Family Health Nursing Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Family Health Nursing focuses on the holistic care of families and the promotion of family well-being across the lifespan. This course explores the principles and practices of family-centered nursing, addressing the physical, emotional, social, and environmental factors that influence family health. Students learn to assess family dynamics, identify health risks, and implement evidence-based interventions tailored to diverse family structures and cultural backgrounds. Emphasis is placed on health promotion, disease prevention, and support for families facing acute, chronic, or life-limiting health conditions. The course also covers effective communication strategies, family advocacy, and collaboration with interdisciplinary teams to improve health outcomes within the community.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/167
Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2112
Sample Questions
Q1) Managed care
A)This includes health maintenance organizations (HMOs), point of service plans (POSs), and preferred provider organizations (PPOs).
B)The payer of the health insurance (usually the employer or the government) pays a set amount of money each year to a network of primary care providers (PCPs).
C)Medical diagnoses are classified based on the type of complexity of services generally required.
Answer: A
Q2) Diagnosis-related groups
A)This includes health maintenance organizations (HMOs), point of service plans (POSs), and preferred provider organizations (PPOs).
B)The payer of the health insurance (usually the employer or the government) pays a set amount of money each year to a network of primary care providers (PCPs).
C)Medical diagnoses are classified based on the type of complexity of services generally required.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which principle of teaching should the nurse use to ensure learning in a family situation?
A) Motivate the family with praise and positive feedback.
B) Learning is best accomplished with the lecture format.
C) Present complex subject material first while the family is alert and ready to learn.
D) Families should be taught using medical jargon so they will be able to understand the technical language used by physicians.
Answer: A
Q2) Which nursing intervention is an independent function of the nurse?
A) Administering oral analgesics
B) Requesting diagnostic studies
C) Teaching the client perineal care
D) Providing wound care to a surgical incision
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A couple asks the nurse about the procedure for surrogate parenting. Which correct responses should the nurse give to the couple? (Select all that apply.)
A) Donated embryos can be implanted into the surrogate mother.
B) The surrogate mother needs to have carried one previous birth to term.
C) You both need to be infertile to be eligible for surrogate parenting.
D) Conception can take place outside the surrogate mother's body and then implanted.
E) The surrogate mother can be inseminated artificially with sperm from the intended father.
Answer: A, D, E
Q2) Which of the following complications are associated with late preterm infants? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Tachycardia
C) Jaundice
D) Thermoregulation problems
E) Require mechanical ventilation
F) Feeding problems
Answer: C, D, E, F
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is describing the size and shape of the nonpregnant uterus to a client. Which is an accurate description?
A) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a pear.
B) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a cantaloupe.
C) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a grapefruit.
D) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a large orange.
Q2) A newly pregnant client asks the nurse, "What is the false pelvis?" Which is a correct statement that the nurse should give the client?
A) It is the total anterior portion of the pelvis.
B) It is considered to be the lower portion of the pelvis.
C) It provides support for the internal organs and the upper part of the body.
D) It is the narrowest part of the pelvis through which a fetus will pass during birth.
Q3) Delayed onset of menstruation or primary amenorrhea is considered if the girl's periods have not begun by which age in years? Record your answer in a whole number.
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement made by the nurse is evidence of therapeutic communication for a couple who is undergoing genetic counseling and very concerned about the possibility of having a child with a birth defect as a result of a strong family history on both sides of the family?
A) "It is important to ask other members of your family for any information they can provide that will help obtain more insight into the health history."
B) "Given what you have told me, there is little that anyone can do to improve outcomes."
C) "Although you may feel that you have no options, I can't really discuss these matters as only the physician can provide you with information."
D) "Do you have all your forms filled out correctly? This will make the review easier to accomplish. "
Q2) People who have two copies of the same abnormal autosomal dominant gene will usually be:
A) mildly affected with the disorder.
B) infertile and unable to transmit the gene.
C) carriers of the trait but not affected with the disorder.
D) more severely affected by the disorder than people with one copy of the gene.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant client asks the nurse how her baby gets oxygen to breathe. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Oxygen-rich blood is delivered through the umbilical vein to the baby."
B) "Take lots of deep breaths because the baby gets all of its oxygen from you."
