Family Nurse Practitioner Practice Questions
Course Introduction
The Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) course prepares advanced practice nurses to deliver primary health care to individuals and families across the lifespan. Emphasizing health promotion, disease prevention, and management of common acute and chronic conditions, the curriculum integrates theoretical knowledge with hands-on clinical experiences. Students develop skills in advanced health assessment, diagnostic reasoning, evidence-based practice, pharmacology, and patient-centered family care. The course also addresses cultural competency, ethical issues, and leadership in diverse healthcare settings, equipping graduates to provide comprehensive, holistic, and collaborative care as professional Family Nurse Practitioners.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 7th Edition by McCance
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49 Chapters
1881 Verified Questions
1881 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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50 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the sequence of steps in the development of a digestive enzyme by the pancreas cells from the initial transcription to the release from the cell?
A) The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosome for synthesis, and is transported in a secretory vesicle to the cell membrane.
B) The enzyme is transcribed from RNA by DNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the lysosome for synthesis, and is transported in an encapsulated membrane to the cell membrane.
C) The enzyme is transcribed by the mitochondria in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosome for synthesis, and is transported in a cytoskeleton to the cell membrane.
D) The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the Golgi complex for synthesis, and is transported in a cytosol to the cell membrane.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acute alcoholism mainly affects which body system?
A) Hepatic
B) Gastrointestinal
C) Renal
D) Central nervous
Answer: D
Q2) Dysplasia refers to a(n):
A) Abnormal increase in the number of a specific cell type
B) True adaptive process at the cellular level
C) Modification in the shape of a specific cell type
D) Lack of oxygen at the cellular level
Answer: C
Q3) What effect does fetal alcohol syndrome have on newborns? (Select all that apply.)
A) Failure of alveoli to open
B) Cognitive impairment
C) Incompetent semilunar values
D) Esophageal stricture
E) Facial anomalies
Answer: B,E
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to osmosis,what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?
A) Oncotic pressure
B) Buffering
C) Net filtration
D) Hydrostatic pressure
Answer: D
Q2) Thirst activates osmoreceptors by an increase in which blood plasma?
A) Antidiuretic hormone
B) Aldosterone
C) Hydrostatic pressure
D) Osmotic pressure
Answer: D
Q3) It is true that natriuretic peptides:
A) Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.
B) Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.
C) Increase heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.
D) Decrease heart rate and increase potassium excretion.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) People diagnosed with neurofibromatosis have varying degrees of the condition because of the genetic principle of:
A) Penetrance
B) Expressivity
C) Dominance
D) Recessiveness
Q2) The key to accurate DNA replication depends on which complementary base pairs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Adenine with thymine
B) Adenine with guanine
C) Guanine with cytosine
D) Cytosine with thymine
E) Guanine with thymine
Q3) A child with which genetic disorder has a characteristic cry?
A) Down syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) Cri du chat
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6
Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Measure of the effect of a specific risk factor
A)Incidence rate effect of multiple genes
B)Gene-environment interaction
C)Prevalence rate at which some diseases occur
D)Obesity
E)Polygenic
F)Empirical risk
G)Relative risk
Q2) What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?
A) Diet high in saturated fats
B) Increased production of cholesterol by the liver
C) Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces
D) Abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood
Q3) Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer?
A) Increased consumption of dairy produces
B) Increased consumption of foods containing vitamin C
C) Decreased consumption of foods high in fat
D) Decreased consumption of artificial food coloring
7
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Chapter 6: Epigenetics and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shape of the face of a child diagnosed with Russell-Silver syndrome is likely to be:
A) Round
B) Square
C) Triangular
D) Elongated
Q2) Genes responsible for the maintenance of all cells are referred to as:
A) Universal
B) Managerial
C) Housekeeping
D) Executive
Q3) Which statement is true regarding the embryonic development of stem cells?
A) They are already differentiated.
B) They are referred to as housekeeping genes.
C) They already demonstrate DNA sequencing.
D) They are said to be pluripotent.
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Chapter 7: Innate Immunity: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which secretion is a first line of defense against pathogen invasion that involves antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids,as well as lactic acid?
