Family Nurse Practitioner Assessment Test
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Course Introduction
Family Nurse Practitioner Assessment is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with advanced skills in health assessment across the lifespan, with a focus on families and diverse populations. Students learn to perform thorough physical, psychosocial, and developmental assessments, integrate evidence-based techniques, and interpret clinical findings to support accurate diagnoses. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking, cultural competence, and effective communication in patient interactions. Through clinical practice and case-based learning, students refine their ability to identify health risks, promote wellness, and collaborate within interprofessional teams to optimize patient care in primary and specialty healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Health Assessment and Physical Examination 5th Edition by Mary Ellen Zator Estes
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1242 Verified Questions
1242 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Critical Thinking And The Nursing Process
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______________________ are planned strategies based on scientific rationale and devised by the nurse to assist the patient in meeting the patient outcomes.
Answer: Interventions
Rationale: When appropriate,the patient,family,and significant others can assist in planning the interventions.Patients are more likely to be motivated and follow the interventions if they have been involved in the decision-making process.Every patient outcome has its own interventions.When appropriate,a frequency is included for each intervention,such as "turn every 2 hours."
Explanation:When appropriate, the patient, family, and significant others can assist in planning the interventions.Patients are more likely to be motivated and follow the interventions if they have been involved in the decision-making process.Every patient outcome has its own interventions.When appropriate, a frequency is included for each intervention, such as "turn every 2 hours."
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3
Chapter 2: Communication Techniques And The Patient
Interview
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Listening responses are communication techniques that enable the nurse to do all of the following,EXCEPT
A) communicate empathy, concern, and attentiveness.
B) accurately receive, process, and respond to patient messages.
C) understand the context of the patient's experiences.
D) offer judgment about the appropriateness of the patient's responses.
Answer: D
Q2) Your patient informs you that she would like to stop his two-pack-a-day cigarette habit but has heard complaints about the clinic's antismoking program.Which of the following would be an appropriate response?
A) "Why do you smoke that much?"
B) "What a good idea, I'm sure that the clinic's program will help you."
C) "Tell me more about your concerns about stopping smoking."
D) "Try the support group for smokers instead; it has had great success in helping people stop smoking."
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: The Complete Health History Including Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning to discuss a patient's exercise habits.Which of the following questions would be appropriate to ask during the examination.Select all that apply.
A) "What type of exercise do you do?"
B) "How long do you exercise (in minutes)?"
C) "Why don't you spend more time exercising?"
D) "How long have you been involved with this exercise program?"
E) "Does your health pose any restrictions on your ability to exercise?"
F) "Do you participate in a formal or informal exercise program?"
Answer: A,B,D,E,F
Q2) Your patient is complaining of wheezing and tightness in his chest that started 1 hour ago.Which type of health history is most appropriate in this situation?
A) complete
B) emergency
C) episodic
D) interval or follow-up
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Developmental Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spouse of a 77-year-old patient expresses concern about the patient and states,"His mind seems to be going.He can't remember where he puts things." Which of the following assessment tools would you administer to obtain further data on his cognitive functions?
A) Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
B) Folstein Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE)
C) Life Experiences Survey
D) Recent Life Changes Questionnaire
Q2) A nurse at a well-baby clinic is assessing the language and communication developmental milestones of a 2-month-old infant.Which of the following begins to occur in the infant at this developmental age?
A) use of gestures
B) babbling sounds
C) cooing sounds
D) increased interest in sounds
Q3) The idea that the final stages of cognitive development are characterized by thinking in abstract,logical,analytical,and creative ways was developed by
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Chapter 5: Cultural Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse evaluates a client as being past focused.The client most likely demonstrates which of the following characteristics?
A) revering long-standing traditions
B) tending to be disciplined in scheduling and using time
C) living in the "here and now," perceiving time in a linear fashion
D) willing to defer gratification to ensure he can meet a future goal
Q2) A 10-year-old girl who has recently arrived from El Salvador,states in broken English,"I don't fit in,and I don't know what I am supposed to do at school." You recognize that she is most likely experiencing
A) cultural rejection.
B) culture shock.
C) cultural immersion.
D) the effects of cultural bias from her family.
Q3) ____________________ is the process by which children of immigrants to this country start adopting the beliefs,behaviors,and practices of those born in this country.
