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Family Health Nursing focuses on the assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of health care for families across the life span. This course emphasizes the roles and responsibilities of nurses in promoting, maintaining, and restoring health within the family context, considering cultural, social, and environmental factors that impact health. Students will learn how to identify family health needs, support family dynamics, and collaborate with interdisciplinary teams to provide holistic care. The course also covers family-centered care approaches, health promotion strategies, prevention of diseases, and management of common health issues affecting families.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/168 Page 2
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2149
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient could safely be cared for by a certified nurse-midwife?
A) Gravida 3, para 2, with no complications
B) Gravida 1, para 0, with mild hypertension
C) Gravida 2, para 1, with insulin-dependent diabetes
D) Gravida 1, para 0, with borderline pelvic measurements
Answer: A
Q2) Expectant parents ask a prenatal nurse educator, "Which setting for childbirth limits the amount of parent-infant interaction?" Which answer should the nurse provide for these parents in order to assist them in choosing an appropriate birth setting?
A)Birth center
B)Home birth
C)Traditional hospital birth
D)Labor, birth, and recovery room
Answer: C
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32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2150
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a parenting class to new parents. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session about the characteristics of a healthy family?
A) Adults agree on the majority of basic parenting principles.
B) The parents and children have rigid assignments for all the family tasks.
C) Young families assume total responsibility for the parenting tasks, refusing any assistance.
D) The family is overwhelmed by the significant changes that occur as a result of childbirth.
Answer: A
Q2) Which patient will most likely seek prenatal care?
A) A 15-year-old patient who tells her friends, "I just don't believe that I am pregnant"
B) A 28-year-old who is in her second pregnancy and abuses drugs and alcohol
C) A 20-year-old who is in her first pregnancy and has access to a free prenatal clinic
D) A 30-year-old who is in her fifth pregnancy and delivered her last infant at home with the help of her mother and sister
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) The middle school nurse is reviewing the phases of the endometrial cycle with a group of female students. Which statement by a student will the nurse need to correct?
A) "The proliferative phase occurs when the ovum is maturing."
B) "The expulsion phase occurs when the ovum is discharged from the ovary."
C) "The secretory phase occurs during the second half of the menstrual cycle."
D) "The menstrual phase occurs after the levels of estrogen and progesterone fall."
Answer: B
Q2) The school nurse is conducting health education classes for a group of adolescents. Which statement best describes a secondary sexual characteristic?
A) Maturation of ova
B) Production of sperm
C) Female breast development
D) Secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is born with blood type AB. The father is type A and the mother is type B. The father asks why the baby has a blood type different from that of the parents. The nurse's answer should be based on the knowledge that
A) both A and B blood types are dominant.
B) types A and B are recessive when linked together.
C) the baby has a mutation of the parents' blood types.
D) type A is recessive and links more easily with type B.
Q2) Which characteristic is related to Down syndrome?
A) Up-slanting eyes
B) Abnormal genitalia
C) Bleeding tendency
D) Edema of extremities
Q3) Which information should the nurse include when discussing the prenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders with an expectant couple?
A) The diagnosis may be slow and could be inconclusive.
B) A comprehensive evaluation will result in an accurate diagnosis.
C) Common disorders can be quickly diagnosed through blood tests.
D) Diagnosis can be obtained promptly through most hospital laboratories.
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is diagnosed with fetal anemia. Which information would support this clinical diagnosis?
A) Presence of excess maternal hormones
B) Maternal blood type O-negative, Rh-negative, and infant blood type O-negative, Rh-negative
C) Passive immunity
D) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive baby
Q2) The nurse is explaining fetal circulation to a group of nursing students. Which information should be included in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) After birth the ductus venosus remains open, but the other shunts close.
B) The foramen ovale shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium.
C) The ductus venosus shunts blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava.
D) The ductus arteriosus shunts blood from the right ventricle to the left ventricle.
Q3) What is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?
A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum
B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division
C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge
D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman complains of frequent heartburn. The patient states that she has never had these symptoms before and wonders why this is happening now. The most appropriate response by the nurse is to
A) examine her dietary intake pattern and tell her to avoid certain foods.