C) "You don't need to be concerned about your baby getting enough oxygen."
D) "The baby's lungs are not mature enough to actually breathe, so don't worry."
Q2) An expectant client, diagnosed with oligohydramnios, asks the nurse about what this condition means for the baby. Which statement should the nurse give to the client?
A) Oligohydramnios can cause poor fetal lung development.
B) Oligohydramnios means that the fetus is excreting excessive urine.
C) Oligohydramnios could mean that the fetus has a gastrointestinal blockage.
D) Oligohydramnios is associated with fetal central nervous system abnormalities.
Q3) Umbilical veins
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
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Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which physiologic event may lead to increased constipation during pregnancy?
A) Increased emptying time in the intestines
B) Abdominal distention and bloating
C) Decreased absorption of water
D) Decreased motility in the intestines
Q2) The health care provider reports that the primigravida's fundus can be palpated at the umbilicus. Which priority question will the nurse include in the client's assessment?
A) "Have you noticed that it is easier for you to breathe now?"
B) "Would you like to hear the baby's heartbeat for the first time?"
C) "Have you felt a fluttering sensation in your lower pelvic area yet?"
D) "Have you recently developed any unusual cravings, such as for chalk or dirt?"
Q3) A client in her first trimester complains of nausea and vomiting. She asks, "Why does this happen?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "It is due to an increase in gastric motility."
B) "It may be due to changes in hormones."
C) "It is related to an increase in glucose levels."
D) "It is caused by a decrease in gastric secretions."
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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In some Middle Eastern and African cultures, female genital mutilation is a prerequisite for marriage. Women who now live in North America need care from nurses who are knowledgeable about the procedure and comfortable with the abnormal appearance of their genitalia. When caring for this client, the nurse can formulate a diagnosis with the understanding that the client may be at risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Infection
B) Laceration
C) Hemorrhage
D) Obstructed labor
E) Increased signs of pain response
Q2) An expectant client asks the nurse about the behavior of "mimicry." Which is an example of mimicry that the nurse should relate to the client?
A) Daydreaming about the newborn
B) Imagining oneself as a good mother
C) Babysitting for a neighbor's children
D) Wearing maternity clothes before they are needed
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When planning a diet with a pregnant client, what should the nurse's first action be?
A) Teach the client about MyPlate.
B) Review the client's current dietary intake.
C) Instruct the client to limit the intake of fatty foods.
D) Caution the client to avoid large doses of vitamins, especially those that are fat-soluble.
Q2) For the pregnant client who is a vegan, what combination of foods will the nurse advise to meet the nutritional needs for all essential amino acids?
A) Eggs and beans
B) Fruits and vegetables
C) Grains and legumes
D) Vitamin and mineral supplements
Q3) Identify the appropriate weight gain at 28 weeks' gestation for a client with a normal BMI (body mass index) before pregnancy.
A) 10 pounds
B) 19 pounds
C) 25 pounds
D) 30 pounds
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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does nursing care after amniocentesis include?
A) Forcing fluids by mouth
B) Monitoring uterine activity
C) Placing the client in a supine position for 2 hours
D) Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site
Q2) A pregnant client's biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "The test results are within normal limits."
B) "Immediate birth by cesarean birth is being considered."
C) "Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score."
D) "An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding birth."
Q3) When is the earliest that chorionic villus sampling can be performed during pregnancy?
A) 4 weeks
B) 8 weeks
C) 10 weeks
D) 12 weeks
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2122
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant client is anticipating a vaginal birth without complications. During the course of her labor, complications arise and the fetus has to be delivered via cesarean section. The client is visibly upset and wants to know why this has happened to her because she did everything right during her pregnancy. Which priority nursing diagnosis would apply?
A) Risk for injury
B) Pain
C) Impaired skin integrity
D) Anxiety
Q2) Which technique would provide the best pain relief for a pregnant woman with an occiput posterior position?
A) Neuromuscular disassociation
B) Effleurage
C) Psychoprophylaxis
D) Sacral pressure
Q3) Dick-Read childbirth education
A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach
B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain
C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pregnant clients can usually tolerate the normal blood loss associated with childbirth because they have:
A) a higher hematocrit.
