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Family Nurse Practitioner Clinical Practicum Exam Bank - 571 Verified Questions

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Family Nurse Practitioner Clinical Practicum Exam Bank

Course Introduction

The Family Nurse Practitioner Clinical Practicum is a hands-on, immersive course designed to provide advanced practice nursing students with direct patient care experience in a variety of primary care settings. Under the guidance of experienced preceptors and faculty, students refine assessment, diagnostic, and management skills required for comprehensive, evidence-based care of individuals and families across the lifespan. The practicum emphasizes clinical reasoning, health promotion, disease prevention, and management of acute and chronic conditions, focusing on culturally competent, patient-centered practice. Through collaborative interprofessional experiences and reflective practice, students develop the competencies necessary to transition to the role of a family nurse practitioner.

Recommended Textbook

Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses 3rd Edition

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20 Chapters

571 Verified Questions

571 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3772

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Chapter 1: Assessment and Clinical Decision-Making:

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75257

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is false? While performing the physical examination,the examiner must be able to:

A) Differentiate between normal and abnormal findings

B) Recall knowledge of a range of conditions and their associated signs and symptoms

C) Recognize how certain conditions affect the response to other conditions

D) Foresee unpredictable findings

Answer: D

Q2) A likelihood ratio above 1 indicates that a diagnostic test showing a:

A) Positive result is strongly associated with the disease

B) Negative result is strongly associated with absence of the disease

C) Positive result is weakly associated with the disease

D) Negative result is weakly associated with absence of the disease

Answer: A

Q3) The following can be used to assist in sound clinical decision-making:

A) Algorithm published in a peer-reviewed journal article

B) Clinical practice guidelines

C) Evidence-based research

D) All of the above

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: An Overview of Genetic Assessment

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75256

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman affected with an X-linked recessive disorder:

A) Has one X chromosome affected by the mutation

B) Will transmit the disorder to all of her children

C) Will transmit the disorder to all of her sons

D) Will not transmit the mutation to any of her daughters

Answer: C

Q2) Which population is at highest risk for the occurrence of aneuploidy in offspring?

A) Mothers younger than 18

B) Fathers younger than 18

C) Mothers over age 35

D) Fathers over age 35

Answer: C

Q3) To illustrate a union between two second cousin family members in a pedigree,draw:

A) Arrows pointing to the male and female

B) Brackets around the male and female

C) Double horizontal lines between the male and female

D) Circles around the male and female

Answer: C

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Skin

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75255

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not associated with development of erythema multiforme?

A) Herpes virus

B) Mycoplasms

C) Medications

D) Trauma

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following skin conditions frequently heralds an anaphylactic reaction?

A) Contact dermatitis

B) Eczema

C) Urticaria

D) Erythema multiforme

Answer: C

Q3) Which lesions are typically located along the distribution of dermatome?

A) Scabies

B) Herpes zoster

C) Tinea

D) Dishydrosis

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Head,face,and Neck

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75254

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a positive Lyme titer presents with left-sided unilateral facial droop and inability to close the left eye.This is most likely due to:

A) Trigeminal neuralgia

B) Temporomandibular joint syndrome

C) Multiple sclerosis

D) Bell's palsy

Q2) Chronic abuse of alcohol and tobacco are associated with ,which can present with lymphadenopathy of the head and neck.

A) Lymphoma

B) Squamous cell carcinoma

C) Leukemia

D) Thyroid cancer

Q3) A solitary cold nodule on Radioactive Iodine (RAI)uptake on a thyroid scan is suspicious for:

A) Hyperthyroidism

B) Myxedema

C) Trigeminal neuralgia

D) Thyroid Cancer

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Chapter 5: The Eye

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 9-month-old patient presents with fever and large areas of redness and bullae over the trunk,palms,legs,and sole of the feet.There is redness and swelling of the conjunctiva and lips.The clinician should recognize this condition as:

A) Giant cell arteritis

B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome

C) Botulism

D) Myasthenia gravis

Q2) Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist?