Q4) A diagram used to assess the structure of a family and the patient's relationships with family,friends,peers,neighbors,and work associates is called a(n)____________________.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Spiritual Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient,an Orthodox Jew,learns that his only son,after several days of intensive medical treatment,has just died of a sports-related head injury.Your patient reacts by crying and asking why God allows children to suffer and die.You recognize that your patient is grieving and is in a state of acute
A) emotional distress most likely due to his loss and feelings of guilt.
B) physical exhaustion most likely due to lack of sleep.
C) spiritual distress most likely due to long-standing anger toward God.
D) spiritual distress most likely due to his painful awareness of human mortality.
Q2) Parish nursing is often called which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Spiritual nursing
B) Religious nursing
C) Catholic nursing
D) Ministry nursing
E) Congregational nursing
F) Faith community nursing
Q3) An individual who is unsure that God exists is called a(n)____________________.
Q4) Buddhism views treatment for infertility and _____________________ as unnatural and therefore discourage these practices.
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Chapter 7: Nutritional Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels may result from A) high altitude.
B) cyanotic heart defects.
C) leukemia.
D) severe dehydration.
Q2) Which practice reported by a patient would most likely contribute to the patient's decreased ability to taste and smell?
A) alcohol and tobacco use
B) excessive intake of sweets
C) lack of variety in her diet
D) drinking hot beverages
Q3) Minimal daily intake of carbohydrates in adults should be
A) 10% to 20% of the daily caloric intake.
B) 20% to 30% of the daily caloric intake.
C) 50% to 60% of the daily caloric intake.
D) 6%0 to 70% of the daily caloric intake.
Q4) The three most important nutrients that provide the body with energy are
Q5) The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is lack of
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Chapter 8: Physical Examination Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medical products contain latex? Select all that apply.
A) Syringes
B) Thermometers
C) Wound drains
D) Tourniquets
E) Blood pressure cuffs
F) Rubber stoppers on medication vials
Q2) Guidelines for the proper use of the stethoscope include which of the following?
A) The bell should be placed firmly against the skin surface.
B) The earpieces and binaurals should be angled toward your nose.
C) Longer rubber or plastic tubing enhances the body sounds.
D) The diaphragm is used to auscultate low-pitched sounds such as bruits and some heart murmurs.
Q3) Deep palpation is more frequently performed for assessment of A) the abdomen and male and female reproductive organs.
B) muscle guarding.
C) superficial tenderness.
D) the thorax and extremities.
Q4) With percussion,a high-pitched sound is usually indicative of a(n)____________________ structure.
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Chapter 9: General Survey, vital Signs, and Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly admitted 30-year-old patient has a resting pulse rate of 56.Which question,if answered affirmatively,is most likely to assist in determining the cause of the patient's bradycardia?
A) "Have you exercised in the past hour or so?"
B) "Are you taking digoxin?"
C) "Are you having pain?"
D) "Are you feeling stressed?"
Q2) You enter your patient's room and notice an ammonia odor.Which of the following conditions can cause an ammonia odor?
A) Renal failure
B) Intestinal obstruction
C) Severe vaginitis
D) Diabetic ketoacidosis
Q3) A variation between a patient's standing blood pressure reading of 104/64 and a supine reading of 138/88 is most likely because the patient has
Q4) An apical pulse rate greater than the radial pulse rate is called
Q5) A weak,thready pulse can be caused by ____________________ shock.
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Chapter 10: Skin, hair, and Nails
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which skin diseases are found more commonly in light-skinned than in dark-skinned individuals?
A) keloid formation and acne keloidal folliculitis
B) dermatosis papulosa nigra and seborrheic dermatitis
C) squamous and basal cell carcinoma, and actinic keratosis
D) hypopigmented sarcoidosis and granulomatous skin lesions
Q2) A patient relates that she has received a weekly manicure and pedicure in various commercial salons within and outside of the United States for many years.You caution the patient that because standards of sterilizing equipment used in salons vary,she has an increased risk of
A) hepatitis B.
B) Staphylococcus infection.
C) Candidiasis infection.
D) herpes simplex infection.
Q3) Which diseases,reported by a patient during the family health history,are familial in nature?