B) increased leukocytes.
C) increased blood volume.
D) a lower fibrinogen level.
Q2) An assessment finding that would indicate to the nurse that cervical dilation and/or effacement has occurred is:
A) onset of irregular contractions.
B) cephalic presentation at 0 station.
C) bloody mucus drainage from vagina.
D) fetal heart tones (FHTs) present in the lower right quadrant.
Q3) The primary difference between the labor of a nullipara and that of a multipara is:
A) total duration of labor.
B) level of pain experienced.
C) amount of cervical dilation.
D) sequence of labor mechanisms.
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14
Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2124
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing priority during admission of a laboring client who has not had prenatal care is:
A) obtaining admission labs.
B) identifying labor risk factors.
C) discussing her birth plan choices.
D) explaining importance of prenatal care.
Q2) A 25-year-old primigravida client is in the first stage of labor. She and her husband have been holding hands and breathing together through each contraction. Suddenly, the client pushes her husband's hand away and shouts, "Don't touch me!" This behavior is most likely:
A) abnormal labor.
B) a sign that she needs analgesia.
C) normal and related to hyperventilation.
D) common during the transition phase of labor.
Q3) The gynecologist performs an amniotomy. What will the nurse's role include immediately following the procedure?
A) Assessing for ballottement
B) Conducting a pH and/or fern test
C) Labeling of specimens for chromosomal analysis
D) Recording the character and amount of amniotic fluid
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To clarify the fetal condition when baseline variability is absent, the nurse should first:
A) monitor fetal oxygen saturation using fetal pulse oximetry.
B) notify the physician so that a fetal scalp blood sample can be obtained.
C) apply pressure to the fetal scalp with a glove finger using a circular motion.
D) increase the rate of nonadditive IV fluid to expand the mother's blood volume.
Q2) A client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. The uterine contractions have become persistently hypertonic and the infusion is stopped. The health care provider has prescribed a tocolytic to stop contractions. Which medication should the nurse be prepared to administer?
A) Naloxone (Narcan)
B) Terbutaline (Brethine)
C) Ephedrine
D) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Q3) Early decelerations
A)Caused by umbilical cord compression
B)Caused by fetal head compression
C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing a client for a cesarean section scheduled to be done under general anesthesia. Which should the nurse plan to administer, if ordered by the health care provider, to prevent aspiration of gastric contents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Citric acid (Bicitra)
B) Ranitidine (Zantac)
C) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
D) Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)
E) Promethazine (Phenergan)
Q2) A labor client has brought in with her a picture of her two children and asks the nurse to place it on the wall so that she can look at it during labor contractions. This is an example of:
A) focal point.
B) distraction.
C) effleurage.
D) relaxation.
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17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse monitors the client in labor for signs and symptoms of water intoxication. Which finding indicates that this may be occurring?
A) Hypotension
B) Rales and wheezes
C) Slow shallow breathing
D) Tachycardia
Q2) A gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the labor and birth unit in labor. She states that she had a cesarean birth with her first pregnancy. The most critical information the nurse must obtain at this point is:
A) the onset of contractions.
B) her estimated date of birth.
C) when the client ate last and what she consumed.
D) the type of uterine incision with the first pregnancy.
Q3) Following an external cephalic version, which assessment finding indicates a complication?
A) Onset of irregular contractions
B) Maternal blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
C) Deceleration of FHR to 88 bpm
D) Maternal pulse rate of 100 bpm
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would indicate an abnormal finding during the postpartum period?
A) Lochia flow changing from alba to rubra
B) Unable to palpate uterine fundus at 6-week postpartum checkup
C) Presence of afterbirth pains
D) Lochia flow heavier in the early morning 2 days following vaginal birth
Q2) The postpartum nurse is administering ibuprofen (Advil) to a client with episiotomy discomfort. The prescribed order is 400 mg of Advil by mouth every 6 to 8 hours PRN for discomfort. The Advil sent by the pharmacy is 200 mg/tablet. How many tablet(s) should the nurse administer to the client? Record your answer as a whole number. _____ tab(s)
Q3) The nurse is teaching a non-breastfeeding client measures to suppress lactation. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid massaging the breasts.