A) History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision

B) History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision

C) History of monocular severe eye pain,blurred vision,and ciliary flush

D) All of the above

Q3) The most common cause of eye redness is:

A) Conjunctivitis

B) Acute glaucoma

C) Head trauma

D) Corneal abrasion

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Chapter 6: Ear, nose, mouth, and Throat

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following conditions can cause upper airway obstruction?

A) Behcet's syndrome

B) Influenza

C) Epiglottitis

D) Thrush

Q2) A 6-year-old child presents with complaints of unilateral ear pain,fever,and sore throat.The clinician should recognize that this is most commonly due to:

A) Otitis externa

B) Inner ear infection

C) Sinusitis

D) Otitis media

Q3) A patient presents to the emergency department due to head trauma related to a motorcycle accident.On physical examination,you note clear,serous discharge from the ear.This is commonly a sign of:

A) Basilar skull fracture

B) Injury of the auricle

C) Otitis discharge

D) Tympanic membrane perforation

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8

Chapter 7: Cardiac and Peripheral Vascular Systems

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57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Due to increased left atrial pressure,a patient with mitral stenosis often suffers from:

A) Pulmonary congestion

B) Hepatomegaly

C) Jugular venous distension

D) Ventricular tachycardia

Q2) A 75-year-old patient complains of pain and paresthesias in the right foot that worsens with exercise and is relieved by rest.On physical examination you note pallor of the right foot,capillary refill of 4 seconds in the right foot,+1 dorsalis pedis pulse in the right foot,and +2 pulse in left foot.Which of the following is a likely cause of the signs and symptoms?

A) Arterial insufficiency

B) Femoral vein thrombus

C) Venous insufficiency

D) Peripheral neuropathy

Q3) The murmur of aortic stenosis is best heard in the:

A) Left second intercostal space left sternal border

B) Left fifth intercostal space mid-clavicular line

C) Right fourth intercostal space right sternal border

D) Right second intercostal space right sternal border

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Respiratory System

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) While assessing auscultated spoken sounds,the ausculated sound is heard as "a-a-a" when he is asked to repeat "e-e-e." This is indicative of:

A) Asthma

B) Tumor

C) Pneumonia

D) Pleural effusion

Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of COPD?

A) Asymmetric chest expansion

B) Increased lateral diameter

C) Increased anterior-posterior diameter

D) Pectus excavatum

Q3) When palpating the posterior chest,the clinician notes increased tactile fremitus over the left lower lobe.This can be indicative of:

A) Pneumonia

B) Emphysema

C) Pneumothorax

D) Asthma

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Chapter 9: Breasts

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When examining the breasts of a 45-year-old female patient,you note nodularity throughout both breasts.There is no dominant mass,tenderness,nipple change,or skin change.Which of the following condition is most likely?

A) Multiple fibroadenomas

B) Fibrocystic breasts

C) Mastalgia

D) Mastitis

Q2) A condition that increases risk of breast cancer in a male is:

A) Pseudogynecomastia

B) BRCA1 and 2

C) Klinefelter's syndrome

D) B and C

Q3) Your patient is a 46-year-old woman suffering from psychosis complains of milky discharge from both her breasts.Upon examination,there are no significant findings and the patient is not pregnant,breastfeeding,or in the postpartum period.You should:

A) Order CT scan of head to rule out pituitary tumor

B) Obtain a complete list of the patient's medications

C) Have the patient keep a menstrual cycle diary

D) Refer the patient for mammogram

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Abdomen

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44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The major sign of ectopic pregnancy is:

A) Sudden onset of severe epigastric pain

B) Amenorrhea with unilateral lower quadrant pain

C) Lower back and rectal pain

D) Palpable abdominal mass

Q2) A 76-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with severe left lower quadrant abdominal pain,diarrhea,and fever.On physical examination,you note the patient has a positive heel strike,and left lower abdominal rebound tenderness.These are typical signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions?

