Family Health Nursing Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Family Health Nursing focuses on providing comprehensive care to families as units, emphasizing the promotion, maintenance, and restoration of health within the family context. The course explores family structure and dynamics, health assessment, and the influence of cultural, social, and environmental factors on family well-being. Students learn strategies for health education, disease prevention, and the management of acute and chronic health conditions across the lifespan. Practical applications include developing care plans, facilitating access to healthcare resources, and supporting families through health transitions and crises, all while fostering collaborative relationships and cultural sensitivity.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters 1131 Verified Questions 1131 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2112
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the history of family-centered maternity care. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A) The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 promoted family-centered care.
B) Changes in pharmacologic management of labor prompted family-centered care.
C) Demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth increased the practice of family-centered care.
D) Parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery initiated the practice of family-centered care.
Answer: D
Q2) Which statement explains why below poverty level African-Americans have the highest infant mortality rate in the United States?
A) Their diets are deficient in protein.
B) Infectious diseases are more prevalent.
C) More African-American infants are born with congenital anomalies.
D) Inadequate prenatal care is associated with low-birth-weight infants.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true regarding the shortage of nurses in the United States?
A) There are a larger proportion of younger nurses in the workforce as compared with older nurses.
B) As a result of decreased RN-to-client ratios, there is a decrease in client mortality in the clinical setting.
C) Increased needs for baccalaureate nurses are not being met by current enrollment.
D) There are adequate classroom and clinical facilities for training RNs.
Answer: C
Q2) Pinpointing
A)Calling attention to differences or inconsistencies in statements
B)Using nonverbal responses or succinct comments to encourage the person to continue
C)Restating in words other than those used by the woman what she seems to express; a form of clarification
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which step of the nursing process is being used when the nurse decides whether an ethical dilemma exists?
A) Analysis
B) Planning
C) Evaluation
D) Assessment
Answer: A
Q2) The RN is delegating tasks to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which tasks can the nurse delegate? (Select all that apply.)
A) Teaching the client about breast care
B) Assessment of a client's lochia and perineal area
C) Assisting a client to the bathroom for the first time after birth
D) Vital signs on a postpartum client who delivered the night before
E) Assisting a postpartum client to take a shower on the second postpartum day
Answer: D, E
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse is conducting health education classes for a group of adolescent girls. Which are the actions of the estrogen hormone on the female body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Stimulates contractions during birth
B) Relaxes pelvic ligaments during pregnancy
C) Stimulates the endometrium before ovulation
D) Stimulates growth of uterus during pregnancy
E) Stimulates the let-down reflex during breastfeeding
Q2) The clinic nurse is reviewing breastfeeding with a pregnant client. Which hormone will the nurse include in the patient's teaching plan as the one primarily responsible for lactation after birth?
A) Prolactin
B) Estrogen
C) Luteinizing
D) Progesterone
Q3) Which 16-year-old girl may experience secondary amenorrhea?
A) Jackie, 5 ft 2 in, 130 lb
B) Karen, 5 ft 9 in, 150 lb
C) Carol, 5 ft 7 in, 96 lb
D) Linda, 5 ft 4 in, 120 lb
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number.
_____%
Q2) The parents of a child with a karyotype of 47,XY, +21 ask the nurse what this means. Which is an accurate response by the nurse?
A) This karyotype is for a normal male.
B) This karyotype is for a normal female.
C) This karyotype is for a male with Down syndrome.
D) This karyotype is for a female with Turner's syndrome.
Q3) X-linked recessive
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
Q4) Which characteristic is related to Down syndrome?
A) Up-slanting eyes
B) Abnormal genitalia
C) Bleeding tendency
D) Edema of extremities
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering to the labor client who is delivering a premature infant?
A) Phytonadione (AquaMEPHYTON)
B) Betamethasone
C) Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
D) Newborn eye prophylaxis
Q2) The nurse is planning a prenatal class on fetal development. Which characteristics of prenatal development should the nurse include for a fetus of 24 weeks, based on fertilization age? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ear cartilage firm
B) Skin wrinkled and red
C) Testes descending toward the inguinal rings
D) Surfactant production nears mature levels
E) Fetal movement becoming progressively more noticeable
Q3) Umbilical artery
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
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Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a positive sign of pregnancy?
