Field Methods in Ecology
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Field Methods in Ecology introduces students to the practical techniques and methodologies used to study ecological systems in natural environments. The course covers essential skills such as experimental design, data collection, species identification, habitat assessment, and the use of ecological monitoring equipment. Students gain hands-on experience through field trips, fieldwork projects, and analysis of ecological data, allowing them to understand the dynamics of plant and animal populations, community structure, and ecosystem processes. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, safety in the field, and the application of field data to contemporary ecological questions and conservation efforts.
Recommended Textbook
Elements of Ecology 1st Canadian Edition by Thomas M. Smith
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ecologist who adds different amounts of nitrogen to specific plots of grasses uses a(n)________ to answer her research question.
Answer: field experiment
Q2) Whether abiotic or biotic, environmental factors fall into one of three categories
A)resources, conditions, or hazards.
B)animal, vegetable, or mineral.
C)food, water, or mates.
D)individual, population, or community.
Answer: A
Q3) The ________ forms the basic unit in ecology.
Answer: individual organism
Q4) A model is used by ecologists to
A)prove how nature works by demonstrating cause and effect relationships.
B)analyze data that have been collected during an experiment.
C)make predictions about how nature works using a set of explicit assumptions.
D)observe how nature works in an experimental setting.
Answer: C
Q5) Bird wingspan would be considered ________ data.
Answer: numerical
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Chapter 2: Climate
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Q1) Explain why the saturation vapour pressure increases with air temperature. How does relative humidity change in response to air warming or cooling?
Answer: The saturation vapour pressure increases with air temperature because as the temperature of the air rises, the kinetic energy of the water molecules also increases. This increased kinetic energy allows more water molecules to escape from the liquid water and enter the air as water vapour, leading to an increase in the saturation vapour pressure.
Relative humidity is a measure of the amount of water vapour present in the air compared to the maximum amount of water vapour the air can hold at a given temperature. As air warms, its ability to hold water vapour increases, so the relative humidity decreases. Conversely, as air cools, its ability to hold water vapour decreases, so the relative humidity increases.
In summary, as air temperature increases, the saturation vapour pressure increases, and the relative humidity decreases. Conversely, as air temperature decreases, the saturation vapour pressure decreases, and the relative humidity increases.
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Chapter 3: The Aquatic Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Precipitation that reaches the soil moves into the ground by ________.
Answer: infiltration
Q2) The solubility of gases in water is a function of pressure, salinity, and ________.
Answer: temperature
Q3) Individual water molecules are held together by covalent bonds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Aquifers, like the High-Plains Ogallala aquifer, provide a limitless supply of water.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The pH of aquatic environments
A)remains the same regardless of the water source.
B)may affect the solubility of toxic metals.
C)has little influence on living organisms.
D)is usually very acidic (pH < 3).
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: The Terrestrial Environment
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Q1) The aboveground parts (e.g., leaves)of most plants are coated with a waxy ________ that reduces water loss.
Q2) All the following are factors that affect the attenuation of light in water, EXCEPT
A)phytoplankton.
B)water itself.
C)intensity of light.
D)dissolved substances.
Q3) Iron oxides give soil a purplish to black colour.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The soil in a particular area is arranged in layers called horizons that will vary in texture, structure, and consistency from one another.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The bedrock lies above the C horizon.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A collective sequence of horizontal layers in soil is a ________.
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Chapter 5: Ecological Genetics: Adaptation and Natural Selection
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Q1) ________ mating occurs when individuals choose mates non-randomly.
Q2) Use an example to explain how and why the genotype and environment influence the phenotype of an organism.
Q3) Bacteria may become resistant to an antibiotic via mutation, plasmid transfer, or ________.
Q4) Disruptive selection favours individuals possessing traits near the mean value of a population.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Individual beak size of individual finches of the Galapagos islands
A)may change during a bird's lifetime.
B)will always match the beak size useful for seed foraging. C)has nothing to do with overall population characteristics.
D)will greatly influence individual survival.
Q6) The specific traits of a particular organism in a given environment are called A)mutations. B)genes.