B) tell her that this is a normal finding during early pregnancy and will resolve as she gets closer to term.
C) explain to the patient that physiologic changes caused by the pregnancy make her more likely to experience these types of symptoms.
D) refer her to her health care provider for additional testing because this is an abnormal finding.
Q2) What is the term for the step in maternal role attainment that relates to the woman giving up certain aspects of her previous life?
A) Fantasy
B) Grief work
C) Role playing
D) Looking for a fit
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an IUD in place has a positive pregnancy test. When planning care, the nurse will base decisions on which anticipated action?
A) A therapeutic abortion will need to be scheduled since fetal damage is inevitable.
B) Hormonal analyses will be done to determine the underlying cause of the false-positive test result.
C) The IUD will need to be removed to avoid complications such as miscarriage or infection.
D) The IUD will need to remain in place to avoid injuring the fetus.
Q2) A patient who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily has a positive pregnancy test. The nurse will explain that smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of which condition?
A) Congenital anomalies
B) Death before or after birth
C) Neonatal hypoglycemia
D) Neonatal withdrawal syndrome
Q3) Calculate the estimated date of birth (EDD) in October using Nägele's rule for a patient whose last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on January 1. Record your answer as a whole number. _______
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which effect is a common response to both smoking and cocaine use in the pregnant patient?
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Increased appetite
C) Increased metabolism
D) Changes in insulin metabolism
Q2) The nurse is advising a lactose-intolerant pregnant patient about calcium intake. Which calcium sources are approximately equivalent to 1 cup of milk? (Select all that apply.)
A) \( 3 / 4 \) cup yogurt
B) 1 cup of sherbet
C) 1\(\frac{1}{4}\) oz of hard cheese
D) 1\(\frac{1}{4}\) cups of ice cream
E) \( 3 / 4 \) cup of low-fat cottage cheese
Q3) Which clinical finding is associated with inadequate maternal weight gain during pregnancy?
A) Prolonged labor
B) Preeclampsia
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Low-birth-weight infant
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a patient hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Determine if a metabolic disorder exists.
B) Identify the sex of the fetus.
C) Identify abnormal fetal cells.
D) Determine fetal lung maturity.
Q2) What does optimal nursing care after an amniocentesis include?
A) Pushing fluids by mouth
B) Monitoring uterine activity
C) Placing the patient in a supine position for 2 hours
D) Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site
Q3) The nurse is preparing a patient for a nonstress test (NST). Which interventions should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ensure that the patient has a full bladder.
B) Plan approximately 15 minutes for the test.
C) Have the patient sit in a recliner with the head elevated 45 degrees.
D) Apply electronic monitoring equipment to the patient's abdomen.
E) Instruct the patient to press an event marker every time she feels fetal movement.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which intrapartal assessment should be avoided when caring for a patient with HELLP syndrome?
A) Abdominal palpation
B) Venous sample of blood
C) Checking deep tendon reflexes
D) Auscultation of the heart and lungs
Q2) A patient with no prenatal care delivers a healthy male infant via the vaginal route, with minimal blood loss. During the labor period, vital signs were normal. At birth, significant maternal hypertension is noted. When the patient is questioned, she relates that there is history of heart disease in her family; but, that she has never been treated for hypertension. Blood pressure is treated in the hospital setting and the patient is discharged. The patient returns at her scheduled 6-week checkup and is found to be hypertensive. Which type of hypertension is the patient is exhibiting?
A) Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)
B) Gestational hypertension
C) Preeclampsia superimposed on chronic hypertension
D) Undiagnosed chronic hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristics of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) should the nurse expect to assess in affected neonates? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hydrocephaly
B) Low activity
C) Epicanthal folds
D) Short palpebral fissures
E) Flat midface, with a low nasal bridge
Q2) Which nursing diagnoses may apply to the childbearing family with special needs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Risk for spiritual distress
B) Risk for injury
C) Readiness for enhanced nutrition
D) Ineffective breathing pattern
E) Situational low self-esteem
Q3) Which complication of adolescent pregnancy should the nurse plan to monitor?