A) Amenorrhea
B) Breast changes
C) Fetal movement felt by the woman
D) Visualization of fetus by ultrasound
Q2) A client's last menstrual period was June 10. What is her estimated date of birth (EDD)?
A) April 7
B) March 17
C) March 27
D) April 17
Q3) When documenting a client encounter, what term will the nurse use to describe the woman who is in the 28th week of her first pregnancy?
A) Multigravida
B) Multipara
C) Nullipara
D) Primigravida
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Vietnamese client who speaks little English is admitted to the labor and birth unit in early labor. The nurse plans to use an interpreter during an initial assessment. Which should the nurse plan to implement with regard to using an interpreter? (Select all that apply.)
A) Face the interpreter when speaking.
B) Listen carefully to what the client says.
C) Speak slowly and smile when appropriate.
D) Plan to use a male interpreter, even if a female interpreter is available.
E) Ask the interpreter to explain exactly what is said as much as possible, instead of paraphrasing.
Q2) During the course of the pregnancy, the client states that she feels a deep connection with her unborn child. This behavior illustrates the maternal task acquisition of:
A) safe passage.
B) gaining acceptance.
C) fostering an interconnection.
D) developing empathy through physical actions.
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10
Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the appropriate weight gain at 28 weeks' gestation for a client with a normal BMI (body mass index) before pregnancy.
A) 10 pounds
B) 19 pounds
C) 25 pounds
D) 30 pounds
Q2) A pregnant client asks the nurse if she should take herbal supplements during pregnancy. What is the best response to her query?
A) "As long as you have had no reaction to them in the past, they would be safe to use during pregnancy."
B) "Prenatal vitamins are the only things that should be taken during pregnancy."
C) "Nutritional supplements will be prescribed by the health care provider based on individual needs."
D) "During pregnancy, no supplementation is required because this is considered to be a healthy state."
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11
Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is the most accurate time to determine gestational age through ultrasound?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) No difference in accuracy among the trimesters
Q2) Doppler ultrasound
A)A test for estimating fetal lung maturity
B)A test to assess blood flow to identify abnormalities
C)A test to diagnose fetal chromosomal, metabolic, or DNA abnormalities
Q3) The nurse is instructing a client on how to perform kick counts. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Use a clock or timer when performing kick counts.
B) Your bladder should be full before performing kick counts.
C) Notify your health care provider if you have not felt movement in 24 hours.
D) Protocols can provide a structured timetable for concentrating on fetal movements.
E) You should lie on your side, place your hands on the largest part of the abdomen, and concentrate on the number of movements felt.
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is covered by early pregnancy classes offered in the first and second trimesters?
A) Methods of pain relief
B) The phases and stages of labor
C) Coping with common discomforts of pregnancy
D) Prebirth and postbirth care of a client having a cesarean birth
Q2) Bradley childbirth education
A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach
B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain
C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle
Q3) The nurse assesses a patient in active labor and determines that the fetus is in the left occiput posterior position. The patient indicates to the nurse that she does not want an epidural. Which is the best technique for the nurse to include in the patient's plan of care?
A) Effleurage
B) Sacral pressure
C) Progressive relaxation
D) Rapid, paced breathing
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client in labor presents with a breech presentation. The nurse understands that a breech presentation is associated with:
A) more rapid labor.
B) a high risk of infection.
C) maternal perineal trauma.
D) umbilical cord compression.
Q2) A laboring patient states to the nurse, "I have to push!" What is the next nursing action?
A) Contact the health care provider.
B) Examine the patient's cervix for dilation.
C) Review with her how to bear down with contractions.
D) Ask her partner to support her head with each push.
Q3) An assessment finding that would indicate to the nurse that cervical dilation and/or effacement has occurred is:
A) onset of irregular contractions.
B) cephalic presentation at 0 station.
C) bloody mucus drainage from vagina.
D) fetal heart tones (FHTs) present in the lower right quadrant.
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Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to perform Leopold's maneuvers. Why are Leopold's maneuvers used by practitioners?