C)adaptations. D)phenotypes.
Q7) Organisms can respond to both temporal and ________ changes in the Page 7
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Chapter 6: Plant Adaptations to the Environment
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Q1) The ratio of carbon fixed (photosynthesis)per unit of water lost (transpiration)is called the ________.
Q2) ________ tissue provides vertical support to the plant and elevates leaves.
Q3) Plants adapted to low-nutrient environments attain maximum growth rate at much lower nitrogen levels than high-nutrient plants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A ________ is a daily pattern of physiological response to an environmental cycle.
A)biological clock
B)circadian rhythm
C)photoperiod
D)jet-lag event
Q5) Net carbon uptake per unit time by a plant is directly related to A)the difference between photosynthetic rate and respiration rate.
B)photosynthetic rate.
C)respiration rate.
D)the difference between photosynthetic rate and decomposition rate.
Q6) C plants use the enzyme ________ to fix CO .
Q7) Explain why all of life on Earth ultimately depends on photosynthesis.
Page 9
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Chapter 7: Animal Adaptations to the Environment
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Q1) Discuss and describe several different strategies that herbivores use to extract nutrients from a cellulose-rich diet.
Q2) That organisms rely on multiple environmental cues to determine circadian rhythms is known as ________.
Q3) The primary problem for carnivores is to digest enough cellulose.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A process of temporarily dropping body temperature to the temperature of the environment for part of the day is called ________.
Q5) Aquatic organisms that have a lower salt concentration in their bodies than the surrounding water are considered ________.
Q6) Fiddler crabs are still dependent on tidal cycles for circadian rhythms of body colour in a controlled lab setting.
A)True
B)False
Q7) In what environment would you expect an organism with evaginated organs to live? Why?
Q8) ________ is the ability to transmit heat.
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Chapter 8: Life History Patterns
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Sample Questions
Q1) J. Philip Grime developed a life history classification for A)plants.
B)mollusks.
C)vertebrates.
D)marine fish.
Q2) The dominant phenotypes in a population may be determined by factors other than natural selection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is a mode of reproduction in which an organism expends all its energy in growth and reproduction and then dies.
Q4) ________ is the killing of one sibling by another.
Q5) The more seeds a plant produces in a single reproductive episode, the ________ of each seed.
A)greater the probability of survival
B)smaller the size
C)greater the size
D)more irregular the shape
Q6) Seed number is negatively correlated with seed ________.
Q7) Explain sexual dimorphism from a Darwinian perspective.
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Chapter 9: Properties of Populations
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Q1) The population is a genetic unit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A population will decrease in size when the number of individuals born exceeds the number of individuals that die.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a modular organism?
A)frog
B)coral
C)cat
D)butterfly
Q4) Describe several approaches used by ecologists to establish age structure for plant and animal populations.
Q5) The age of a tree is commonly determined by
A)estimating tree height.
B)assessing the rate of CO consumption.
C)measuring the diameter of a trunk at breast height (dbh).
D)counting the number of leaves.
Q6) Explain the three common spatial dispersal patterns and when they would occur.
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Population Growth
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Q1) The exponential model of population growth assumes
A)that essential resources are unlimited.
B)a changeable environment.
C)that all individuals in the population are the same age.
D)a constant mortality rate throughout the population.
Q2) The life table is most useful in studying all the following areas of plant demography, EXCEPT
A)life cycles of perennial plants.
B)life cycles of annual plants.
C)seedling mortality and survival.
D)population dynamics of perennial plants marked as seedlings.
Q3) A population's ________ factors determine demographic stochasticity.
A)extrinsic
B)intrinsic
C)independent
D)predicted
Q4) Ecologists develop a ________ life table to follow the fate of a group of individuals, all born at a given time, from birth to death.
Q5) ________ is the study of populations.
Q6) Movement in and out of a population does not occur in a(n)________ population.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Intraspecific Population Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the wild, the regional population size of wolves is controlled by
A)alpha male dominance.
B)beta female reproduction.
C)other predators.
D)food supply.
Q2) Fecundity
A)is unrelated to population density.