A) Anemia
B) Placenta previa
C) Abruptio placenta
D) Incompetent cervix
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a notation on the patient's health record states that the fetal position is LSP, this indicates that the
A) head is in the right posterior quadrant of the pelvis.
B) head is in the left anterior quadrant of the pelvis.
C) buttocks are in the left posterior quadrant of the pelvis.
D) buttocks are in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.
Q2) The laboring patient asks the nurse how the labor contractions cause the cervix to dilate. The nurse responds that labor contractions facilitate cervical dilation by
A) promoting blood flow to the cervix.
B) contracting the lower uterine segment.
C) enlarging the internal size of the uterus.
D) pulling the cervix over the fetus and amniotic sac.
Q3) Which assessment finding indicates that cervical dilation and/or effacement has occurred?
A) Onset of irregular contractions
B) Cephalic presentation at 0 station
C) Bloody mucus drainage from vagina
D) Fetal heart tones (FHTs) present in the lower right quadrant
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2161
Sample Questions
Q1) Childbirth preparation can be considered successful if which of the following outcomes is achieved?
A) Labor was pain-free.
B) The birth experiences of friends and families were ignored.
C) Only nonpharmacologic methods for pain control were used.
D) The patient rehearsed labor and practiced skills to master pain.
Q2) Which patient will be most receptive to teaching about nonpharmacologic pain control methods?
A) Gravida 1, para 0, in transition
B) Gravida 2, para 1, admitted at 8 cm
C) Gravida 1, para 0, dilated 2 cm, 80% effaced
D) Gravida 3, para 2, complaining of intense perineal pressure
Q3) The primary side effect of maternal narcotic analgesia in the newborn is A) tachypnea.
B) bradycardia.
C) acrocyanosis.
D) respiratory depression.
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To clarify the fetal condition when baseline variability is absent, the nurse should first
A) monitor fetal oxygen saturation using fetal pulse oximetry.
B) notify the physician so that a fetal scalp blood sample can be obtained.
C) apply pressure to the fetal scalp with a glove finger using a circular motion.
D) increase the rate of nonadditive IV fluid to expand the mother's blood volume.
Q2) Proper placement of the tocotransducer for electronic fetal monitoring is
A) Inside the uterus.
B) On the fetal scalp.
C) Over the uterine fundus.
D) Over the mother's lower abdomen.
Q3) What is the most likely cause for this fetal heart rate pattern?
A) Administration of an epidural for pain relief during labor
B) Cord compression
C) Breech position of fetus
D) Administration of meperidine (Demerol) for pain relief during labor
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a patient in labor who is considered to be at low risk, which assessments should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
A) Check the DTR each shift.
B) Monitor and record vital signs frequently during the course of labor.
C) Document the FHR pattern, noting baseline and response to contraction patterns.
D) Indicate on the EFM tracing when maternal position changes are done.
E) Provide food, as tolerated, during the course of labor.
Q2) A nursing priority during admission of a laboring patient who has not had prenatal care is
A) obtaining admission labs.
B) identifying labor risk factors.
C) discussing her birth plan choices.
D) explaining importance of prenatal care.
Q3) A maternal indication for the use of vacuum extraction is
A) a wide pelvic outlet.
B) maternal exhaustion.
C) a history of rapid deliveries.
D) failure to progress past 0 station.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which intervention should be incorporated in the plan of care for a labor patient who is experiencing hypertonic labor? Vaginal exam is unchanged from prior exam-3 cm, 80% effaced, and 0 station presenting part vertex.
A) Augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) AROM
C) Performing a vaginal exam to denote progress
D) Preparing the patient for epidural administration as ordered by the physician
Q2) A patient who has had two previous cesarean births is in active labor when she suddenly complains of pain between her scapulae. Which should be the nurse's priority action?
A) Notify the health care provider promptly.
B) Observe for abnormally high uterine resting tone.
C) Decrease the rate of nonadditive intravenous fluid.
D) Reposition the patient with her hips slightly elevated.
Q3) Which nursing action should be initiated first when there is evidence of prolapsed cord?
A) Notify the health care provider.
