Family Nurse Practitioner Assessment
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Family Nurse Practitioner Assessment focuses on the advanced skills and knowledge required for comprehensive health assessment of individuals and families across the lifespan. This course emphasizes the integration of physical, psychosocial, and developmental assessment strategies essential to the nurse practitioner role. Students learn to perform detailed patient histories, conduct systematic physical examinations, interpret diagnostic findings, and apply evidence-based clinical reasoning to identify health concerns and develop care plans. Special attention is given to cultural, ethical, and communication considerations in patient encounters, preparing students to deliver patient-centered and holistic primary care in diverse community settings.
Recommended Textbook
Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses 3rd Edition
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20 Chapters
571 Verified Questions
571 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Assessment and Clinical Decision-Making: Overview
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical reasoning tools is defined as evidence-based resource based on mathematical modeling to express the likelihood of a condition in select situations,settings,and/or patients?
A) Clinical practice guideline
B) Clinical decision rule
C) Clinical algorithm
D) Clinical recommendation
Answer: B
Q2) If a diagnostic study has high sensitivity,this indicates a:
A) High percentage of persons with the given condition will have an abnormal result
B) Low percentage of persons with the given condition will have an abnormal result
C) Low likelihood of normal result in persons without a given condition
D) None of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: An Overview of Genetic Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) To illustrate two family members in an adoptive relationship in a pedigree:
A) Arrows are drawn pointing to the male and female
B) Brackets are drawn around the male and female
C) Double horizontal lines are drawn between the male and female
D) Circles are drawn around the male and female
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following are found in an individual with aneuploidy?
A) An abnormal number of chromosomes
B) An X-linked disorder
C) Select cells containing abnormal-appearing chromosomes
D) An autosomal recessive disorder
Answer: A
Q3) A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder will:
A) Not be affected by the disorder herself
B) Transmit the disorder to 50 % of her offspring (male or female)
C) Not transmit the disorder to her daughters
D) Transmit the disorder to only her daughters
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) What kind of lesions are caused by the herpes simplex virus?
A) Scales
B) Vesicles
C) Plaques
D) Urticaria
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following disorders often presents in patients with café-au-lait spots ?
A) Diabetes
B) Malignancy
C) Neurofibromatosis
D) Autoimmune disease
Answer: C
Q3) Which lesions are typically located along the distribution of dermatome?
A) Scabies
B) Herpes zoster
C) Tinea
D) Dishydrosis
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Head,face,and Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with extremely tight,shiny skin over the hands and face.There is also a lack of nasolabial folds and blank facial expression.This is a common sign of:
A) Bell's palsy
B) Trigeminal neuralgia
C) Scleroderma
D) Hypothyroid myxedema
Q2) A solitary cold nodule on Radioactive Iodine (RAI)uptake on a thyroid scan is suspicious for:
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Myxedema
C) Trigeminal neuralgia
D) Thyroid Cancer
Q3) A patient with a positive Lyme titer presents with left-sided unilateral facial droop and inability to close the left eye.This is most likely due to:
A) Trigeminal neuralgia
B) Temporomandibular joint syndrome
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Bell's palsy
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Chapter 5: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist?
A) History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision
B) History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision
C) History of monocular severe eye pain,blurred vision,and ciliary flush
D) All of the above
Q2) While assessing visual acuity,you notice that the patient is turning his head "side-to-side" for an oblique,or peripheral,view of the Snellen chart,raising your suspicion that the patient may suffer from:
A) Glaucoma
B) Cataract
C) Macular degeneration
D) Amaurosis fugax
Q3) Macular degeneration is a visual disturbance due to:
A) Sudden head trauma
B) Ischemia of the central retinal artery
C) Elevated intraocular pressure
D) Physiological aging
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Chapter 6: Ear, nose, mouth, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) To examine if there is an intact gag reflex,ask the patient to say "ah" as you observe the:
A) Movement of the uvula to the left
B) Movement of uvula to the right
C) Tongue extension in the midline
D) Upward movement of the uvula in the midline
Q2) Which microorganism is the most common cause of peritonsillar abscess?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Mycoplasma
D) Grp A beta hemolytic streptococcus
Q3) With inspection of the mouth and buccal mucosa,Stensen's duct can be seen on the: A) Underside of the tongue
B) Buccal mucosa opposite the lower molars
C) Buccal mucosa opposite the upper molars
D) Soft palate
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Chapter 7: Cardiac and Peripheral Vascular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has had hypertension for 10 years,a myocardial infarction 5 years ago,and now complains of dyspnea on exertion,cough,and 3-pillow orthopnea.Which of the following conditions is likely?