B)decreases as population density increases.
C)increases as population density increases.
D)decreases for females only as population density increases.
Q3) The area that an animal normally uses during a year is its ________.
Q4) Which of the following is considered a density-dependent factor that regulates population growth?
A)hurricane
B)disease
C)earthquake
D)forest fire
Q5) Explain why high population density might stress an organism. Provide several examples of some of the negative impacts of stress on an organism.
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Chapter 12: Metapopulations
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Q1) At the metapopulation, or ________ scale, population dynamics are governed by the interaction of local populations.
Q2) Discuss three characteristics of species that affect their potential rates of colonization and extinction.
Q3) A ________ population cannot support a positive population growth and is only able to persist when individuals immigrate from elsewhere.
Q4) The extinction rate (E)of a metapopulation ________ as the proportion of patches occupied (P)increases.
Q5) At the ________, or within-patch scale, individuals move and interact with each other in the course of their routine feeding and breeding activities.
Q6) In a metapopulation, within-patch population dynamics are governed primarily by A)birth and death rates. B)dispersal and colonization. C)predation and parasitism. D)stochastic processes.
Q7) Define an interspecific metapopulation. What are the repercussions of this concept in conservation management?
Q8) A ________ is a collection of metapopulations in a geographic region.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Interspecific Competition
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Q1) According to the Lotka-Volterra equations, there are two possible outcomes of interspecific competition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A study which moves potential competitors in or out of sample plots is known as ________ experiments.
A)competitive
B)transplant
C)removal
D)null
Q3) How can a disturbance influence interspecific competition?
Q4) The portion of the fundamental niche that an organism actually exploits in the presence of competitors is called its ________ niche.
Q5) Explain the significance between generalists and specialists when describing niche compression and competitive release.
Q6) Competition has been regarded as a major force behind species divergence and specialization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Predation
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Q1) According to the marginal value theorem, the amount of time a predator spends foraging in a patch will vary with resource quality and the time required to extract the resource.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Under the marginal value theorem, when patch quality is equal, what other factor is expected to influence the time a predator spends foraging in a patch?
A)handling time of prey
B)time spent traveling to the patch
C)patch size
D)prey density
Q3) Discuss the costs and benefits of each of the three hunting methods employed by predators.
Q4) The Red Queen hypothesis refers to
A)Hardy-Weinberg evolution.
B)coevolution.
C)directional selection.
D)predator-prey oscillation.
Q5) The concept of ________ energy is the basis for models of optimal foraging.
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Chapter 15: Parasitism and Mutualism
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Q1) The ________ host is a host species that harbors a developmental stage of a parasite, but in which the parasite does not reach maturity.
Q2) Relatively small parasites, such as viruses, bacteria, and protozoans, are referred to as ________-parasites.
Q3) In a commensalistic relationship between two species, both species benefit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After infection occurs, the first line of defence for a host against a parasite is the ________ response.
Q5) Some symbiotic mutualisms involve defence against herbivores.
A)True B)False
Q6) Zooxanthellae are algae living within the tissues of reef-forming corals.
A)True B)False
Q7) Symbiosis is an interaction between two species that is beneficial to both species. A)True B)False
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Chapter 16: Community Structure
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Q1) Indirect interactions occur when
A)one species is influenced by interactions with many species.
B)one species does not interact with a second species but influences a third species, which interacts directly with the second.
C)a prey species is controlled by a predator species.
D)a predator species is controlled by a prey species.
Q2) The ________ is a group of plant and animal species that inhabit a given area.
Q3) In a forest community, the site where decomposition occurs and decaying organic matter releases nutrients for reuse by plants is called the forest ________.
Q4) In aquatic ecosystems, the thermocline occurs in the epilimnion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Draw a diagram of a simple food web with three trophic levels, and describe the difference between a food chain and a food web
Q6) Environmental heterogeneity is often negatively correlated with species diversity across habitats.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Community Dynamics
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Q1) Egler's initial floristic composition hypothesis posits that the process of succession at any site is dependent on which species get there first.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The view of communities as species responding independently to the underlying features of the environment, rather than being interdependent, is referred to as the ________ concept of communities.