B) Apply a scalp electrode.
C) Prepare the mother for an emergency cesarean birth.
D) Reposition the mother with her hips higher than her head.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are nursing measures that can promote parent-infant bonding and attachment? (Select all that apply.)
A) Provide comfort and ample time for rest.
B) Keep the baby wrapped to avoid cold stress.
C) Position the infant face to face with the mother.
D) Point out the characteristics of the infant in a positive way.
E) Limit the amount of modeling so the mother doesn't feel insecure.
Q2) Which vaccinations are indicated for the postpartum patient if she does not have immunity? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pertussis
B) Rubella
C) Diphtheria, tetanus (Tdap)
D) RhoGAM
E) Varicella
Q3) Which situation would require the administration of Rho(D) immune globulin?
A) Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-positive
B) Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-negative
C) Mother Rh-positive, baby Rh-positive
D) Mother Rh-positive, baby Rh-negative
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a late postpartum hemorrhage is documented on a patient who delivered 3 days ago, the nurse recognizes that this hemorrhage occurred
A) on the first postpartum day.
B) during recovery phase of labor.
C) during the third stage of labor.
D) on the second postpartum day.
Q2) The patient who is being treated for endometritis is placed in the Fowler position because this position
A) promotes comfort and rest.
B) facilitates drainage of lochia.
C) prevents spread of infection to the urinary tract.
D) decreases tension on the reproductive organs.
Q3) Prior to ambulating the patient whose admission hemoglobin level was 10.2 g/dL to the bathroom, the nurse should
A) request repeat hemoglobin and hematocrit.
B) assess the resting pulse rate.
C) dangle her on the side of the bed.
D) administer the ordered oral analgesic.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which method of heat loss may occur if a newborn is placed on a cold scale or touched with cold hands?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Evaporation
Q2) The nurse is planning to conduct the initial assessment of a full-term newborn. Included in the plan is providing a neutral thermal environment. To accomplish this plan, what is the desired environmental temperature to conduct the assessment?
A) 24 to 27°C (75.2 to 80.6°F)
B) 28 to 31.5°C (82.4 to 88.7°F)
C) 32 to 33.5°C (89.6 to 92.3°F)
D) 34 to 37.5°C (93.2 to 99.5°F)
Q3) The nurse is explaining how a newly delivered baby initiates respirations. Which statement explains this process most accurately?
A) Drying off the infant
B) Chemical, thermal, and mechanical factors
C) An increase in the PO2 and a decrease in the PCO2
D) The continued functioning of the foramen ovale
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother states, "My baby is so thin and wrinkled. It looks like he has too much skin." Which is the most therapeutic response by the nurse in response to the patient's statement?
A) "You sound disappointed about how your infant looks."
B) "All mothers are concerned about how their babies look."
C) "Don't worry. In no time he'll fill out his skin and look just fine."
D) "You know, all the cigarettes you smoked interfered with the nourishment he needed."
Q2) The mother-baby nurse is providing care to a patient and her newborn 2 hours after delivery. On review of the newborn's chart, the nurse sees a notation of caput succedaneum. What will the nurse expect to find in the mother's chart?
A) Race: non-White
B) A longer than usual labor
C) Administration of an epidural
D) Delivery by cesarean birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infant immunizations should begin at which age?
A) Birth
B) 2 months
C) 3 months
D) 4 months
Q2) In which position should the parents be instructed to place their newborn for sleep?
A) On the back
B) On the left side
C) On the right side
D) On the abdomen
Q3) The nurse is explaining the procedure of newborn screening to parents prior to discharge. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "We understand the tests are performed at 24 to 48 hours."
B) "We're glad all the tests can be done on one blood sample."
C) "We wish the tests would screen for congenital hypothyroidism, it runs in our family."
D) "We know that if the tests are done before 24 hours, the tests will need to be repeated at 1 to 2 weeks."
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Sample Questions
Q1) Late in pregnancy, the patient's breasts should be evaluated by the nurse to identify any potential concerns related to breastfeeding. Which of the following nipple conditions make it necessary to intervene prior to birth. (Select all that apply.)