B) Allow warm shower water to run over the breasts.
C) If the breasts become engorged, pumping is recommended .
D) Ice packs can be applied to the breasts to relieve discomfort.
E) Wear a sports bra 24 hours a day until the breasts become soft.
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching new parents about behavior cues that indicate their infant has had enough stimulation. Which cues should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A) The infant kicks his legs.
B) The infant is quiet and alert.
C) The infant splays his fingers.
D) The infant looks at their faces.
Q2) Taking-hold
A)Passive, dependent
B)Begins to see self as a mother
C)Autonomous, seeking information
Q3) The postpartum nurse is reviewing dietary practices for an Asian client. Which should the nurse expect to observe as a dietary practice for this culture?
A) Food brought from home
B) Preference for fresh fruits
C) Preference for "cold" foods
D) Request for ice water instead of hot water
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning to conduct the initial assessment of a full-term newborn. Included in the plan is providing a neutral thermal environment. To accomplish this plan, what is the desired environmental temperature to conduct the assessment?
A) 24° to 27° C (75.2° to 80.6° F)
B) 28° to 31.5° C (82.4° to 88.7° F)
C) 32° to 33.5° C (89.6° to 92.3° F)
D) 34° to 37.5° C (93.2° to 99.5° F)
Q2) During the first few minutes after birth, which physiologic change occurs in the newborn as a response to vascular pressure changes in increased oxygen levels?
A) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
B) Decreased systemic resistance
C) Decreased pressure in the left heart
D) Dilation of pulmonary vessels
Q3) Immunoglobulin M ((IgM)
A)Only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
B)First immunoglobulin produced by the newborn when stressed
C)Important in protection of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system
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21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is performing an initial assessment of a newborn and notes retractions, nasal flaring, and tachypnea. The nurse will continue to perform a focused assessment on which system?
A) Respiratory
B) Cardiovascular
C) Gastrointestinal
D) Musculoskeletal
Q2) The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a newborn. Which characteristics indicate a preterm newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Translucent skin
B) Extended limp arms and legs
C) The ear springs back when folded
D) Square window angle of 45 degrees or less
E) Large clitoris and labia minora in the female newborn
Q3) Caput succedaneum
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) An hour after birth, the nurse assesses a newborn's temperature and notes that it is 36.2° C (97.2° F). The next activity planned for the newborn is the bath, and the new mother and father are invited to participate in the procedure. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Take the infant's temperature rectally.
B) Ask the father to test the water to determine if it is too hot.
C) Delay the bath until the newborn's temperature is above 36.7° C (98° F).
D) Explain to the new parents that no soap should be used to cleanse the eyes.
Q2) Most newborns receive a prophylactic injection of vitamin K soon after birth. Which site is appropriate for the newborn?
A) Deltoid muscle
B) Gluteal muscles
C) Rectus femoris muscle
D) Vastus lateralis muscle
Q3) Which is the purpose of state-required newborn screening?
A) Keep the state records updated.
B) Document the number of births.
C) Allow for accurate statistical information.
D) Recognize and treat newborn disorders early.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many ounces will an infant who is on a 4-hour feeding schedule need to consume at each feeding to meet daily caloric needs?
A) 1
B) 1.5
C) 3.5
D) 5
Q2) For which infant should the nurse anticipate the use of soy formula? (Select all that apply.)
A) Preterm infant
B) Infant with galactosemia
C) Infant with phenylketonuria
D) Infant with lactase deficiency
E) Infant with a malabsorption disorder
Q3) How many kilocalories per kilogram (kcal/kg) of body weight does a full-term formula-fed infant need each day?
A) 50 to 75
B) 100 to 110
C) 120 to 140
D) 150 to 200
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching new parents strategies to help with newborn colic. Which should the nurse suggest? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increase the number of feedings.
B) Feed the infant in an upright position.
C) Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
D) Allow the infant to cry for a period of time.
E) Increase carrying time by use of a front carrier pack.
Q2) Which infant should be seen immediately by a health care provider?