A)autogenic
B)organismal
C)individualistic, or continuum
D)allogenic
Q3) Disturbances, such as fire, can sometimes increase coexistence between species and can increase diversity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Within an area, a group of sites that are at different stages of succession is known as a ________.
Q5) Define the term chronosequence. Under what conditions is this method of study most valid?
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Chapter 18: Landscape Ecology
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Q1) Discuss the major ecological differences between edge species and interior species.
Q2) The intensity of a disturbance is measured by the proportion of total biomass or the population of a species that is killed or eliminated by a disturbance.
A)True B)False
Q3) Fire is a human-caused disturbance that is not a natural part of ecosystems.
A)True B)False
Q4) A relatively wide area that forms a gradual zone of transition between two adjoining patches is called a(n) A)border.
B)edge.
C)ecotone. D)matrix.
Q5) Patch size is generally more important for plant populations than for animal populations.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 19: Systems Ecology
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Q1) David Tilman's study on grassland communities showed that productivity and biomass ________ with increased species richness.
A)increased
B)decreased
C)remained stable
D)followed no trend
Q2) A trait that is characteristic of the system as a whole but is not observable in any one part is a(n)________ property.
A)established
B)crucial
C)emergent
D)inconspicuous
Q3) Compare and contrast resistance and resilience.
Q4) It is observed that smaller plants do much poorer and grow less in ecosystems dominated by larger plants. This is due to
A)size asymmetric competition.
B)size symmetric competition.
C)the paradox of productivity.
D)nutrient limitation.
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Chapter 20: Ecosystem Energetic
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Q1) In terrestrial and shallow-water ecosystems, the grazing food chain is dominant over the detrital food chain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Production efficiency is the proportion of the energy ingested that is assimilated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Wealthy nations typically have lower rates of human appropriation of net primary productivity (HANPP)than developing nations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Energy is assimilated by plants through the process of A)decomposition.
B)respiration.
C)photosynthesis.
D)regeneration.
Q5) Net primary productivity is greater in the open ocean than along the coast. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Decomposition and Nutrient Cycling
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Q1) Estuaries receive nutrients both from tides and from streams and rivers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Roots can alter the chemical environment of the rhizosphere by exuding A)carbon.
B)nitrogen.
C)enzymes.
D)nothing. Toots can only absorb, they cannot exude.
Q3) In an estuary, the zone of maximum vertical difference in density is called a(n)________.
Q4) The initial phase of animal decomposition is A)extracellular digestion. B)liquefaction.
C)putrefaction.
D)autolysis.
Q5) Bacteria, fungi, and animals are all important in decomposition.
A)True B)False
Q6) Explain how the "quality" of plant-derived organic matter changes during the course of decomposition.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) Oxygen is taken up by plants during photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Oceans represent the largest natural source of sulfur gases released to the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Precipitation brings appreciable quantities of nutrients into ecosystems that are collectively called ________.
Q4) Describe how an atom of phosphorus might move from the crystal lattice of a mineral in a rock, through a plant, and into the ocean.
Q5) The source of all carbon in living organisms is A)simple sugars.
B)carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and in water.
C)carbon-fixing bacteria.
D)sedimentary rocks.
Q6) Describe how ozone is formed at different levels of the atmosphere and how biological organisms are affected by ozone.
Q7) The major source of free oxygen that supports life on Earth is the ________.
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Chapter 23: Terrestrial Ecosystems
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Q1) Discuss the factors that limit the growth of trees in savannahs and grasslands.
Q2) Shrubs and grasses allocate more carbon to the production of supportive tissues than trees.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Buttresses, which are broad outgrowths at the base of trees, are best developed in
A)temperate deciduous forest.
B)coniferous forest.
C)tropical rain forest.
D)temperate shrubland.
Q4) Identify four Canadian biomes and state their dominant characteristics.
Q5) Tundra occurs only at high latitudes in polar regions.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Frozen, treeless plains dominated by sedges, heaths, and willows at high latitudes and elevations are referred to as ________.