A) Diverticulitis

B) Salpingitis

C) Inflammatory bowel disease

D) Irritable bowel syndrome

Q3) The clinician should auscultate the abdomen to listen for possible bruits of the:

A) Aorta

B) Renal artery

C) Iliac artery

D) All of the above

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12

Chapter 11: Genitourinary System

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An 18-year-old female patient presents with repeated urinary tract infections.She has no risk factors in her history,and her physical examination is unremarkable.She also has a normal pelvic exam.Which of the following should be obtained if anatomic abnormalities are suspected?

A) Intravenous pyelogram

B) Ultrasound of the kidneys

C) Cystoscopy

D) Transvaginal ultrasound of the bladder

Q2) A 33-year-old female patient visits the clinic multiple times over the last year complaining of dysuria,frequency,urgency,suprapubic pain,and dyspareunia.Her physical examination,including a pelvic exam,is normal.Urinalysis and urine culture is repeatedly negative.Her intravenous pyelogram is also normal.The clinician should recognize that this presentation is consistent with symptoms of:

A) Asymptomatic bacteriuria

B) Upper urinary tract infection

C) Interstitial cystitis

D) Polycystic kidneys

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Male Reproductive System

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75246

Sample Questions

Q1) In heterosexual men,the most common cause of epididymitis is (are):

A) E.coli

B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

C) Chlamydia trachomatis

D) B & C

Q2) In Klinefelter's syndrome,males commonly have:

A) Gynecomastia

B) Undeveloped testes

C) Tall height

D) All of the above

Q3) Priapism often occurs in male patients with:

A) Sickle cell anemia

B) Low testosterone

C) Diabetes mellitus

D) Autonomic neuropathy

Q4) Which of the following conditions is considered a urologic emergency?

A) Balanitis

B) Paraphimosis

C) Phimosis

D) None of the above

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Chapter 13: Female Reproductive System

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44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75245

Sample Questions

Q1) Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding commonly indicates:

A) Hormonal imbalance

B) Endometrial cancer

C) Endometriosis

D) Atrophic vaginitis

Q2) When obtaining the health history of a 60-year-old female,it is important to ask:

A) The age of menopause

B) About any bleeding since menopause

C) Use of any hormone replacement treatment

D) All of the above

Q3) In order to perform interventions or prescribe medication for the female patient,it is most important to obtain a complete health history.Which of the following is the most important question to ask female patients?

A) Age at menarche

B) Age at menopause

C) Last menstrual period

D) Number of pregnancies

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15

Chapter 14: Musculoskeletal System

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75244

Sample Questions

Q1) A 33-year-old male marathon runner presents with knee pain.Which of the following tests is positive if the meniscus of the knee is torn?

A) McMurray's test

B) Straight leg raising sign

C) Anterior drawer sign

D) Lachman test

Q2) To assess muscle tone,the clinician should:

A) Palpate the patient's muscle as the muscle is passively stretched

B) Examine how the patient performs active range of motion

C) Palpate the muscles comparing side to side

D) A and C

Q3) Which of the following serological diagnostic tests is most specific for rheumatoid arthritis?

A) C-reactive protein (CRP)

B) Rheumatoid factor (RF)

C) Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA)

D) Anti-citrullinated protein autoantibodies (ACPA)

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16

Chapter 15: Neurological System

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75243

Sample Questions

Q1) A female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of a severe,throbbing,unilateral headache.She complains of seeing flashes of light prior to the headache.She complains of sound and light sensitivity as well as nausea.The clinician should recognize these as symptoms of:

A) Epilepsy with aura

B) Cluster headache

C) Migraine headache

D) Normal pressure hydrocephalus

Q2) In order to test abstract thought on the mental status exam,the clinician can ask:

A) Count by serial 7's backward

B) Spell the word "world" backward

C) Draw a clock that shows 2:30

D) How is your brother-in-law related to you?