A) To determine the status of the membranes
B) To determine cervical dilation and effacement
C) To determine the best location to assess the fetal heart rate
D) To determine whether the fetus is in the posterior position
Q2) The nurse in the birth room receives an order to give a newborn 0.3 mg of naloxone (Narcan) intramuscularly. The medication vial reads naloxone (Narcan), 0.4 mg/mL. The nurse should prepare how many milliliters to administer the correct dose? Fill in the blank and record your answer using two decimal places. _____ mL
Q3) The nurse examines a primipara's cervix at 8-9/100%/+2; it is tight against the fetal head. The patient reports a strong urge to bear down. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Palpate her bladder for fullness.
B) Assess the frequency and duration of her contractions.
C) Determine who will stay with the patient for the birth.
D) Encourage the patient to exhale in short breaths with contractions.
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Observation of a fetal heart rate pattern indicates an increase in heart rate from the prior baseline rate of 152 bpm. Which physiologic mechanisms would account for this situation?
A) Inhibition of epinephrine
B) Inhibition of norepinephrine
C) Stimulation of the vagus nerve
D) Sympathetic stimulation
Q2) When a pattern of variable decelerations occur, the nurse should:
A) administer O S1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/min.
B) place a wedge under the right hip.
C) increase the IV fluids to 150 mL/hr.
D) position client in a knee-chest position.
Q3) If the position of a fetus in a cephalic presentation is right occiput anterior, the nurse should assess the fetal heart rate in which quadrant of the maternal abdomen?
A) Right upper
B) Left upper
C) Right lower
D) Left lower
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16
Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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47 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To relieve a mild postdural puncture headache, the nurse should encourage the intake of:
A) milk.
B) orange juice.
C) tea or coffee.
D) beef or chicken bouillon.
Q2) The nerve block used in labor that provides anesthesia to the lower vagina and perineum is a(n):
A) local.
B) epidural.
C) pudendal.
D) spinal block.
Q3) Which fetal position may cause the laboring client more back discomfort?
A) Left occiput anterior
B) Left occiput posterior
C) Right occiput anterior
D) Right occiput transverse
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17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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52 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which breech presentation should the nurse recognize as being favorable for an external cephalic version?
A) 36-week gestation with low-lying placenta
B) 38-week gestation with one previous cesarean
C) 37-week gestation with fetal weight of 7 pounds
D) 40-week gestation with several uterine fibroids
Q2) Which assessment finding is indicative of a major complication 1 hour following a forceps birth?
A) Uterine fundus displaced at U + 1
B) Complaints of vaginal and uterine pain
C) Peripads showing moderate lochia rubra
D) Increase in pulse rate from 90 to 110 bpm
Q3) Nursing care before a cesarean birth should include:
A) full perineal shave preparation.
B) administering a clear oral antacid.
C) injection of narcotic preoperative medications.
D) straight catheterization to empty the bladder.
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse includes the addition of ice sitz baths for the postpartum patient. Which assessment finding indicates the treatment has been effective?
A) No swelling or edema to the perineal area
B) Patient complains that the sitz bath is too cold
C) Patient reports she took two sitz baths in 12 hours
D) Edges of the perineal laceration are well approximated
Q2) The nurse is providing care to a patient 2 hours after a cesarean section. In the hand-off report, the preceding nurse indicated that the patient's lochia was scant rubra. On initial assessment, the oncoming nurse notes the patient's peripad is saturated with lochia rubra immediately after breastfeeding her infant. What is the nurse's priority action with this finding?
A) Weigh the peripad.
B) Replace the peripad.
C) Contact the health care provider.
D) Document the finding in the patient's chart.
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother states, "My mother-in-law will be here from out of town for a few weeks. I'm afraid she will take over the care of the baby." Which response should the nurse make?
A) Tell the client that everything will be okay.
B) Tell the client how lucky she is to have someone to help her.
C) Encourage the client to allow her mother-in-law to take care of the newborn.
D) Encourage the client to tell her mother-in-law that she (the new mother) wants to care for her infant.
Q2) Which client is most likely to have the least stress adjusting to her role as a mother?
