product line.
B) decrease the sales price per unit.
C) increase fixed costs (such as advertising) to lower the breakeven units. D) adopt the new product line.
Q4) Explain what cost-volume-profit analysis is and how managers use it. Give examples of some purposes for which it might be used.
Q5) The contribution margin and the gross margin can be used interchangeably. A)True B)False
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Q1) Successful budget implementation depends on two factors-clear communication and the support of top management.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following provides the catalyst for all operating budgets?
A) Firm's ten-year plan
B) Production budget (units)
C) Capital expenditures budget
D) Unit sales forecast
Q3) Hang 12 manufactures surfboards. During the upcoming quarter, it expects to sell 4,100 surfboards, after which it plans to have 500 surfboards remaining in inventory. If it currently has 200 surfboards on hand, how many surfboards will Hang 12 have to produce for the upcoming quarter?
A) 4,400
B) 3,800
C) 4,100
D) 3,400
Q4) Projected financial statements are the final product of the budgeting process.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Most organizations use very similar performance measures in their day-to-day business operations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When developing performance measures, management must consider a number of different issues besides what to measure and how to measure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A variable costing income statement is essentially the same as a traditional income statement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Employer-provided health insurance is a common type of incentive compensation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The causal links between an organization's goals, objectives, measures, performance targets need not be apparent.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Although expensive to install and maintain, a standard cost accounting system can save a company considerable amounts of money by reducing resource waste.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss standard costing. As part of your discussion, define a standard cost. In addition, compare and contrast standard costs and predetermined overhead costs. Include in your discussion at least three reasons why standard costs are introduced into a cost accounting system. How is a standard cost accounting system useful to management?
Q3) Using the labor time standard of 0.5 labor hour per unit and a labor cost standard of $10 per labor hour for a 10 pound bag of chocolate and the following actual cost and usage data, compute the direct labor variance. Direct labor haurs used \(\quad 4,950 \) hours
Total cost of direct labor \(\quad \$ 53,460\)
Number of good urits produced \(\quad 9,000 \)units
A) $3,960 (F)
B) $8,460 (U)
C) $3,960 (U)
D) $8,460 (F)
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Q1) Products Green, Red, and White have unit contribution margins of $6.50, $12, and $10, respectively, and require 2, 4, and 3 direct labor hours per unit, respectively. If demand currently is far exceeding supply, on which product should the company concentrate its efforts?
A) Green
B) Red
C) White
D) Either Green or Red
Q2) Make-or-buy decisions, such as whether to make a part internally or buy it from an external supplier, may lead to outsourcing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Accountants assign joint costs to products or services while calculating the cost of goods sold because joint costs are also relevant. The most beneficial projects are the ones with the lowest net present value.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the qualitative factors that should be considered in short-run decision making.
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Q1) Supporting poor-return proposals that fall below the minimum rate of return eventually lowers the entire company's profitability.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Only large corporations benefit from capital investment analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Capital investment analysis is also known as capital budgeting.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Employees from every part of the organization participate in capital investment analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Special Industries is considering investing $40 million in plant expansion. Management needs to know the average cost of capital to use in evaluating this capital investment decision. The company's capital structure consists of $4,000,000 of debt at 3 percent interest and $6,000,000 of stockholders' equity at 4 percent. What is the average cost of capital of Special Industries.
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