Q7) Tropical ________ refers to vegetation in the drier tropics and subtropics that is dominated by a ground cover of grasses with scattered shrubs or trees.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Aquatic Ecosystems
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Q1) The dominant autotrophs of the open water are
A)phytoplankton.
B)kelp.
C)seagrasses.
D)stromatolites.
Q2) The zone in the ocean from the surface to approximately 200 metres deep is called the ________, or photic, zone.
Q3) Describe the physical conditions to which organisms living in an estuary must be adapted.
Q4) Coral reefs grow best where water is
A)warm, shallow, and clear.
B)warm, deep, and clear.
C)cold, shallow, and clear.
D)cold, deep, and murky.
Q5) As a stream or river descends, it generally grows
A)faster and cooler.
B)slower and warmer.
C)faster and warmer.
D)slower and cooler.
Q6) ________ refers to the nutrient enrichment of aquatic ecosystems.
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Coastal and Wetland Ecosystems
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Q1) Seasonally flooded, forested wetlands along river systems are referred to as bottomlands, or ________ woodlands.
Q2) Salinity is more variable in the intertidal zone of rocky shores than in sandy and muddy shores.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Riverine wetlands usually have a longer hydroperiod than basin wetlands.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the effects of tides on the composition of animal communities in salt marshes.
Q5) Peatlands differ from other wetlands in that
A)the rate of organic production exceeds the rate of decomposition.
B)there is no outflow of water, resulting in increasing salinities.
C)they are seasonal, filling with water during the wet season and drying out during the dry season.
D)they have a two-way flow of water due to tidal action.
Q6) The littoral, or ________, zone of a rocky shoreline is submerged daily and is exposed by tides.
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Population Growth, Resource Use, and Sustainability
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Q1) The technique of adding and comparing costs and benefits at different points in time is referred to as
A)benefit-cost analysis.
B)discounting.
C)external analysis.
D)profit-debt analysis.
Q2) When chemical fertilizers are transported from agricultural lands into adjacent aquatic habitats, accelerated nutrient enrichment of aquatic habitats leads to major ecological changes termed cultural ________.
Q3) For the exploitation of a resource to be sustainable, the consumption rate must be equal to or greater than the regeneration rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some nonrenewable resources may be recycled, which extends the effective lifetime of a resource.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how a natural ecosystem 'manages' its nutrients.
Q6) ________-cutting is the complete removal of a forest during harvest.
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Chapter 27: Conservation Ecology
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Q1) As elevation increases, the number of terrestrial species ________.
Q2) What are the three major reasons that biodiversity should be preserved?
Q3) The dispersal of plants and animals from one reserve to another within a network of reserves is best accomplished by
A)establishing buffer zones around reserves.
B)linking reserves with habitat corridors.
C)reintroducing individuals born and raised in captivity.
D)relocating individuals captured within their natural habitat.
Q4) Conservations often attempt to restore a locally extinct population of a species through ________ into the wild of individuals from captive-bred populations
Q5) In Saskatchewan's Grassland National Park, native mixed-grass prairie was restored by
A)destroying Agropyron cristatum.
B)planting Agropyron cristatum.
C)seeding the soil with fungus.
D)keeping herbivores, such as bison, from grazing.
Q6) Choose one of several mass extinction events of the past or present and discuss the potential cause(s)of the mass extinction.
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Chapter 28: Global Climate Change
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Q1) Is there an argument for studying ecology from a global perspective? If so, what would be the challenges?
Q2) Plants usually react to increased atmospheric carbon dioxide by increasing their rate of ________.
Q3) Which of the following biomes is most likely to increase its primary productivity in response to an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide?
A)temperate coniferous forest
B)tropical rainforest
C)temperate grassland
D)temperate deciduous forest
Q4) According to general circulation models, warming is expected to be most significant during the ________ season and in northern latitudes.
Q5) Deforestation causes a decrease in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The atmospheric concentration of ________ has increased by more than 25% in the past century, largely due to the burning of fossil fuels.
Q7) Decomposition proceeds faster under warm and ________ conditions.
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