A) Right ventricular failure
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Cor pulmonale
D) Left ventricular failure
Q2) An S<sub>4</sub> sound is commonly heard in:
A) Children with fever
B) Adults with atrial fibrillation
C) Adults with hypertension
D) Children with pulmonic stenosis
Q3) Your patient has a dysrhythmia and has been on a diuretic for 2 months.Which of the following should be suspected?
A) Potassium imbalance
B) Sodium deficit
C) Calcium imbalance
D) Insufficient diuretic
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Chapter 8: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with pulmonary fibrosis show decreased lung tissue compliance and diminished forced vital capacity (FVC).Pulmonary fibrosis is a type of:
A) Obstructive disease
B) Restrictive disease
C) Hyperreactive airway disease
D) None of the above
Q2) If on physical examination the clinician auscultates rhonchi,the clinician should ask the patient to take a deep breath and cough in order to:
A) Mobilize secretions
B) Diagnose pleural effusion
C) Accurately distinguish lung sounds
D) A & C
Q3) While assessing auscultated spoken sounds,the ausculated sound is heard as "a-a-a" when he is asked to repeat "e-e-e." This is indicative of:
A) Asthma
B) Tumor
C) Pneumonia
D) Pleural effusion
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Chapter 9: Breasts
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition that increases risk of breast cancer in a male is:
A) Pseudogynecomastia
B) BRCA1 and 2
C) Klinefelter's syndrome
D) B and C
Q2) Your patient is a 64-year-old female who presents with complaints of a red,scaly rash on her nipple and areola of one breast.It has been present for a few months.There is no mass or nipple discharge.You should be suspicious of:
A) Contact dermatitis
B) Mastitis
C) Paget's disease
D) Eczema
Q3) A 23-year-old woman is concerned about a mass she found on palpation.Upon examination of the patient,the mass feels cystic,round,and mobile with discrete borders.The diagnostic study that is recommended is:
A) CT scan
B) Mammogram
C) Biopsy
D) Ultrasound
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11
Chapter 10: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinician should auscultate the abdomen to listen for possible bruits of the:
A) Aorta
B) Renal artery
C) Iliac artery
D) All of the above
Q2) On abdominal examination,which of the following is assessed using percussion?
A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Pancreas
D) Esophagus
Q3) On abdominal examination as the clinician presses on the right upper quadrant to assess liver size,jugular vein distension becomes obvious.Hepatojugular reflux is indicative of:
A) Acute hepatitis
B) Right ventricular failure
C) Cholecystitis
D) Left ventricular failure
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Chapter 11: Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 15-year-old female patient presents with complaints of constant thirst,urination up to 20 times a day,and recent unintentional weight loss of 10 pounds over the last month.It is important for the clinician to recognize these symptoms as those of:
A) Renal cancer
B) Bladder cancer
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Interstitial cystitis
Q2) A 77-year-old female patient with heart failure complains of frequency and urgency of urination during the day and nocturia of 2 to 3 times a night.Which of the following medications can cause these symptoms?
A) Beta adrenergic blocker
B) Diuretic
C) ACE inhibitor
D) Digitalis
Q3) An intravenous pyelogram should not be performed if serum creatinine is:
A) Less than 1.5
B) Greater than 1.0
C) Greater than 1.6
D) Less than 1.0
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-year-old male presents with fever and swollen parotid glands.He is diagnosed with mumps.A complication that can occur with mumps in a male patient is:
A) Orchitis
B) Prostatitis
C) Testicular torsion
D) Varicocele
Q2) Balanitis Xerotica Obliterans (BXO)is painful condition most common in:
A) Adolescent males
B) Young adult males
C) Middle-aged males
D) Males less than 10 years old
Q3) In heterosexual men,the most common cause of epididymitis is (are):
A) E.coli
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) B & C
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Chapter 13: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your 61-year-old female patient complains of dyspareunia.On pelvic examination,you note atrophic vaginitis.The clinician should explain that these are most likely:
A) Signs of vaginismus
B) Postmenopausal symptoms
C) Signs of estrogen deficiency
D) B and C
Q2) In the health history,you ask a young adult female patient about safe sex and the use of contraception.The patient does not understand what you mean by safe sex.This is an indication for:
A) Patient teaching and counseling
B) Promotion of oral contraceptive use
C) Pregnancy testing and counseling
D) STD,HIV,and hepatitis testing
Q3) Primary dysmenorrhea is pain with menses that occurs due to:
A) Rise in prostaglandins
B) Endometriosis
C) Fibroid tumor
D) Excessive estrogen
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following microorganisms causes Lyme disease?
A) Clostridia
B) Shigella
C) Borrelia
D) Epstein-Barr virus
Q2) Which of the following infectious diseases is often the cause of a reactive arthritis?
A) Gonococcus infection
B) Beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection
C) Chlamydia infection
D) Norovirus infection
Q3) Which of the following serological diagnostic tests is most specific for rheumatoid arthritis?
