Family Health Nursing Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Family Health Nursing explores the principles and practices necessary for delivering comprehensive health care to families across the lifespan. This course emphasizes the role of the nurse in assessing family health needs, promoting wellness, preventing illness, and managing acute and chronic conditions within the family context. Students will learn to apply family-centered care models, develop culturally sensitive interventions, and collaborate with multidisciplinary teams to support family functioning and resilience. Topics include health education, communication strategies, family dynamics, developmental stages, and the impact of social determinants on family health outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/168
Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2149
Sample Questions
Q1) Which response by the nurse is the most therapeutic when the patient states, "I'm so afraid to have a cesarean birth"?
A) "Everything will be OK."
B) "Don't worry about it. It will be over soon."
C) "What concerns you most about a cesarean birth?"
D) "The physician will be in later and you can talk to him."
Answer: C
Q2) A nurse educator is teaching a group of nursing students about the history of family-centered maternity care. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A)The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 promoted family-centered care.
B)Changes in pharmacologic management of labor prompted family-centered care.
C)Demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth increased the practice of family-centered care.
D)Parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery initiated the practice of family-centered care.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2150
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse in labor and birth is caring for a Muslim patient during the active phase of labor. The nurse notes that the patient quickly draws away when touched. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Ask the charge nurse to reassign you to another patient.
B) Assume that she does not like you and decrease your time with her.
C) Continue to touch her as much as you need to while providing care.
D) Limit touching to a minimum because physical contact may not be acceptable in her culture.
Answer: D
Q2) During which phase of the cycle of violence does the batterer become contrite and remorseful?
A) Battering
B) Honeymoon
C) Tension-building
D) Increased drug taking
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2151
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing normal female development with a mother of a 10-year-old daughter. The mother states, "I noticed that my daughter developed breast buds about a year ago. When do you think she will start her menstrual cycle?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "In about a year."
B) "Likely any time now."
C) "Does your daughter know what to expect?"
D) "It is impossible to predict when she will start her cycle."
Answer: A
Q2) Delayed onset of menstruation or primary amenorrhea is considered if the girl's periods have not begun by which age in years? Record your answer in a whole number.
Answer: 16
Delayed onset of menstruation is called primary amenorrhea if the girl's periods have not begun within 2 years after the onset of breast development or by age 16, or if the girl is more than 1 year older than her mother or sisters were when their menarche occurred.
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2152
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse receives report on an infant whose analysis indicates 47 total chromosomes, with the abnormality noted at chromosome 21. Which additional assessments will the nurse include when evaluating the infant?
A) Cleft palate
B) Protruding tongue
C) Extra fingers or toes (polydactyly)
D) Intellectual developmental delay
Q2) Testing for the cause of anomalies in a stillborn infant is underway. The mother angrily asks the nurse how long these tests are going to take. The nurse should understand that this mother is
A) exhibiting normal grief behavior.
B) trying to place blame on someone.
C) being impatient and unreasonable.
D) feeling guilty and blaming herself.
Q3) Which statement regarding multifactorial disorders is correct?
A) They may not be evident until later in life.
B) They are usually present and detectable at birth.
C) The disorders are characterized by multiple defects.
D) Secondary defects are rarely associated with them.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2153
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning a prenatal class on fetal development. Which characteristics of prenatal development should the nurse include for a fetus of 24 weeks, based on fertilization age? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ear cartilage firm
B) Skin wrinkled and red
C) Testes descending toward the inguinal rings
D) Surfactant production nears mature levels
E) Fetal movement becoming progressively more noticeable
Q2) The nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth. After assigning the first Apgar score of 9, the nurse notes two vessels in the umbilical cord. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.
B) Note the assessment finding in the infant's chart.
C) Notify the health care provider of the assessment finding.
D) Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to attend the infant immediately.
Q3) What is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?
A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum
B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division
C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge
D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum
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Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which comment made by a patient in her first trimester indicates ambivalent feelings?
A) "My body is changing so quickly."
B) "I haven't felt well since this pregnancy began."
C) "I'm concerned about the amount of weight I've gained."
D) "I wanted to become pregnant, but I'm scared about being a mother."
Q2) A pregnant patient comes into the medical clinic stating that her family and friends are telling her that she is always talking about the pregnancy and nothing else. She is concerned that something is wrong with her. What psychological behavior is she exhibiting?