A) Optic tears
B) Oral saliva
C) Sweat gland perspiration
D) Sebaceous gland sebum
Q2) In the later stages of an inflammatory response,which phagocytic cell is predominant?
A) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes
C) Chemokines
D) Eosinophils
Q3) An example of a pathogen capable of surviving and even multiplying inside a macrophage is known as: (Select all that apply.)
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (tuberculosis)
B) Mycobacterium leprae (leprosy)
C) Salmonella typhi (typhoid fever)
D) Clostridium difficile
E) Brucella abortus (brucellosis)
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Crosses the placenta.
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
Q2) Evaluation of umbilical cord blood can confirm that which immunoglobulin level is near adult levels?
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgE
Q3) When a person is exposed to most antigens,antibodies can be usually detected in his or her circulation within:
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 3 days
D) 6 days
Q4) Is predominantly found in the blood and body secretions.
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
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Chapter 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system,the blood cells are destroyed by:
A) Complement-mediated cell lysis
B) Phagocytosis by macrophages
C) Phagocytosis in the spleen
D) Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
Q2) Exposure to which of the following could result in a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? (Select all that apply.)
A) Poison ivy
B) Neomycin
C) Dairy products
D) Nickel
E) Detergents
Q3) During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction,what causes bronchospasm?
A) Bronchial edema caused by the chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis
B) Bronchial edema caused by binding of the cytotropic antibody
C) Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H receptors
D) Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H receptors
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Chapter 10: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following play a role in the control of fungal infections? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cytokines
B) Macrophages
C) Natural killer cells
D) Neutrophils
E) T lymphocytes
Q2) Ability of an agent to produce disease
A)Toxigenicity
B)Infectivity
C)Pathogenicity
D)Virulence
Q3) Which secretion transmits HIV? (Select all that apply.)
A) Semen
B) Urine
C) Saliva
D) Breast milk
E) Sweat
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Chapter 11: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?
A) Depression of B-cell functions and enhancement of T-cell functions
B) Depression of T-cell functions and enhancement of B-cell functions
C) Depression of B- and T-cell functions
D) Enhancement of B- and T-cell functions
Q2) Diagnostic blood work on individuals who perceive themselves to be in a chronic stress state will likely demonstrate:
A) Decreased Th lymphocytes
B) Increased erythrocytes
C) Decreased Tc cells
D) Increased platelets
Q3) What effect do androgens have on lymphocytes?
A) Suppression of B-cell responses and enhancement of T-cell responses
B) Suppression of T-cell responses and enhancement of B-cell responses
C) Suppression of B- and T-cell responses
D) Enhancement of B- and T-cell responses
Q4) Increases cardiac output by increasing heart rate and myocardial contractility.
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Cortisol
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Cancer Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do cancer cells use the enzyme telomerase?
A) To repair the telomeres to restore somatic cell growth
B) As an intracellular signaling chemical to stimulate cell division
C) To switch off the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely
D) To switch on the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely
Q2) Cervical cancer
A)HPV
B)Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8
C)Hepatis B virus (HBV)
D)Helicobacter pylori
Q3) Oncogenes are genes that are capable of:
A) Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation
B) Directing synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary replacement of tissue
C) Encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt the replacement of tissue
D) Undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The World Health Organization (WHO)defines grade 1 (overweight)as a BMI of:
A) 18.5 to 24.9
B) 25 to 29.9
C) 30 to 39.9
D) 40 to 50.9
Q2) Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking?
A) Alcohol
B) Steroids
C) Antihistamines
D) Antidepressants
Q3) Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer?
A) Liver
B) Endometrial
C) Stomach
D) Colon
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Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true regarding cancers that develop in children? (Select all that apply.)
A) Childhood cancers tend to be fast growing.
B) Childhood cancers are diagnosed during growth spurts.
C) Childhood cancer generally metastasizes by the time of diagnosis.
D) Childhood cancer is typically at low risk for aggressive metastasis.
E) Childhood cancers respond well to standardized treatment modalities.
Q2) Which form of cancer is linked to congenital malformation syndromes?