A) A 26-year-old woman who is returning to work in 10 weeks
B) A 35-year-old anxious mother who has had no contact with babies or children
C) A 16-year-old teenager who lives with her parents and has a strained relationship with her mother
D) A 25-year-old woman who knew at 16 weeks of gestation that she was pregnant with twins, who were delivered by cesarean birth
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining how a newly delivered baby initiates respirations. Which statement explains this process?
A) Drying off the infant
B) Chemical, thermal, and mechanical factors
C) An increase in the POS1U1B12S1U1B0 and a decrease in the PCOS1U1B12S1U1B0
D) The continued functioning of the foramen ovale
Q2) The postpartum nurse is administering vitamin K (phytonadione) to a newborn. The prescribed order is to administer one dose of 0.5 mg of vitamin K via the intramuscular (IM) route within 1 hour after birth. The ampule of vitamin K sent from the pharmacy is 1 mg/0.5 mL. How many milliliters does the nurse draw up to administer the correct dose? Record your answer to two decimal points. _____ mL
Q3) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
A)Only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
B)First immunoglobulin produced by the newborn when stressed
C)Important in protection of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system
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21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infants who develop cephalohematoma are at increased risk for:
A) infection.
B) jaundice.
C) caput succedaneum.
D) erythema toxicum.
Q2) Which nursing action is designed to avoid unnecessary heat loss in the newborn?
A) Maintain room temperature at 70° F.
B) Place a blanket over the scale before weighing the infant.
C) Take the rectal temperature every hour to detect early changes.
D) Undress the infant completely for assessments so that they can be finished quickly.
Q3) The nurse is receiving a shift report in the newborn nursery. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A) 38-weeks' gestation female newborn with a blood sugar level of 60 mg/dL
B) Term male newborn with a noted axillary temperature of 37.2° C (99° F)
C) 40-weeks' gestation female newborn with reported poor feed at last attempt
D) 39-weeks' gestation male newborn who has been crying prior to initial bath
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22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most newborns receive a prophylactic injection of vitamin K soon after birth. Which site is appropriate for the newborn?
A) Deltoid muscle
B) Gluteal muscles
C) Rectus femoris muscle
D) Vastus lateralis muscle
Q2) Which is the purpose of state-required newborn screening?
A) Keep the state records updated.
B) Document the number of births.
C) Allow for accurate statistical information.
D) Recognize and treat newborn disorders early.
Q3) The nurse is assessing a newborn's circumcision 30 minutes after the procedure. The nurse notes excessive bleeding coming from the circumcised area. Which priority intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Apply pressure to the site.
B) Continue to observe for another 30 minutes.
C) Apply the diaper tightly over the circumcised area.
D) Apply petroleum jelly to the site with a small piece of gauze.
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an important consideration in positioning a newborn for breastfeeding?
A) Placing the infant at nipple level facing the breast
B) Keeping the infant's head slightly lower than the body
C) Using the forefinger and middle finger to support the breast
D) Limiting the amount of areola the infant takes into the mouth
Q2) Late in pregnancy, the client's breasts should be assessed by the nurse to identify any potential concerns related to breastfeeding. Which of the following nipple conditions make it necessary to intervene before birth. (Select all that apply.)
A) Flat nipples
B) Cracked nipples
C) Everted nipples
D) Inverted nipples
E) Nipples that contract when compressed
Q3) To prevent breast engorgement, what should the new breastfeeding mother be instructed to do?
A) Feed her infant no more than every 4 hours.
B) Limit her intake of fluids for the first few days.
C) Apply cold packs to the breast prior to feeding.
D) Breast-feed frequently and for adequate lengths of time.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the priority rationale for doing a car seat trial for a preterm neonate being discharged soon?
A) To assess the car seat's size
B) To assess the parents' knowledge about car seat use
C) To determine if the neonate cries while in the car seat
D) To assess for any neonate apnea or bradycardia while in the car seat
Q2) Which statement by the parents indicates the need for further education with regard to pacifier use?
A) "We will discard the pacifier if it becomes torn."
B) "We will replace the pacifier every 1 to 2 months."
C) "We will be sure to cleanse the pacifier frequently."
D) "We will keep track of the pacifier by tying it to a string around the baby's neck."
Q3) Which is the treatment for miliaria?