A) Antepartum obsession
B) Ambivalence
C) Uncertainty
D) Introversion
Q3) Which situation best describes a man trying on fathering behaviors?
A) Reading books on newborn care
B) Spending more time with his siblings
C) Coaching a little league baseball team
D) Exhibiting physical symptoms related to pregnancy
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2155
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is scheduling the next appointment for a healthy primigravida currently at 28 weeks gestation. When will the nurse schedule the next prenatal visit?
A) 1 week
B) 2 weeks
C) 3 weeks
D) 4 weeks
Q2) You are performing assessments for an obstetric patient who is 5 months pregnant with her third child. Which finding would cause you to suspect that the patient was at risk?
A) Patient states that she doesn't feel any Braxton Hicks contractions like she had in her prior pregnancies.
B) Fundal height is below the umbilicus.
C) Cervical changes, such as Goodell's sign and Chadwick's sign, are present.
D) She has increased vaginal secretions.
Q3) Calculate the estimated date of birth (EDD) in October using Nägele's rule for a patient whose last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on January 1. Record your answer as a whole number. _______
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Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2156
Sample Questions
Q1) When should iron supplementation during a normal pregnancy begin?
A) Before pregnancy
B) In the first trimester
C) In the third trimester
D) In the second trimester
Q2) Which patient is most at risk for a low-birth-weight infant?
A) 22-year-old, 60 inches tall, normal prepregnant weight
B) 18-year-old, 64 inches tall, body mass index is <18.5
C) 30-year-old, 78 inches tall, prepregnant weight is 15 lb above the norm
D) 35-year-old, 75 inches tall, total weight gain in previous pregnancies was 33 lb
Q3) The nurse is teaching a breastfeeding patient about substances to avoid while she is breastfeeding. Which substances should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Omega-6 fatty acids
D) Appetite suppressants
E) Polyunsaturated omega-3 fatty acids
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Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2157
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in maternal serum is to determine whether the fetus has which condition?
A) Hemophilia
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) A neural tube defect
D) Abnormal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
Q2) Which factors should be considered a contraindication for transcervical chorionic villus sampling?
A) Rh-negative mother
B) Gestation less than 15 weeks
C) Maternal age younger than 35 years
D) Positive for group B Streptococcus
Q3) What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test (CST)?
A) Increase placental blood flow.
B) Identify fetal acceleration patterns.
C) Determine the degree of fetal activity.
D) Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus.
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11
Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor is most important in diminishing maternal, fetal, and neonatal complications in a pregnant patient with diabetes?
A) Evaluation of retinopathy by an ophthalmologist
B) The patient's stable emotional and psychological status
C) Degree of glycemic control before and during the pregnancy
D) Total protein excretion and creatinine clearance within normal limits
Q2) The clinic nurse is performing a prenatal assessment on a pregnant patient at risk for preeclampsia. Which clinical sign would not present as a symptom of preeclampsia?
A) Edema
B) Proteinuria
C) Glucosuria
D) Hypertension
Q3) Which clinical intervention is the only known cure for preeclampsia?
A) Magnesium sulfate
B) Delivery of the fetus
C) Antihypertensive medications
D) Administration of aspirin (ASA) every day of the pregnancy
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12
Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient at 24 weeks of gestation reports that she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. Which rationale should the nurse provide this patient regarding the necessity to eliminate alcohol intake?
A) The fetus is placed at risk for altered brain growth.
B) The fetus is at risk for severe nervous system injury.
C) The patient will be at risk for abusing other substances as well.
D) A daily consumption of alcohol indicates a risk for alcoholism.
Q2) Which characteristics of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) should the nurse expect to assess in affected neonates? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hydrocephaly
B) Low activity
C) Epicanthal folds
D) Short palpebral fissures
E) Flat midface, with a low nasal bridge
Q3) Which factor is a major barrier to health care for adolescent mothers?
A) Health care workers have a positive attitude.
B) The hospital or clinic is within walking distance of the girl's home.
C) Seeing a different nurse and/or health care provider at every visit.
D) The institution is open days, evenings, and Saturday by special arrangement.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2160
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary difference between the labor of a nullipara and that of a multipara is A) total duration of labor.
B) level of pain experienced.
C) amount of cervical dilation.
D) sequence of labor mechanisms.
Q2) Which physiologic event is the key indicator of the commencement of true labor?