A) A 1-week-old infant with a diaper rash
B) A 1-month-old infant with an axillary temperature of 99.8° F (37.7° C)
C) A 3-week-old breast-fed infant who has had two loose stools
D) A 2-week-old infant with nasal congestion and respirations of 64 breaths/min
Q3) Which is the treatment for miliaria?
A) Application of oil
B) Removal of wet clothing
C) Removal of excess clothing
D) Application of soothing lotion
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Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has delivered twins. The first twin was stillborn, and the second is in the intensive care nursery, recovering quickly from respiratory distress. The client is crying softly and says, "I wish my baby could have lived." Which is the most therapeutic response?
A) "How soon do you plan to have another baby?"
B) "Don't be sad. At least you have one healthy baby."
C) "I have a friend who lost a twin and she's doing just fine now."
D) "I am so sorry about your loss. Would you like to talk about it?"
Q2) Which complication of adolescent pregnancy should the nurse plan to monitor?
A) Anemia
B) Placenta previa
C) Abruptio placenta
D) Incompetent cervix
Q3) A pregnant client who abuses cocaine admits to exchanging sex for her drug habit. This behavior puts her at a greater risk for:
A) postmature birth.
B) Sexually transmitted diseases.
C) Hypotension and vasodilation.
D) Depression of the central nervous system.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding in the assessment of a client following an abruption placenta could indicate a major complication?
A) Urine output of 30 mL in 1 hour
B) Blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg
C) Bleeding at IV insertion site
D) Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min
Q2) What is the priority nursing intervention for the client who has had an incomplete abortion?
A) Methylergonovine (Methergine), 0.2 mg IM
B) Preoperative teaching for surgery
C) Insertion of IV line for fluid replacement
D) Positioning of client in left side-lying position
Q3) Which intervention would be the most effective if your client who is on magnesium sulfate has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min?
A) Give oxygen by mask at 8-10 L/min.
B) Administer calcium gluconate via IV pyelogram (IVP).
C) Arouse client with tactile stimulation.
D) Continually assess pulse oximeter levels.
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor is known to increase the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus?
A) Previous birth of large infant
B) Maternal age younger than 25 years
C) Underweight prior to pregnancy
D) Previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus
Q2) When a pregnant client with diabetes experiences hypoglycemia while hospitalized, which should the nurse have the client do?
A) Eat a candy bar.
B) Eat six saltine crackers or drink 8 oz of milk.
C) Drink 4 oz of orange juice followed by 8 oz of milk.
D) Drink 8 oz of orange juice with 2 teaspoons of sugar added.
Q3) Which disease process improves during pregnancy?
A) Epilepsy
B) Bell's palsy
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
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Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which intervention should be incorporated in a plan of care for a labor client who is experiencing hypertonic labor? Vaginal exam is unchanged from prior exam-3 cm, 80% effaced, and 0 station presenting part vertex.
A) Augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) AROM
C) Performing a vaginal exam to denote progress
D) Preparing the client for epidural administration as ordered by the physician
Q2) Which assessment finding indicates a complication in the client attempting a vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC)?
A) Complaint of pain between the scapulae
B) Change in fetal baseline from 128 to 132 bpm
C) Contractions every 3 minutes lasting 70 seconds
D) Pain level of 6 on scale of 0 to 10 during acme of contraction
Q3) Which factor is most likely to result in fetal hypoxia during a dysfunctional labor?
A) Incomplete uterine relaxation
B) Maternal fatigue and exhaustion
C) Maternal sedation with narcotics
D) Administration of tocolytic drugs
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29
Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2139
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement by a postpartum client indicates that further teaching is not needed regarding thrombus formation?
A) "I'll keep my legs elevated with pillows."
B) "I'll sit in my rocking chair most of the time."
C) "I'll stay in bed for the first 3 days after my baby is born."
D) "I'll put my support stockings on every morning before rising."
Q2) Which temperature indicates the presence of postpartum infection?
A) 99.6° F in the first 48 hours
B) 100° F for 2 days postpartum
C) 100.4° F in the first 24 hours
D) 100.8° F on the second and third postpartum days
Q3) A multiparous client is admitted to the postpartum unit after a rapid labor and birth of a 4000-g infant. Her fundus is boggy, lochia is heavy, and vital signs are unchanged. The nurse has the client void and massages her fundus, but the fundus remains difficult to find and the rubra lochia remains heavy. Which action should the nurse take next?