A) Wilms tumor
B) Retinoblastoma
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Rhabdomyosarcoma
Q3) Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer that ultimately produces which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Connective tissue
B) Digestive system
C) Muscles
D) Kidneys
E) Blood
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Norepinephrine produces what primary response?
A) Increased contractility of the heart
B) Release of renin from the kidney
C) Vasoconstriction
D) Pupillary dilation
Q2) The aging process brings about what changes to human cells? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased neurofibrillary tangles
B) Imbalance of neurotransmitters
C) Increased neuron production
D) Decreased myelin presence
E) Altered dendrite structure
Q3) Both oligodendroglia and Schwann cells share the ability to:
A) Form a myelin sheath
B) Remove cellular debris
C) Transport nutrients
D) Line the ventricles
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and
Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a long-term complication of rewarming as a treatment for hypothermia?
A) Acidosis
B) Dysrhythmias
C) Shock
D) Renal failure
Q2) Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration,decreased plasma volumes,hypotension,decreased cardiac output,and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation?
A) Heat cramps
B) Heat stroke
C) Malignant hyperthermia
D) Heat exhaustion
Q3) Which neuropeptide promotes wakefulness?
A) Prostaglandin D2
B) L-tryptophan
C) Hypocretins
D) Growth factors
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems,Cerebral
Hemodynamics,and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stage 1 intracranial hypertension is caused by the:
A) Loss of autoregulation that normally maintains constant blood flow during changes in cerebral perfusion pressure
B) Displacement of cerebrospinal fluid, followed by compression of the cerebral venous system
C) Vasoconstriction of the cerebral arterial system with reciprocal increase in systemic blood pressure
D) Compression of the medulla oblongata in the brainstem by herniation of the cerebral cortex
Q2) Dilated and sluggish pupils,widening pulse pressure,and bradycardia are clinical findings evident of which stage of intracranial hypertension?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
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Chapter 18: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical finding is considered a diagnostic indicator for an arteriovenous malformation (AVM)?
A) Systolic bruit over the carotid artery
B) Decreased level of consciousness
C) Hypertension with bradycardia
D) Diastolic bruit over the temporal artery
Q2) What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension,as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?
A) Craniosacral dysreflexia
B) Parasympathetic dysreflexia
C) Autonomic hyperreflexia
D) Retrograde hyperreflexia
Q3) A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a contrecoup injury to which region of the brain?
A) Frontal
B) Temporal
C) Parietal
D) Occipital
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alterations in which part of the brain are linked to hallucinations,delusions,and thought disorders associated with schizophrenia?
A) Parietal lobe
B) Limbic system
C) Temporal lobe
D) Hypothalamus
Q2) What are the most common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Orthostatic hypotension
B) Dry mouth
C) Sleep disturbances
D) Agitation
E) Nausea
Q3) A notable complication of panic disorder is:
A) Avolition
B) Anhedonia
C) Alogia
D) Agoraphobia
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in infants is:
A) Obstructed arachnoid villi
B) Stenosis of the aqueduct of Sylvius
C) Excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid
D) Impaired cerebrospinal fluid circulation in the subarachnoid space
Q2) What is the result of a Chiari type II malformation associated with a myelomeningocele?
A) Upward displacement of the cerebellum into the diencephalon
B) Motor and sensory lesions below the level of the myelomeningocele
C) Downward displacement of the cerebellum, brainstem, and fourth ventricle
D) Generalized cerebral edema and hydrocephalus
Q3) Develops in the fourth ventricle.
A)Medulloblastoma
B)Ependymoma
C)Cerebellar astrocytoma
D)Craniopharyngioma
E)Neuroblastoma
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Chapter 21: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a b-adrenergic receptor?
A) Calcium
B) Inositol triphosphate (IP3)
C) Diacylglycerol (DAG)
D) Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
Q2) Which hormone triggers uterine contractions?
A) Thyroxine
B) Oxytocin
C) Growth hormone
D) Insulin
Q3) What are the effects of aging on pancreatic cells?
A) Pancreatic cells are replaced by fat cells.
B) Increased insulin production is typical.
