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Family Nurse Practitioner Practicum Exam Bank - 571 Verified Questions

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Family Nurse Practitioner Practicum Exam Bank

Course Introduction

The Family Nurse Practitioner Practicum is a supervised clinical experience designed to integrate advanced nursing theory with hands-on practice in providing comprehensive primary care to individuals and families across the lifespan. Students will develop and apply skills in health assessment, diagnosis, health promotion, disease prevention, and management of acute and chronic conditions in diverse populations. The practicum emphasizes collaborative care, cultural competence, ethical decision-making, and evidence-based interventions within various healthcare settings. Through direct patient care and mentorship by experienced healthcare professionals, students will enhance their clinical judgment, leadership, and communication skills required for the advanced practice nursing role.

Recommended Textbook

Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses 3rd Edition

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20 Chapters

571 Verified Questions

571 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3772

Page 2

Chapter 1: Assessment and Clinical Decision-Making:

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75257

Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of clinical decision-making is most reliable?

A) Intuitive

B) Analytical

C) Experiential

D) Augenblick

Answer: B

Q2) If a diagnostic study has high sensitivity,this indicates a:

A) High percentage of persons with the given condition will have an abnormal result

B) Low percentage of persons with the given condition will have an abnormal result

C) Low likelihood of normal result in persons without a given condition

D) None of the above

Answer: A

Q3) If a diagnostic study has high specificity,this indicates a:

A) Low percentage of healthy individuals will show a normal result

B) High percentage of healthy individuals will show a normal result

C) High percentage of individuals with a disorder will show a normal result

D) Low percentage of individuals with a disorder will show an abnormal result

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: An Overview of Genetic Assessment

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) In autosomal recessive disorders,carriers have:

A) Two mutated genes;one from each parent that cause disease

B) A mutation on a sex chromosome that causes a disease

C) A single gene mutation that causes the disease

D) One copy of a gene mutation but not the disease

Answer: D

Q2) When analyzing the pedigree for autosomal dominant disorders,it is common to see:

A) Several generations of affected members

B) Many consanguineous relationships

C) More members of the maternal lineage affected than paternal

D) More members of the paternal lineage affected than maternal

Answer: A

Q3) In autosomal recessive (AR)disorders,individuals need:

A) Only one mutated gene on the sex chromosomes to acquire the disease

B) Only one mutated gene to acquire the disease

C) Two mutated genes to acquire the disease

D) Two mutated genes to become carriers

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Skin

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75255

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following skin disorders is associated with diabetes?

A) Acanthosis nigricans

B) Vitiligo

C) Impetigo

D) Folliculitis

Answer: A

Q2) When a patient presents with a skin-related complaint,it is important to first:

A) Fully inspect all skin lesions before asking the patient how the lesion in question developed

B) Obtain a full history about the development of the skin lesion prior to the physical examination

C) Complete a full physical examination of the body prior to inspecting the skin lesion

D) Examine the skin lesion without hearing a health history in order to not prejudice the diagnosis

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Head,face,and Neck

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75254

Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient accidentally cut his cheek while shaving 3 days ago.Today,the region is warm,erythematous,swollen,and has the appearance of an orange peel.There is a serous exudate coming from the wound.This is most likely due to:

A) Folliculitis

B) Cellulitis

C) Supurative Parotitis

D) Sialoadenitis

Q2) The following is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause pharyngitis and cervical lymphadenopathy with oral sex:

A) Hemolytic streptococcus

B) Chlamydia trachomatis

C) Epstein-Barr virus

D) Cytomegalovirus

Q3) Which of the cranial nerves should be tested if the patient complains of numbness of the cheek?

A) Cranial nerve III

B) Cranial nerve V

C) Cranial nerve VII

D) Cranial nerve X

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Page 6

Chapter 5: The Eye

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The fundoscopic examination allows the clinician to directly observe:

A) Cranial nerve I

B) Cranial nerve II

C) Cranial nerve III

D) Cranial nerve IV

Q2) The most common type of eye disorder is:

A) Refractive errors

B) Macular conditions

C) Neurological conditions

D) Astigmatisms

Q3) A 9-month-old patient presents with fever and large areas of redness and bullae over the trunk,palms,legs,and sole of the feet.There is redness and swelling of the conjunctiva and lips.The clinician should recognize this condition as:

A) Giant cell arteritis

B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome

C) Botulism

D) Myasthenia gravis

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Chapter 6: Ear, nose, mouth, and Throat

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75252

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient complains of fever,fatigue,and pharyngitis.On physical examination there is pronounced cervical lymphadenopathy.Which of the following diagnostic tests should be considered?

A) Mono spot

B) Strep test

C) Throat culture

D) All of the above

Q2) Which microorganism is the most common cause of tonsillitis in adolescents?

A) Epstein-Barr virus

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae

C) Mycoplasma

D) Grp A beta hemolytic streptococcus

Q3) The following disorder commonly presents with vesicular or ulcerated lesions with a yellow base on the oral mucosa and lips.