Q3) Spina bifida is a disorder that is associated with a headache syndrome caused by:

A) Chiari malformation

B) Normal pressure hydrocephalus

C) Meningioma

D) Temporal arteritis

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Chapter 16: Nonspecific Complaints

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 34-year-old male complains of extreme fatigue and weakness,lightheadedness,anorexia,and unintentional weight loss of 20 pounds over the last month.The patient has a history of tuberculosis as a child from age 4.Current tuberculin PPD is pending.On physical examination,the patient is afebrile with heart rate 110 beats/min. ,resps 18 breaths / min,and BP 100/50.He has a tanned complexion,thin and frail looking,and looks younger than stated age.Heart: tachycardia,regular rate and rhythm.Lungs are clear to auscultation.Abdomen non-tender with no organomegaly.Extremities show no significant findings.No neurological deficits.C-x-ray demonstrates area of scar tissue.These signs and symptoms are characteristic of:

A) Congestive heart failure

B) Active tuberculosis

C) Cushing's disease

D) Addison's disease

Q2) In which of the following dysrhythmias does the patient commonly complain of feelings of "palpitations"?

A) Suprventicular tachycardia

B) Premature ventricular contraction

C) Atrial fibrillation

D) A and B

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Chapter 17: Psychiatric Mental Health

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding phobia?

A) The anxiety associated with phobia is out of proportion to the actual danger or threat in the situation

B) Diagnosis is based on the presence of symptoms for at least a 6-month duration

C) Persons with phobias have apprehension of a future attack,which is referred to as anticipatory anxiety

D) A and B

Q2) What percentage of patients who commit suicide have depressive illness?

A) 100%

B) 90%

C) 70%

D) 50%

Q3) Individuals with bulimia are commonly:

A) Overweight

B) Normal weight

C) Underweight

D) Obese

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Chapter 18: Pediatric Patients

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75240

Sample Questions

Q1) It is important to examine the infant's anterior fontanel when the child is:

A) Lying supine

B) Relaxed and sitting up

C) Lying prone

D) Standing with assistance

Q2) Which of the following indicates abnormal behavior in a 12-month-old child?

A) No imitating

B) No babbling

C) Inability to walk independently

D) Short attention span

Q3) By what age is a child usually toilet trained?

A) 1 to 2 years

B) 2 to 3 years

C) 3 to 4 years

D) 4 to 5 years

Q4) At what age do the "baby" teeth start to erupt in the majority of children?

A) 3 months

B) 4 months

C) 5 months

D) 6 months

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Pregnant Patients

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75239

Sample Questions

Q1) The schedule of prenatal care should be:

A) Every 2 weeks between 28 and 36 weeks

B) Every week between 28 and 36 weeks

C) Every week between 36 and 40 weeks

D) A & C

Q2) A sustained fetal heart rate below is indicative of fetal health jeopardy.

A) 160 beats/minute

B) 140 beats/minute

C) 120 beats/minute

D) 100 beats/minute

Q3) As you assess a pregnant patient,you suspect false small-for-dates presentation.You should recognize that a possible cause for this is:

A) Error in date of LMP

B) Fetus in tranverse lie

C) Error in calculation of fundal height

D) All of the above

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Chapter 20: Older Patients

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75238

Sample Questions

Q1) A useful laboratory measure that indicates protein-energy malnutrition in hospitalized elders include a total cholesterol below.

A) 190 mg/dl

B) 180 mg/dl

C) 170 mg/dl

D) 160 mg/dl

Q2) For measuring weight in patients in long-term care facilities:

A) Always use same scale

B) Record the patient's clothing

C) Calculate the body mass index (BMI)

D) All the above

Q3) A functional assessment is the most appropriate type of evaluation of well older patients.A basic component of the functional assessment is:

A) Activities of Daily Living (ADL)score

B) Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL)score

C) 10-minute Screener for Geriatric Conditions

D) All of the above

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