C) Beta cell production increases.
D) No appreciable change occurs on pancreatic cells.
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Chapter 22: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)in individuals with Graves disease is usually:
A) High
B) Low
C) Normal
D) In constant flux
Q2) Hyposecretion of thyroid hormone (TH)
A)Acromegaly
B)Cushing disease
C)Addison disease
D)Graves disease
E)Myxedema
F)Pheochromocytoma
Q3) What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
A) Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss
B) Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin
C) Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia
D) Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy
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24
Chapter 23: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the mucus secreted by the Bartholin glands?
A) Enhancement of the motility of sperm
B) Lubrication of the urinary meatus and vestibule
C) Maintenance of an acid-base balance to discourage proliferation of pathogenic bacteria
D) Enhancement of the size of the penis during intercourse
Q2) Where in the male body does spermatogenesis occur?
A) Epididymis
B) Rete testes
C) Seminiferous tubules
D) Vas deferens
Q3) The equivalent to the female gonad is the male:
A) Epididymis
B) Spermatic cord
C) Vas deferens
D) Testes
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25
Chapter 24: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The size of benign uterine tumors,such as leiomyomas,is thought to be caused by the influence of which hormone? (Select all that apply.)
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
E) Growth factors
Q2) When a woman's uterus is assessed as protruding through the entrance of the vagina to the hymen,which grade of prolapse does this indicate?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Q3) Which virus is a precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)and cervical cancer?
A) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
C) Herpes simplex II virus (HSV)
D) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
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Chapter 25: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which infection has clinical manifestations that include the sudden onset of malaise,low back pain,and perineal pain with high fever and chills,dysuria,nocturia,and urinary retention?
A) Orchitis
B) Balanitis
C) Epididymitis
D) Bacterial prostatitis
Q2) What term is used to identify an inflammation of the glans penis?
A) Glanitis
B) Balanitis
C) Priapism
D) Hydrocelitis
Q3) What term is used to identify a fibrotic condition that causes lateral curvature of the penis during erection,which is associated with a local vasculitis-like inflammatory reaction and decreased tissue oxygenation?
A) Phimosis
B) Lateral phimosis
C) Lateral paraphimosis
D) Peyronie disease
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Chapter 26: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?
A) Syphilis
B) Herpes simplex virus
C) Chlamydia
D) Chancroid
Q2) Trichomonas vaginalis
A)Trichomoniasis
B)Granuloma inguinale
C)Amebiasis
D)Syphilis
E)Chancroid
Q3) What is the primary site for uncomplicated local gonococci infections in men?
A) Epididymis
B) Lymph nodes
C) Urethra
D) Prostate
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28
Chapter 27: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are Kupffer cells located?
A) Kidneys
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Spleen
Q2) Blood cells that differentiate into macrophages are known as:
A) Monocytes
B) Neutrophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Basophils
Q3) Which blood cells are biconcave in shape and have the capacity to be reversibly deformed?
A) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes
C) Eosinophils
D) Erythrocytes
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29
Chapter 28: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sideroblastic anemia
A)Normocytic-normochromic anemia
B)Microcytic-hypochromic anemia
C)Macrocytic-normochromic anemia
Q2) Which type of anemia is characterized by fatigue,weakness,and dyspnea,as well as conjunctiva of the eyes and brittle,concave nails?
A) Pernicious
B) Iron deficiency
C) Aplastic
D) Hemolytic
Q3) The paresthesia that occurs in vitamin B deficiency anemia is a result of which of the following?
A) Reduction in acetylcholine receptors in the postsynaptic nerves
B) Myelin degeneration in the spinal cord
C) Destruction of myelin in peripheral nerves
D) Altered function of neurons in the parietal lobe
Q4) Aplastic anemia
A)Normocytic-normochromic anemia
B)Microcytic-hypochromic anemia
C)Macrocytic-normochromic anemia
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two major forms of leukemia,acute and chronic,are classified by which criteria? (Select all that apply.)