A) Application of oil
B) Removal of wet clothing
C) Removal of excess clothing
D) Application of soothing lotion
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Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which should the nurse do when counseling a teenage client who has decided to relinquish her baby for adoption?
A) Question her about her feelings regarding adoption.
B) Tell her she can always change her mind about adoption.
C) Affirm her decision while acknowledging her maturity in making it.
D) Ask her if anyone is coercing her into the decision to relinquish her baby.
Q2) Many teens wait until the second or even third trimester to seek prenatal care. The nurse should understand that the reasons behind this delay include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Continuing to deny the pregnancy
B) Uncertainty about where to go for care
C) Lack of realization that they are pregnant
D) A desire to gain control over their situation
E) Wanting to hide the pregnancy as long as possible
Q3) Marijuana
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
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Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The labor and birth nurse is reviewing the risk factors for placenta previa with a group of nursing students. The nurse determines that the students understood the discussion when they identify which patient being at the highest risk for developing a placenta previa?
A) Female fetus, Mexican-American, primigravida
B) Male fetus, Asian-American, previous preterm birth
C) Male fetus, African-American, previous cesarean section
D) Female fetus, European-American, previous spontaneous abortion
Q2) A client with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate:
A) gastrointestinal upset.
B) effects of magnesium sulfate.
C) anxiety caused by hospitalization.
D) worsening disease and impending convulsion.
Q3) Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
A) Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
B) Complaint of frequent mild nausea
C) Fundal height measurement of 18 cm
D) History of bright red spotting for 1 day weeks ago
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a pregnant client with diabetes experiences hypoglycemia while hospitalized, which should the nurse have the client do?
A) Eat a candy bar.
B) Eat six saltine crackers or drink 8 oz of milk.
C) Drink 4 oz of orange juice followed by 8 oz of milk.
D) Drink 8 oz of orange juice with 2 teaspoons of sugar added.
Q2) Which postpartum client requires further assessment?
A) G4 P4 who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours
B) G1 P1 with Class II heart disease who complains of frequent coughing
C) G2 P2 with gestational diabetes whose fasting blood sugar level is 100 mg/dL
D) G3 P2 postcesarean client who has active herpes lesions on the labia
Q3) A client has tested HIV-positive and has now discovered that she is pregnant. Which statement indicates that she understands the risks of this diagnosis?
A) "I know I will need to have an abortion as soon as possible."
B) "Even though my test is positive, my baby might not be affected."
C) "My baby is certain to have AIDS and die within the first year of life."
D) "This pregnancy will probably decrease the chance that I will develop AIDS."
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28
Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing the prenatal record of a client at 42 weeks' gestation, the nurse recognizes that induction of labor is indicated based on the finding of:
A) reduced amniotic fluid volume.
B) cervix 2 cm at last prenatal visit.
C) fundal height measured at the xyphoid process.
D) 1-pound weight gain at each of the last two weekly visits.
Q2) Which presentation is most likely to occur with a hypertonic labor pattern? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased risk for placenta previa
B) Painful uterine contractions
C) Increased resting tone
D) Uterine vasodilation
E) Increased uterine pressure
F) Effective uterine contraction
Q3) Which pelvic shape is most conducive to vaginal labor and birth?
A) Android
B) Gynecoid
C) Platypelloid
D) Anthropoid
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which labor and birth information on the client would suggest an increased risk for hemorrhage?
A) Precipitous birth after a 12-hour labor
B) Cesarean birth of an infant weighing 8 lb, 4 oz
C) Vaginal birth of 7-lb infant after a 2-hour labor
D) Vaginal birth of 6-lb infant after a 7-hour labor
Q2) A steady trickle of bright red blood from the vagina in the presence of a firm fundus suggests:
A) uterine atony.
B) perineal hematoma.
C) infection of the uterus.
D) lacerations of the genital tract.
Q3) Which measure may prevent mastitis in a breastfeeding client?
A) Wearing a tight-fitting bra
B) Applying ice packs prior to feeding
C) Initiating early and frequent feedings
D) Nursing the infant for 5 minutes on each breast
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is most true about large-for-gestational age (LGA) infants?
A) They weigh more than 3500g.