A) Recheck vital signs.
B) Insert a Foley catheter.
C) Notify the health care provider.
D) Continue to massage the fundus.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant delivered preterm at 28 weeks' gestation weighs 1200 g. Based on this information, the infant is designated as:
A) SGA.
B) VLBW.
C) ELBW.
D) Low birth weight at term.
Q2) A characteristic of a post-term infant who weighs 7 lb, 12 oz, and who lost weight in utero, is:
A) Soft and supple skin.
B) A hematocrit level of 55%.
C) Lack of subcutaneous fat.
D) An abundance of vernix caseosa.
Q3) In caring for the post-term infant, thermoregulation can be a concern, especially in an infant who also has a(n):
A) Hematocrit level of 58%.
B) RBC count of 5 million/mL.
C) WBC count of 15,000 cells/mmS1U1P13S1S1P0.
D) Blood glucose level of 25 mg/dL.
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2141
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse's immediate action after the birth of a post-term infant with meconium stained amniotic fluid is to:
A) stimulate the infant to cry.
B) suction the infant's airways.
C) complete the 1- and 5-minute Apgars.
D) vigorously dry the infant's head and trunk.
Q2) The infant of a diabetic mother is hypoglycemic. Which type of feeding should be instituted first?
A) Glucose water
B) D5W intravenously
C) Formula via nasogastric tube
D) Small amount of glucose water followed by formula or breast milk
Q3) While caring for a post-term infant, the nurse recognizes that the elevated hematocrit level most likely results from:
A) hypoxia in utero.
B) underproduction of red blood cells.
C) increased breakdown of red blood cells.
D) the normal expected shift from fetal hemoglobin to normal hemoglobin.
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2142
Sample Questions
Q1) When instructing a client in the use of spermicidal foam or gel, it is important to include the information that:
A) effectiveness is about 85%.
B) douching should be avoided for at least 6 hours.
C) it should be inserted 1 to 2 hours before intercourse.
D) one application is effective for several hours.
Q2) A woman who has a successful career and a busy lifestyle will most likely look for which type of contraceptive?
A) Requires extensive education to use
B) Is the easiest and most convenient to use
C) Costs the least
D) Is permanent
Q3) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage for a client who wishes to use an intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control?
A) Insertion of the device prior to coitus resulting in decreased spontaneity
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Protection against STDs
D) Decrease in dysmenorrhea
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33
Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Had repeated spontaneous abortions
C) Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse
D) Has one child but cannot conceive a second time
Q2) A couple who has not achieved a successful pregnancy is scheduled to meet with a fertility specialist. Which simple evaluation is usually the first test to be performed?
A) Semen analysis
B) Testicular biopsy
C) Endometrial biopsy
D) Hysterosalpingography
Q3) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
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34
Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) While performing a self-breast exam, the client notes an area on the right breast that is nodular, with some associated tenderness. This is a new onset finding because the exams were not problematic in the past,. The left breast examination is unremarkable. The client calls to report her findings to the clinical nurse because this is not her typical result. What action should the nurse take next?
A) Refer the client to an oncologist because the results sound suspicious.
B) Ask the client to come in for an office visit so that the findings can be validated but tell her that this information is within the normal range of presentation.
C) Have the client wear a tight-fitting bra and tell her that the tenderness is associated with ovulation and will pass.
D) Have the client repeat the self-breast exam in 2 weeks and call back with findings to provide a basis for comparison.
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which client is most at risk for fibroadenoma of the breast?
A) Janice, 38 years old
B) Helen, 50 years old
C) Mary, 16 years old
D) Anna, 27 years old
Q2) A 38-year-old client presents to the clinic office complaining of increased bilateral tenderness of her breasts prior to the onset of menses. On questioning the client, this presentation has occurred off and on for several years, but the pain has increased. Physical examination reveals lumpy areas bilaterally on the upper outer quadrants of each breast tissue. The areas of concern are approximately 2 cm in size. Based on this assessment, what diagnostic testing would be required? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ultrasound examination
B) Open biopsy
C) Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy
D) CBC with differential
E) Mammogram
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