A) Predominant cell type
B) Rate of progression
C) Age of individual when cells differentiation occurs
D) Stage of cell development when malignancy first occurs
E) Serum level of leukocytes
Q2) Which statement best describes heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
A) Immunoglobulin G immune-mediated adverse drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets
B) Hematologic reaction to heparin in which the bone marrow is unable to produce sufficient platelets to meet the body's needs
C) Immunoglobulin E-mediated allergic drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets
D) Cell-mediated drug reaction in which macrophages process the heparin and platelet complexes that are then destroyed by activated cytotoxic T cells.
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the significance of hyperdiploidy when diagnosing and treating leukemia?
A) Hyperdiploidy indicates a good prognosis.
B) Hyperdiploidy indicates a poor prognosis.
C) Hyperdiploidy indicates poor response to a specific treatment.
D) Hyperdiploidy indicates the achievement of remission.
Q2) Why does fetal hemoglobin have a greater affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin?
A) The fetus does not have its own oxygen supply and must rely on oxygen from the maternal vascular system.
B) The fetus has two g-chains on the hemoglobin, rather than two b-chains as in the adult.
C) Fetal hemoglobin interacts less readily with diphosphoglycerate (DPG), which inhibits hemoglobin-oxygen binding.
D) Fetal hemoglobin production occurs in the vessels and liver rather than in the bone marrow as in the adult.
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Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) What is the major effect of a calcium channel blocker such as verapamil on cardiac contractions?
A) Increases the rate of cardiac contractions.
B) Decreases the strength of cardiac contractions.
C) Stabilizes the rhythm of cardiac contractions.
D) Stabilizes the vasodilation during cardiac contractions.
Q2) What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
A) Arterial stiffening
B) Decreased left ventricular wall tension
C) Decreased aortic wall thickness
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q3) The coronary ostia are located in the:
A) Left ventricle
B) Aortic valve
C) Coronary sinus
D) Aorta
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33
Chapter 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Q1) Aortic stenosis
A)Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle
B)Impairs flow from the left ventricle
C)Backflow into left atrium
D)Backflow into right atrium
E)Backflow into left ventricle
Q2) Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center,making them appear as a ringworm?
A) Fat emboli
B) Rheumatic fever
C) Bacterial endocarditis
D) Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
Q3) What is the trigger for angina pectoris?
A) Atherosclerotic lesions
B) Hyperlipidemia
C) Myocardial necrosis
D) Myocardial ischemia
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Q1) An infant has a loud,harsh,holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck.These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?
A) Atrial septal defect (ASD)
B) Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
C) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
D) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect
Q2) Septum secundum
A)Causes atrial separation
B)Gap between the septum primum and the septum secundum
C)Conal portion of the ventricular septum
D)Abnormal communication between the atria
E)Allows right-to-left shunting
Q3) Bulbus cordis
A)Causes atrial separation
B)Gap between the septum primum and the septum secundum
C)Conal portion of the ventricular septum
D)Abnormal communication between the atria
E)Allows right-to-left shunting
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is most of the oxygen in the blood transported?
A) Dissolved in plasma
B) Bound to hemoglobin
C) In the form of carbon dioxide (CO2)
D) Bound to protein
Q2) Which structures secrete surfactant?
A) Type I alveolar cells
B) Type II alveolar cells
C) Alveolar macrophages
D) Stretch receptors
Q3) Aspiration is most likely to occur in the right mainstem bronchus because it:
A) Extends vertically from the trachea.
B) Is narrower than the left mainstem bronchus.
C) Comes into contact with food and drink first.
D) Is located at the site where the bronchi bifurcate.
Q4) Which receptors are located near the respiratory center?
A) Peripheral chemoreceptors
B) Stretch receptors
C) Central chemoreceptors
D) J-receptors
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Chapter 35: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Q1) Clinical manifestations of inspiratory crackles,increased tactile fremitus,egophony,and whispered pectoriloquy are indicative of which respiratory condition?
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Emphysema
C) Pneumonia
D) Asthma
Q2) What are the causes of dyspnea? (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased pH, increased partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) and decreased partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
B) Decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata
C) Stimulation of stretch or J-receptors
D) Presence of anxiety
E) Presence of pain
Q3) Which of the following is the most common route of lower respiratory tract infection?
A) Aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions
B) Inhalation of microorganisms
C) Microorganisms spread to the lung via blood
D) Poor mucous membrane protection
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Q1) Which statement best describes acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A) An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
B) A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and the presence of bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray imaging
C) A respiratory disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens
D) A pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Q2) Supralaryngeal obstructions
A)Sonorous snoring
B)Muffled voice
C)High-pitched inspiratory sound, voice change, hoarse
D)Expiratory stridor or monophonic wheeze
E)Inspiratory wheezes
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Chapter 37: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Q1) What substance stimulates renal hydroxylation in the process of producing vitamin D?
A) Erythropoietin
B) Thyroid hormone
C) Calcitonin
D) Parathyroid hormone
Q2) What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload?
A) Glomerular filtration
B) Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3
C) Increased heart rate
D) Compensatory hypertrophy
Q3) Creatinine clearance
A)Good estimate of glomerular filtration rate
B)Form in concentrated acidic or alkaline urine
C)Cylindric with distinct borders
D)Hematuria
E)Pyuria
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Chapter 38: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Q1) Renal cell carcinoma,classified as clear cell tumors,arises from epithelial cells in which structure?
A) Proximal tubule
B) Distal tubule
C) Nephron
D) Glomerulus
Q2) Prerenal injury from poor perfusion can result from which condition? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bilateral ureteral obstruction
B) Renal vasoconstriction
C) Renal artery thrombosis
D) Hemorrhage
E) Hypotension
Q3) Detrusor hyperreflexia develops from neurologic disorders that originate where?
A) Spinal cord between C2 and S1
B) Spinal cord between S2 and S4
C) Above the pontine micturition center
D) Below the cauda equina
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Q1) Which statement is false about the causes of enuresis?
A) A maturational lag may cause enuresis.
B) Enuresis may be related to increased light sleep.
C) Obstructive sleep apnea may be a symptom of enuresis.
D) Excessive nocturnal levels of vasopressin may cause enuresis.
Q2) When does an individual have their full complement of renal nephrons?
A) At birth
B) At 6 months of age
C) At puberty
D) Between the ages 18 and 21 years
Q3) The excretion of urea is low in infants because of which feature? (Select all that apply.)
A) Medullary nephrons with comparatively short loops at this stage of development
B) Immature tubular transport capacity, impairing the excretion of urea
C) High anabolic state
D) Dilute urine as a result of the immaturity of an infant's glomeruli
E) Available protein used for physical growth
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which gastric cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor?
A) Parietal
B) Chief
C) G
D) H
Q2) Enhances insulin release,lipolysis,and ketogenesis.
A)Peptide YY
B)Secretin
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Enteroglucagon
E)Pancreatic polypeptide
Q3) Food enters the stomach via which sphincter?
A) Cardiac
B) Upper esophageal
C) Gastric
D) Fundal
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42
Chapter 41: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Q1) Considering the normal frequency of bowel evacuation,how infrequently can evacuation occur and still be considered within normal range?
A) Once a day
B) Once every 2 days
C) Once a week
D) Once every 2 weeks
Q2) Which structure regulates eating behavior and energy metabolism?
A) Anterior pituitary
B) Hypothalamus
C) Posterior pituitary
D) Parietal lobe
Q3) Inflammation develops in crypts of Lieberkühn in the large intestine.
A)Ulcerative colitis
B)Crohn disease
Q4) What is the cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
A) Excessive production of hydrochloric acid
B) Zone of low pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter
C) Presence of Helicobacter pylori in the esophagus
D) Reverse muscular peristalsis of the esophagus
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Q1) Which situations have been associated with possible causes of the failure to thrive (FTT)in infants? (Select all that apply.)
A) Gastroesophageal reflux
B) Pyloric stenosis
C) Intestinal parasites
D) Adoption at birth
E) Psychosocial isolation
Q2) Which term is used to identify a condition in which the developing colon remains in the upper right quadrant instead of moving to its normal location?