A) Bloody show
B) Cervical dilation and effacement
C) Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet
D) Uterine contractions every 7 minutes
Q3) To determine if the patient is in true labor, the nurse would assess for changes in A) cervical dilation.
B) amount of bloody show.
C) fetal position and station.
D) pattern of uterine contractions.
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14
Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2161
Sample Questions
Q1) A laboring patient who imagines her body opening to let the baby out is using a mental technique called
A) imagery.
B) effleurage.
C) distraction.
D) dissociation.
Q2) A labor patient, gravida 2, para 1, at term has received meperidine (Demerol) for pain control during labor. Her most recent dose was 15 minutes ago and birth is now imminent. Maternal vital signs have been stable and the EFM tracing has not shown any baseline changes. Which medication does the nurse anticipate would be required in the birth room for administration?
A) Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) Naloxone (Narcan)
C) Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
D) Oxygen
Q3) Which fetal position may cause the laboring patient increased back discomfort?
A) Left occiput anterior
B) Left occiput posterior
C) Right occiput anterior
D) Right occiput transverse
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2162
Sample Questions
Q1) The physician has ordered an amnioinfusion for the laboring patient. Which data supports the use of this therapeutic procedure?
A) Presenting part not engaged
B) +4 meconium-stained amniotic fluid on artificial rupture of membranes (AROM)
C) Breech position of fetus
D) Twin gestation
Q2) When a pattern of variable decelerations occur, the nurse should immediately
A) administer OS1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/minute.
B) place a wedge under the right hip.
C) increase the IV fluids to 150 mL/hour.
D) position patient in a knee-chest position.
Q3) What is the most likely cause for this fetal heart rate pattern?
A) Administration of an epidural for pain relief during labor
B) Cord compression
C) Breech position of fetus
D) Administration of meperidine (Demerol) for pain relief during labor
Q4) A nurse documents that the fetal heart rate variability is marked. This indicates that the range is greater than how many beats per minute? Record your answer as a whole number. _____ bpm
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Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2163
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a vaginal prostaglandin preparation to ripen the cervix of her patient. With which patient should the nurse question the use of vaginal prostaglandin as a cervical ripening agent?
A) The patient who has a Bishop's score of 5
B) The patient who is at 42 weeks of gestation
C) The patient who had a previous low transverse cesarean birth
D) The patient who had previous surgery in the upper uterus
Q2) Which patient at term should proceed to the hospital or birth center the immediately after labor begins?
A) Gravida 2, para 1, who lives 10 minutes away
B) Gravida 1, para 0, who lives 40 minutes away
C) Gravida 2, para 1, whose first labor lasted 16 hours
D) Gravida 3, para 2, whose longest previous labor was 4 hours
Q3) Immediately following the forceps-assisted birth of an infant, which action should the nurse implement?
A) Assess the infant for signs of trauma.
B) Apply a cold pack to the infant's scalp.
C) Give the infant prophylactic antibiotics.
D) Measure the circumference of the infant's head.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2164
Sample Questions
Q1) Which intervention would be most effective if the fetal heart rate drops following a spontaneous rupture of the membranes?
A) Apply oxygen at 8 to 10 L/minute.
B) Stop the Pitocin infusion.
C) Position the patient in the knee-chest position.
D) Increase the main line infusion to 150 mL/hour.
Q2) Which pelvic shape is most conducive to vaginal labor and birth?
A) Android
B) Gynecoid
C) Platypelloid
D) Anthropoid
Q3) The fetus in a breech presentation is often born by cesarean birth because
A) the buttocks are much larger than the head.
B) compression of the umbilical cord is more likely.
C) internal rotation cannot occur if the fetus is breech.
D) postpartum hemorrhage is more likely if the patient delivers vaginally.
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2165
Sample Questions
Q1) Which should the nurse do to provide support to a patient who must return to full-time employment 6 weeks after a vaginal birth?
A) Discuss child care arrangements with her.
B) Allow her to solve the problem on her own.
C) Reassure her that she'll get used to leaving her baby.
D) Allow her to express her positive and negative feelings freely.
Q2) The postpartum nurse has completed discharge teaching for a patient being discharged after an uncomplicated vaginal birth. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is necessary?
A) "I may not have a bowel movement until the 2nd postpartum day."
B) "If I breastfeed and supplement with formula, I won't need any birth control."