A) Flat nipples
B) Cracked nipples
C) Everted nipples
D) Inverted nipples
E) Nipples that contract when compressed
Q2) How many kilocalories per kilogram (kcal/kg) of body weight does a full-term formula-fed infant need each day?
A) 50 to 75
B) 100 to 110
C) 120 to 140
D) 150 to 200
Q3) Which hormone is essential for milk production?
A) Estrogen
B) Prolactin
C) Progesterone
D) Lactogen
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Sample Questions
Q1) In caring for the post-term infant, thermoregulation can be a concern, especially in an infant who also has a(n)
A) hematocrit level of 58%.
B) RBC count of 5 million/mcL.
C) WBC count of 15,000 cells/mmS1U1P13S1S1P0.
D) blood glucose level of 25 mg/dL.
Q2) Which nursing action is especially important for an SGA newborn?
A) Promote bonding.
B) Observe for and prevent dehydration.
C) Observe for respiratory distress syndrome.
D) Prevent hypoglycemia with early and frequent feedings.
Q3) Which statement regarding large-for-gestational age (LGA) infants is most accurate?
A) They weigh more than 3500 G
B) They are above the 80th percentile on gestational growth charts.
C) They are prone to hypoglycemia, polycythemia, and birth injuries.
D) Postmaturity syndrome is the most common complication.
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Q1) Which newborn should the nurse recognize as being at the greatest risk for developing respiratory distress syndrome?
A) A 35-week-gestation male baby born vaginally to a mother addicted to heroin.
B) A 35-week-gestation female baby born vaginally 72 hours after the rupture of membranes.
C) A 36-week-gestation male baby born by cesarean birth to a mother with insulin-dependent diabetes.
D) A 35-week-gestation female baby born vaginally to a mother who has pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Q2) While in utero, the fetus passes meconium. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis takes priority for the newborn at birth?
A) Risk for infection related to release of meconium
B) Risk for injury related to high-risk birth interventions, such as amino infusion
C) Risk for aspiration related to retained secretions
D) Risk for thermoregulation because of high-risk labor status
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Q1) The patient who has had an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted should be instructed to A) use a vinegar douche weekly for 4 weeks.
B) have the IUD replaced every 2 to 4 years.
C) check the placement of the string once a week for 4 weeks.
D) use another method of contraception for 2 weeks after insertion.
Q2) When instructing a patient in the use of spermicidal foam or gel, it is important to include the information that
A) effectiveness is about 85%.
B) douching should be avoided for at least 6 hours.
C) it should be inserted 1 to 2 hours before intercourse.
D) one application is effective for several hours.
Q3) When using the basal body temperature method of family planning, the woman should understand that
A) she will remain fertile for 5 days after ovulation.
B) she should take her temperature each night before going to bed.
C) her temperature will increase about 0.2 to 0.4°C (0.4 to 0.8°F) after ovulation.
D) her temperature is normally lower during the second half of her cycle.
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Q1) Which of the following medical conditions could possible affect a woman's fertility status?
A) Past medical history of asthma during childhood that is presently under control with the use of an inhaler
B) Recently diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome
C) Past surgical history of removal of external polyps on labial tissue
D) History of frequent sinus headaches that is seasonal in nature treated with over-the-counter medication
Q2) Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest a clinical finding of A) inadequate fructose.
B) inflammation of the testes.
C) an infection of the genital tract.
D) an obstruction in the vas deferens.
Q3) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
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Q1) Which are the most common sites of breast cancer metastasis?
A) Kidneys
B) Bones and liver
C) Heart and blood vessels
D) Skin
Q2) You are taking care of a patient who has had a colporrhaphy. Which option would indicate a priority assessment during the postoperative period?
A) Documentation of a pessary in the operative procedure notes by the physician
B) Removal of vaginal packing as ordered by the physician
C) Use of a cell saver for transfusion therapy in the postoperative period
D) Order for removal of staples 2 to 3 days post-procedure
Q3) A patient with a history of a cystocele should contact the physician if she experiences
A) backache.
B) constipation.
C) urinary frequency and burning.
D) involuntary loss of urine when she coughs.
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