A) Aphthous ulcer

B) Herpes simplex I

C) Coxsackie viral infection

D) All of the above

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8

Chapter 7: Cardiac and Peripheral Vascular Systems

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57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cardiac chest pain is most often described as:

A) Stabbing,piercing pain

B) Pain with inhalation

C) Crushing,squeezing pain

D) Burning,gnawing pain

Q2) Your patient has had hypertension for 10 years,a myocardial infarction 5 years ago,and now complains of dyspnea on exertion,cough,and 3-pillow orthopnea.Which of the following conditions is likely?

A) Right ventricular failure

B) Pulmonary embolism

C) Cor pulmonale

D) Left ventricular failure

Q3) Pain associated with a dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm is commonly described as:

A) Retrosternal crushing and squeezing

B) Chest stabbing and sharp

C) Ripping and tearing in the chest or thoracic back

D) Worse with inspiration

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Chapter 8: Respiratory System

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 23-year-old patient who has had bronchiectasis since childhood is likely to have which of the following:

A) Barrel-shaped chest

B) Clubbing

C) Pectus excavatum

D) Prolonged capillary refill

Q2) A cough is described as chronic if it has been present for:

A) 2 weeks or more

B) 8 weeks or more

C) 3 months or more

D) 6 months or more

Q3) If on physical examination the clinician auscultates rhonchi,the clinician should ask the patient to take a deep breath and cough in order to:

A) Mobilize secretions

B) Diagnose pleural effusion

C) Accurately distinguish lung sounds

D) A & C

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Chapter 9: Breasts

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 52-year-old female complains of discharge from one of her breasts.There is no pain,no mass,and no skin changes.The physical examination is normal.When putting pressure on the affected breast,the nipple expresses a small amount of thick,white discharge.These findings are consistent with:

A) Duct ectasia

B) Mastitis

C) Fibroadenoma

D) Fibrocystic breasts

Q2) A 62-year-old female presents with a singular,hard,1 cm,non-tender,non-mobile mass in the right breast.There are no nipple or skin changes,however,you palpate an enlarged right-sided supraclavicular lymph node.The clinician should recognize these are signs of:

A) Fibroadenoma

B) Breast cyst

C) Malignancy

D) Paget's disease

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Chapter 10: Abdomen

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44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your 66-year-old male patient complains of weakness,fatigue,chronic constipation for the last month,and dark stools.On CBC,his results show iron deficiency anemia.Colon cancer is diagnosed.Which of the following laboratory tests is used to follow progress of colon cancer?

A) Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

B) Carcinogenic embryonic antigen (CEA)

C) Carcinoma antigen 125 (CA-125)

D) Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (beta HCG)

Q2) You observe Charcot's triad of sign and symptoms in a patient under your care.This is commonly seen in which of the following disorders?

A) Cirrhosis

B) Pancreatitis

C) Cholangitis

D) Portal hypertension

Q3) The majority of colon cancers are located in the:

A) Transverse colon

B) Cecum

C) Rectosigmoid region

D) Ascending colon

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Genitourinary System

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) On a physical examination for employment,a 45-year-old male shows no significant findings and takes no medications.Past medical history and surgery are unremarkable.On urinalysis,hematuria is present.The urinalysis is repeated on another day and still reveals microscopic hematuria.It is important to recognize that painless hematuria can be diagnostic of:

A) Urinary tract infection

B) Bladder cancer

C) Nephrolithiasis

D) Pyelonephritis

Q2) An intravenous pyelogram should not be performed if serum creatinine is:

A) Less than 1.5

B) Greater than 1.0

C) Greater than 1.6

D) Less than 1.0

Q3) The most common complication of an untreated urinary obstruction due to a ureteral calculus is:

A) Hydronephrosis

B) Renal artery stenosis

C) Ureteral rupture

D) Kidney mass

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Chapter 12: Male Reproductive System

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A male and female patient complain of problems with conception.The female patient is in generally good health.The male patient is a body builder who admits to anabolic steroid use.It is important for the clinician to recognize that in male steroid users,there is often:

A) Atrophic testes

B) Excessive natural testosterone

C) Inadequate natural testosterone

D) A & C

Q2) Which of the following conditions is considered a urologic emergency?

A) Balanitis

B) Paraphimosis

C) Phimosis

D) None of the above

Q3) Peyronie's disease in the male causes:

A) Balanitis of the penis

B) Cryptorchidism

C) Curvature of the penis

D) Fracture of the penis

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14

Chapter 13: Female Reproductive System

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44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The definitive diagnosis of endometriosis is made with:

A) Hysterosalpingoscopy

B) Pelvic CT scan

C) Laparoscopy

D) Pelvic MRI

Q2) Your 45-year-old female patient complains of irregular menstrual cycles,severe pain with menses and heavy bleeding every month for the last year.On examination,you palpate an enlarged uterus.Pregnancy test is negative.A recommended diagnostic test for this patient is:

A) Abdominal CT scan

B) Kidney,ureter,bladder x-ray

C) Pelvic ultrasound

D) Abdominal MRI

Q3) During a pelvic examination,a clinician asks the patient to bear down to inspect the vaginal outlet for:

A) Cystocele

B) Rectocele

C) Prolapsed uterus

D) All of the above

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Musculoskeletal System

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 46-year-old female complains of fatigue,general malaise,and pain and swelling in her hands that has gradually worsened over the last few weeks.She reports that pain,stiffness,and swelling of her hands are most severe in the morning.On physical examination,you note swelling of the metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally.These are common signs of:

A) Osteoarthritis

B) Rheumatoid arthritis

C) Scleroderma

D) Sarcoidosis

Q2) A 20-year-old male construction worker is experiencing new onset of knee pain.He complains of right knee pain when kneeling,squatting,or walking up and down stairs.On physical examination,there is swelling and crepitus of the right knee and obvious pain with resisted range of motion of the knee.He is unable to squat due to pain.Which of the following disorders should be considered in the differential diagnosis?

A) Joint infection

B) Chondromalacia patella

C) Prepatellar bursitis

D) All of the above

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Neurological System

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 77-year-old male is brought into the emergency department accompanied by his daughter.She reports that her father has been complaining of right-handed weakness for 2 to 3 hours and that she has noticed him slurring his speech.On physical examination,the right hand grip strength is 1/ 5 compared to the left hand grip of 5/5.A facial droop is noted on the right side of the face.Cranial nerve dysfunction is noted in the right-sided CNVII,CN V,CNIX,CNX,CNXI,and CNXII.The clinician should request the following diagnostic test immediately:

A) MRI of head

B) CT of the head

C) Lumbar puncture

D) ECG

Q2) When examining the carotid arteries,the clinician should:

A) Ask the patient to hold his/her breath while auscultating the carotid arteries

B) Use the bell of the stethoscope to listen over the carotid arteries

C) Palpate one carotid artery at a time

D) All of the above

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Chapter 16: Nonspecific Complaints

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75242

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is/are diagnostic criteria for primary insomnia?

A) The sleep disturbance is defined as difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep,or non-restorative sleep,for at least 1 month

B) The disturbance does not occur during the course of another mental disorder

C) The sleep disturbance or associated daytime fatigue causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social,occupational,or other important areas of functioning

D) All of the above

Q2) There is a high risk of respiratory depression with administration of an opiate medication in patients with:

A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

B) Congestive heart failure

C) Obstructive sleep apnea

D) A and C

Q3) Which of the following assists in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?

A) Tensilon test

B) Tinel sign

C) McGill questionnaire

D) ACTH challenge test

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18

Chapter 17: Psychiatric Mental Health

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75241

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following mental health disorders commonly affects substance abusers?

A) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

B) Antisocial personality

C) Mania

D) None of the above

Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding phobia?

A) The anxiety associated with phobia is out of proportion to the actual danger or threat in the situation

B) Diagnosis is based on the presence of symptoms for at least a 6-month duration

C) Persons with phobias have apprehension of a future attack,which is referred to as anticipatory anxiety

D) A and B

Q3) It is widely recognized that bereavement-associated depression can last for up to:

A) 6 months

B) 1 year

C) 2 years

D) 5 years

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19

Chapter 18: Pediatric Patients

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) It is important for the clinician to examine head circumference in infants/children up to age:

A) 1 year

B) 2 years

C) 3 years

D) 4 years

Q2) Which of the following is true regarding growth and development of a child?

A) Average head circumference of an infant under 6 months is 13 to 14 inches

B) The head circumference generally increases by a half inch per month during the first 6 months

C) A child's weight typically doubles by 4 to 6 months

D) All of the above

Q3) Which of the following stances is normal in a toddler?

A) Genu varum

B) Genu valgum

C) Lordosis

D) A and C

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Chapter 19: Pregnant Patients

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75239

Sample Questions

Q1) A diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum is made in a pregnant woman when there is a condition of vomiting that causes:

A) Metabolic alkalosis

B) Hyperkalemia

C) Metabolic acidosis

D) None of the above

Q2) A sustained fetal heart rate below is indicative of fetal health jeopardy.

A) 160 beats/minute

B) 140 beats/minute

C) 120 beats/minute

D) 100 beats/minute

Q3) The schedule of prenatal care should be:

A) Every 2 weeks between 28 and 36 weeks

B) Every week between 28 and 36 weeks

C) Every week between 36 and 40 weeks

D) A & C

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Chapter 20: Older Patients

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75238

Sample Questions

Q1) Based on the 2010 Census of the United States,the fastest growing segment of the population is:

A) Adults aged 65 to 75

B) Adults aged 75 to 85

C) Adults aged 85 to 95

D) Adults aged 100+

Q2) One of the most common causes for cognitive impairment in older patients suffering from infection is:

A) Delirium

B) Depression

C) Dementia

D) Pseudodementia

Q3) After a preliminary screen for dementia,a highly sensitive test that should be used to assess for cognitive impairment of the older patient is:

A) The Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)

B) Mini-mental status exam (MMSE)

C) Mini-Cog Clock Drawing test

D) Activities of Daily Living (ADL)

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