C) "I know my normal pattern of bowel elimination won't return until about 8 to 10 days."
D) "If I am not breastfeeding, I should use birth control when I resume sexual relations with my husband."
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with mastitis is concerned about breastfeeding while she has an active infection. Which is an appropriate response by the nurse?
A) Organisms will be inactivated by gastric acid.
B) Organisms that cause mastitis are not passed through the milk.
C) The infant is not susceptible to the organisms that cause mastitis.
D) The infant is protected from infection by immunoglobulins in the breast milk.
Q2) The nurse observes the patient as she ambulates to the bathroom. Which clinical finding might indicate development of a DVT (deep vein thrombosis)?
A) Slow gait
B) Shuffling gait
C) Stiffness of right leg
D) Leans on husband for support
Q3) A steady trickle of bright red blood from the vagina in the presence of a firm fundus suggests
A) uterine atony.
B) perineal hematoma.
C) infection of the uterus.
D) lacerations of the genital tract.
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action by the nurse can result in hyperthermia in the newborn?
A) Placing a cap on the newborn
B) Wrapping the newborn in a warm blanket
C) Placing the newborn in a skin to skin position with the mother
D) Placing the newborn in the radiant warmer without attaching the skin probe
Q2) How can nurses prevent evaporative heat loss in the newborn?
A) Placing the baby away from the outside wall and the windows
B) Keeping the baby out of drafts and away from air conditioners
C) Drying the baby after birth and wrapping the baby in a dry blanket
D) Warming the stethoscope and nurse's hands before touching the baby
Q3) During fetal circulation the pressure is greatest in the
A) left atrium.
B) right atrium.
C) hepatic system.
D) pulmonary veins.
Q4) Which of the following organs are nonfunctional during fetal life?
A) Eyes and ears
B) Lungs and liver
C) Kidneys and adrenals
D) Gastrointestinal system
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is conducting a body system assessment of the newborn. Which are abnormal findings that the nurse should report? (Select all that apply.)
A) Low-set ears
B) Yellow sclera
C) A doll's eye sign
D) Edema of the eyelids
E) Absence of the grasp reflex
Q2) Which assessment finding of a newborn requires prompt action by the nurse?
A) Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute
B) Cyanosis of the extremities
C) Pause in breathing lasting 20 seconds
D) Pause in breathing for 15 seconds followed by rapid respirations
Q3) The mother-baby nurse is providing care to a patient and her newborn 2 hours after delivery. On review of the newborn's chart, the nurse sees a notation of caput succedaneum. What will the nurse expect to find in the mother's chart?
A) Race: non-White
B) A longer than usual labor
C) Administration of an epidural
D) Delivery by cesarean birth
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which newborn assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
A) Glucose level of 40 mg/dL
B) Axillary temperature of 37°C (98.6°F)
C) Mild yellow tinge to skin at 32 hours of age
D) Mild inflammation of conjunctiva after eye prophylaxis
Q2) A new mother asks, "Why should I bring my baby in for a checkup? He is not sick."
Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "Please ask your pediatrician to explain this to you."
B) "He may have a problem that you haven't identified."
C) "These visits are required by law to identify communicable diseases."
D) "Well-baby visits allow the doctor to determine whether your baby is growing and developing normally."
Q3) Most newborns receive a prophylactic injection of vitamin K soon after birth. Which site is optimal for the newborn?
A) Deltoid muscle
B) Gluteal muscle
C) Rectus femoris muscle
D) Vastus lateralis muscle
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23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A breastfeeding patient who was discharged yesterday calls to ask about a tender hard area on her right breast. What should the nurse's first response be?
A) "This is a normal response in breastfeeding mothers."
B) "Notify your doctor so he can start you on antibiotics."
C) "Stop breastfeeding because you probably have an infection."
D) "Try massaging the area and apply heat; it is probably a plugged duct."
Q2) A mother is attempting to breastfeed her infant in the hospital setting. The infant is sleepy and displays some audible swallowing, the maternal nipples are flat, and the breasts are soft. The nurse has attempted to teach the mother positioning on one side, and now the mother wants to place the infant to the breast on the other side. Based on LATCH scores, what score would the nurse assign to this feeding session?
A) 10 and document findings in the chart.
B) 6 and further teach and assist the mother in feeding activities.
C) 5 and tell the mother to discontinue feeding attempts at this time because the infant is too sleepy.