B) They are above the 80th percentile on gestational growth charts.
C) They are prone to hypoglycemia, polycythemia, and birth injuries.
D) Postmaturity syndrome and fractured clavicles are the most common complications.
Q2) Following a traumatic birth of a 10-pound infant, the nurse should assess:
A) gestational age status.
B) flexion of both upper extremities.
C) infant's percentile on growth chart.
D) blood sugar to detect hyperglycemia.
Q3) What will the nurse note when assessing an infant with asymmetric intrauterine growth restriction?
A) All body parts appear proportionate.
B) The extremities are disproportionate to the trunk.
C) The head seems large compared with the rest of the body.
D) One side of the body appears slightly smaller than the other.
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The infant of a diabetic mother is hypoglycemic. Which type of feeding should be instituted first?
A) Glucose water
B) D5W intravenously
C) Formula via nasogastric tube
D) Small amount of glucose water followed by formula or breast milk
Q2) An infant with severe meconium aspiration syndrome is not responding to conventional treatment. Which method of treatment may be available at a level III facility for use with this infant?
A) Insertion of an endotracheal tube
B) Respiratory support with a ventilator
C) Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
D) Insertion of a laryngoscope and suctioning of the trachea
Q3) Which intervention should make phototherapy most effective in reducing the indirect bilirubin in an affected newborn?
A) Turn the infant every 2 hours.
B) Place eye patches on the newborn.
C) Wrap the infant in triple blankets to prevent cold stress.
D) Increase the oral intake of water between and before feedings.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Informed consent concerning contraceptive use is important because some of the methods:
A) may not be reliable.
B) require a surgical procedure to insert.
C) have potentially dangerous side effects.
D) are invasive procedures that require hospitalization.
Q2) Which response by the nurse is most appropriate when a client asks, "What contraceptive do you think I should use?"
A) "Ask your doctor. She will know what is best for you."
B) "The male condom is probably the easiest for you to use."
C) "Because you are younger than 40, you should use oral contraceptives."
D) "I can discuss the various methods with you so you can decide what is best."
Q3) A nurse is leading a discussion regarding birth control measures. Which method is considered the most reliable method?
A) Coitus interruptus
B) Breastfeeding
C) Natural family planning
D) Intrauterine device
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Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman undergoing evaluation of infertility states, "At least when we're through with all of these tests, we will know what is wrong." The nurse's best response is:
A) "I know the test will identify what is wrong."
B) "I'm sure that once you finish these tests, your problem will be resolved."
C) "Even with diagnostic testing, infertility remains unexplained in about 20% of couples."
D) "Once you've identified your problem, you may want to look at the option of adoption."
Q2) The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is:
A) in vitro fertilization.
B) tubal embryo transfer.
C) therapeutic insemination.
D) gamete intrafallopian transfer.
Q3) Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest:
A) inadequate fructose.
B) inflammation of the testes.
C) an infection of the genital tract.
D) an obstruction in the vas deferens.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) While performing a self-breast exam, the client notes an area on the right breast that is nodular, with some associated tenderness. This is a new onset finding because the exams were not problematic in the past,. The left breast examination is unremarkable. The client calls to report her findings to the clinical nurse because this is not her typical result. What action should the nurse take next?
A) Refer the client to an oncologist because the results sound suspicious.
B) Ask the client to come in for an office visit so that the findings can be validated but tell her that this information is within the normal range of presentation.
C) Have the client wear a tight-fitting bra and tell her that the tenderness is associated with ovulation and will pass.
D) Have the client repeat the self-breast exam in 2 weeks and call back with findings to provide a basis for comparison.
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client states, "I'm sure that I am suffering from PMS. How can I get my doctor to take this seriously?" The nurse's best response is:
A) "Men are not usually sympathetic to PMS sufferers."
B) "You are probably right. You should remind your doctor of your symptoms every time you visit."
C) "Since you feel certain you are right, you should just treat yourself with over-the-counter medications."
D) "You should keep a daily record of the occurrence and severity of your symptoms for 3 months."
Q2) A client with a history of a cystocele should contact the physician if she experiences: A) backache.
B) constipation.
C) urinary frequency and burning.
D) involuntary loss of urine when she coughs.
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