A) Intestinal malrotation
B) Ileocecal displacement
C) Duodenal obstruction
D) Pyloric stenosis
Q3) Meconium ileus
A)Gluten sensitivity
B)Periduodenal band
C)Congenital aganglionic megacolon
D)Protein energy malnutrition
E)Lack of digestive enzymes during fetal life
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Osteoblasts continue to restore callus with lamellar bone or trabecular bone.
A)Callus replacement
B)Hematoma formation
C)Remodeling
D)Procallus formation
E)Callus formation
Q2) Fibrin and platelets form a meshwork within the initial framework for healing.
A)Callus replacement
B)Hematoma formation
C)Remodeling
D)Procallus formation
E)Callus formation
Q3) Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
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Chapter 44: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Q1) Polymyositis
A)Caused by sedatives and narcotics, particularly street heroin
B)Caused by viruses, bacteria, and parasites
C)Exercise intolerance with normal production of lactic acid
D)Impairment of the breakdown of glycogen and production of lactic acid
E)Autoimmune disease
Q2) The pathophysiologic presentation of gout is closely linked to the metabolism of which chemical?
A) Purine
B) Pyrimidine
C) Vitamin E
D) Amino acid
Q3) The pain resulting from tendon and ligament injuries is usually described as:
A) Dull and diffuse, persisting over the distribution of the tendon or ligament
B) Sharp and localized, persisting over the distribution of the tendon or ligament
C) Pins-and-needle sensations that occur distal to the injury with movement
D) Intermittent and aching, occurring over the distribution of the tendon or ligament
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Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Q1) Onset occurs at approximately 3 years of age with rapid progression and frequently mental retardation.
A)Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B)Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy
C)Myotonic dystrophy
D)Becker muscular dystrophy
Q2) Shares the X-linked inheritance pattern but produces milder symptoms.
A)Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B)Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy
C)Myotonic dystrophy
D)Becker muscular dystrophy
Q3) The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?
A) Albumin
B) Blood urea nitrogen
C) Creatinine
D) Creatine
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Q1) A small (less than 1 cm)lesion with regular edges and bristlelike hairs with a color change that can range from skin tones to light brown characterize which form of nevus?
A) Junctional
B) Epidermal
C) Intradermal
D) Compound
Q2) What medical term is used to identify an inflammatory disorder of the skin that is often considered synonymous with dermatitis and characterized by pruritus with lesions that have an indistinct border?
A) Eczema
B) Psoriasis
C) Atopic dermatitis
D) Pityriasis rosea
Q3) Bowen disease is a form of which type of cancer?
A) Kaposi sarcoma
B) Malignant melanoma
C) Basal cell carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
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Chapter 47: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Q1) Which immunoglobulin (Ig)is elevated in atopic dermatitis?
A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgG
Q2) Which acne lesions are classified as inflammatory? (Select all that apply.)
A) Closed comedones
B) Opened comedones
C) Nodules
D) Papules
E) Pustules
Q3) Which viral disease has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days and duration of 1 to 4 days?
A) Rubeola
B) Rubella
C) Roseola
D) Varicella
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49
Chapter 48: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Q1) Daily evaporative water loss after a burn injury is approximately how many times the normal?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Q2) In multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS),the gut hypothesis attempts to explain which phenomena?
A) Paralytic ileus
B) Translocation of bacteria
C) Maldistribution of blood flow
D) Massive diarrhea accompanying septic shock
Q3) Follows parasympathetic stimulation.
A)Cardiogenic
B)Hypovolemic
C)Neurogenic
D)Anaphylactic
E)Septic
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Chapter 49: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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Q1) Bradycardia in young children experiencing shock symptoms often suggests which result?
A) Onset of cardiac dysfunction
B) Effective management of cardiac dysfunction
C) Good management of anxiety
D) Cardiovascular collapse
Q2) To determine a child's response to fluid therapy for shock,the nurse should monitor ______________________.
A) Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
B) Urine output and specific gravity
C) Blood pressure and pulse
D) Arterial blood gases and heart rate
Q3) For children who are experiencing shock,crystalloids and colloids are generally administered in boluses of how many milliliters per kilogram (ml/kg)?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
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