D) 8 and no further assistance is needed for feeding.
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Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding large-for-gestational age (LGA) infants is most accurate?
A) They weigh more than 3500 G
B) They are above the 80th percentile on gestational growth charts.
C) They are prone to hypoglycemia, polycythemia, and birth injuries.
D) Postmaturity syndrome is the most common complication.
Q2) Overstimulation may cause increased oxygen use in a preterm infant. Which nursing intervention helps to avoid this problem?
A) Group all care activities together to provide long periods of rest.
B) Keep charts on top of the incubator so the nurses can write on them there.
C) While giving a report to the next nurse, stand in front of the incubator and talk softly about how the infant responds to stimulation.
D) Teach the parents signs of overstimulation, such as turning the face away or stiffening and extending the extremities and fingers.
Q3) Following a traumatic birth of a 10-lb infant, the nurse should evaluate
A) gestational age status.
B) flexion of both upper extremities.
C) infant's percentile on growth chart.
D) blood sugar to detect hyperglycemia.
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Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diagnostic test is used to help confirmation of hyperbilirubinemia in an infant?
A) Direct Coombs test based on maternal blood sample
B) Indirect Coombs test based on infant cord blood sample
C) Infant bilirubin level
D) Maternal blood type
Q2) Four hours after the birth of a healthy neonate of an insulin-dependent (type 1) diabetic mother, the baby appears jittery and irritable and has a high-pitched cry. Which nursing action has top priority?
A) Notify the clinician stat.
B) Test for the blood glucose level.
C) Start an intravenous line with D10W.
D) Document the event in the nurses' notes.
Q3) Which intervention will increase the effectiveness in reducing the indirect bilirubin in an affected newborn?
A) Turn the infant every 2 hours.
B) Place eye patches on the newborn.
C) Wrap the infant in triple blankets to prevent cold stress.
D) Increase the oral intake of water between and before feedings.
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Chapter 25: Family Planning
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are evaluating a patient in the clinic setting who has been taking oral contraceptives for several years, without side effects. Vital signs are stable and the patient denies any pain or tenderness. On examination, you note a small erythematous area of approximately 2 cm on her right lower leg. She denies any traumatic injury and says this is a recent onset of a few days. Based on this information you would
A) instruct the patient to use warm compresses for several days and keep the leg elevated as much as possible.
B) have the patient wear flats rather than heels to modify her gait and help alleviate this issue.
C) refer the patient to the health care provider for additional diagnostic work up.
D) have the patient take an over-the-counter (OTC) nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) and return to the clinic if the problem persists.
Q2) The method of contraception that is considered the safest for women is a(n)
A) IUD.
B) diaphragm.
C) male condom.
D) oral contraceptive.
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A couple who has not achieved a successful pregnancy is scheduled to meet with a fertility specialist. Which simple evaluation is usually the first test to be performed?
A) Semen analysis
B) Testicular biopsy
C) Endometrial biopsy
D) Hysterosalpingography
Q2) A woman who is undergoing infertility testing states, "My husband won't discuss this with me. I don't think he cares about or wants a baby." The nurse's ideal response is
A) "You should confront him about this."
B) "He probably doesn't understand your concern."
C) "Men are sometimes less eager to have children."
D) "It may be harder for him to express his feelings."
Q3) Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
A) Never conceived.
B) Had repeated spontaneous abortions.
C) Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
D) Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.
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Chapter 27: Womens Health
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2175
Sample Questions
Q1) A 38-year-old patient presents to the clinic office complaining of increased bilateral tenderness of her breasts prior to the onset of menses. On questioning the patient, this presentation has occurred off and on for several years; however, the pain has increased. Physical examination reveals lumpy areas bilaterally on the upper outer quadrants of each breast tissue. The areas of concern are approximately 2 cm in size. Based on this assessment, which diagnostic testing would be necessary? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ultrasound examination
B) Open biopsy
C) Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy
D) CBC with differential
E) Mammogram
Q2) A patient, age 49, confides in the nurse that she has started experiencing pain with intercourse. The patient asks, "Is there anything I can do about this?" The nurse's best response is
A) "No, it is part of the aging process."
B) "Water-soluble vaginal lubricants may provide relief."
C) "You need to be evaluated for a sexually transmitted disease."
D) "You may have vaginal scar tissue that is producing the discomfort."
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