A) C-reactive protein (CRP)
B) Rheumatoid factor (RF)
C) Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA)
D) Anti-citrullinated protein autoantibodies (ACPA)
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Chapter 15: Neurological System
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are an emergency room clinician that assisted with CPR on a 20-year-old trauma patient.The CPR was unsuccessful,the patient expired,and you need to explain this to the family in the waiting room.Upon telling the mother about the death of her son,she becomes dizzy and faints.What is the most likely cause for the woman fainting?
A) Cardiogenic shock
B) Vasovagal response
C) Syncope due to hypoxia
D) Dizziness and vertigo
Q2) A 44-year-old male presents to the emergency room with the "worst headache of his life." He is holding his head and appears severely distressed.This is a patient symptom that should prompt a clinician to look for signs of a:
A) Migraine headache
B) Subdural hematoma
C) Subarachnoid haemorrhage
D) Brain tumor
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Chapter 16: Nonspecific Complaints
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 77-year-old female patient presents with increasing muscle weakness and numbness in both lower legs over the last week.She presents using crutches and with her daughter for walking assistance.Patient had influenza 3 weeks ago and was treated with amantadine.The patient denies recent trauma.Current medications include beta blocker and ACE inhibitor.Denies use of tobacco or alcohol.On physical examination,the patient is alert and oriented x 3,afebrile,pulse 66,resps 16/min,BP 110/70.Neck: no JVD,no thyromegaly,no bruits over carotid arteries.Heart: regular rate and rhythm,no murmurs.Lungs are clear to auscultation.Abdomen is non-tender with no organomegaly.Extremities: Skin is pink,cool to touch,and intact bilaterally.Hand grip strength: 5/5 bilaterally.Biceps DTR +2/4 bilaterally.Left and right quadriceps muscle strength 4/5.Patella reflex: 1/4 bilaterally.Achilles reflex: 1/4 bilaterally.Ankle strength: R + 3/5 and L + 3/5.Sensation to pinprick and cotton ball intact in face and upper extremities and bilaterally equal.Sensation to pinprick and cotton ball decreased in feet bilaterally.Dorsalis pedis pulses +1/4 bilaterally.Negative Homan's and Babinski's sign.The following disorder(s)should be high priority in the differential diagnosis:
A) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome
C) Polymyositis
D) Multiple sclerosis
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Chapter 17: Psychiatric Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypomania is different from mania in that:
A) Hypomania does not cause impaired social or occupational functioning
B) Hypomania does not require hospitalization
C) Mania can endure for a longer period of time than hypomania
D) A and B
Q2) To diagnose a patient with binge eating,a binge is defined as occurring at least:
A) Once a week for 3 months.
B) Twice a week for 6 months
C) Three times a week for 3 months
D) None of the above
Q3) Abuse of alcohol or street drugs is a frequent cause of:
A) Mania
B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C) Depression
D) Hypomania
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19
Chapter 18: Pediatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Criteria for diagnosing ADHD in a child include attention problems that:
A) Have been present before the age of 12
B) Have been present for at least 6 months
C) Are present in at least two settings
D) All of the above
Q2) By what age should the normal child put together a sentence when speaking?
A) 1 year
B) 18 months
C) 2 years
D) None of the above
Q3) When performing dermatologic examination,the clinician should recognize that a darkened area of skin in the sacral region is called:
A) Spina bifida occulta
B) Mongolian spot
C) Nevus flammeus
D) Café au lait spot
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Pregnant Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) If radiological studies are needed during pregnancy,it is important for the clinician to recognize that a(n)exposes a fetus to ionizing radiation.
A) Ultrasound
B) CT scan
C) MRI
D) Doppler equipment
Q2) A pregnant patient at 5 weeks' gestation reports slight amount of vaginal bleeding.The clinician should recognize that the following laboratory test should be done:
A) Serial HCG levels over the next several days
B) Measurement of estrogen levels
C) Cervical mucus analysis
D) Pap smear for sexually transmitted infection
Q3) In a pregnant woman,a glucose screening test should be done at:
A) 24 weeks
B) 20 weeks
C) 16 weeks
D) 10 weeks
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Chapter 20: Older Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) The MMSE has been criticized because:
A) Patients who are being tested require education
B) It is not applicable for patients from varied cultures
C) It cannot differentiate between delirium,dementia,and depression in the older patient
D) All of the above
Q2) For measuring weight in patients in long-term care facilities:
A) Always use same scale
B) Record the patient's clothing
C) Calculate the body mass index (BMI)
D) All the above
Q3) Based on the 2010 Census of the United States,the fastest growing segment of the population is:
A) Adults aged 65 to 75
B) Adults aged 75 to 85
C) Adults aged 85 to 95
D) Adults aged 100+
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