A) cutaneous moniliasis and paronychia
B) pediculosis pubis and tinea capitis
C) psoriasis, brittle nails, and hair loss
D) verruca vulgaris and acne
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Chapter 11: Head, neck, and Regional Lymph Nodes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Torticollis can be caused by which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Hysteria
B) Allergies
C) Phenothiazine therapy
D) Parkinson's disease
E) Trauma such as sleeping with the head in an unusual position
F) Congenital, resulting from a hematoma or partial rupture at birth of the sternocleidomastoid, causing a shortening of the muscle
Q2) Of the following diseases,which is most commonly found in women?
A) cervical spine trauma
B) degenerative cervical bone disease
C) lymphadenopathy secondary to Hodgkin's disease
D) head injury
Q3) The vertebra prominens is found at which level in the human body?
A) C<sub>1</sub>
B) C<sub>2</sub>
C) C<sub>7</sub>
D) T<sub>1</sub>
Q4) Asymmetry of the face occurs in ____________________ palsy and in a cerebral vascular accident.
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Chapter 12: Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your examination of a patient,who states that she is not able to see as clearly in her right eye as she has in the past,should include questions about associated manifestations such as
A) decreased moisture.
B) eye pain and infection.
C) stress and lack of sleep.
D) sudden or gradual onset.
Q2) A lesion resulting from chronic inflammation of the meibomian gland in either the upper or lower lid pointing toward the conjunctival side with no redness or tenderness is called a
A) blepharitis.
B) chalazion.
C) hordeolum.
D) xanthelasma.
Q3) Which component of the examination of the eye is generally performed first?
A) funduscopic exam
B) determination of visual acuity
C) palpation of lacrimal apparatus
D) retinal exam
Q4) Lacrimal glands produce ____________________.
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Chapter 13: Ears, nose, mouth, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a middle-aged man who complains of excessive daytime sleepiness.The nurse's examination reveals that the patient has large tonsils.He jokingly tells the nurse that his wife complains that he snores.The nurse hypothesizes that the patient has which of the following disorders?
A) deviated septum
B) obstructive sleep apnea
C) occlusion of the nostrils
D) upper respiratory infection
Q2) Findings of a bright red pharynx with red,swollen tonsils,pillars,and uvula,as well as patches of white or yellow exudate on the tonsils are consistent with A) diphtheria.
B) infectious mononucleosis.
C) streptococcal pharyngitis and tonsillitis.
D) the presence of a foreign body.
Q3) Which portion of the ear has bony and membranous portions?
A) ossicles
B) labyrinth
C) tympanic cavity
D) tympanic membrane
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Breasts And Regional Nodes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which associated manifestation in a female with a chief complaint of a lump in the breast and discharge is most likely to be linked with breast cancer?
A) multiple soft, well-defined masses, and tenderness upon palpation
B) fever and breast swelling
C) bruising of the breast tissue and chest wall
D) dimpling of the skin
Q2) The procedure for palpation of the axillary lymph nodes is to first stand at the patient's right side,facing the patient,and next
A) ask her to flex her head to enhance relaxation of the shoulders and arms.
B) abduct her left arm, using your left hand to relax the axillary muscles.
C) adduct her right arm, using your left hand so that it is close to the chest wall.
D) support her flexed left arm on your left forearm.
Q3) When inspecting the breast,in which positions should the patient be placed?
A) arms at sides, arms overhead, hands pressed on hips, leaning forward
B) arms at side, arms overhead, leaning forward, hands on knees
C) arms at side, arms overhead, hands pressed on hips, leaning backward
D) arms at sides, arms overhead, hands pressed on shoulders, leaning forward
Q4) The pigmented area surrounding the nipple is called the
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Chapter 15: Thorax And Lungs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ataxic breathing,or Biot's respirations,indicate damage to the
Q2) Which finding from your inspection of a patient's thorax is normal?
A) a costal angle of 95°
B) ribs at a 45° angle with the sternum
C) bulging of intercostal spaces
D) dilated superficial veins on the anterior chest wall
Q3) A patient reports that he has worked with ceramics for over 35 years.You recognize that this length of exposure to potentially hazardous substances increases her risk for A) asbestosis.
B) byssinosis.
C) silicosis.
D) pulmonary neoplasms.
Q4) Pink,frothy sputum is expectorated by patients diagnosed with
Q5) Hyperresonance on thoracic percussion is abnormal in the majority of adults and may indicate that the patient is experiencing a(n)_____________________.
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Chapter 16: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) An obstruction in the left main coronary artery is often referred to as a(n)____________________ because of its lethal effect.
Q2) In the cardiac cycle,once the pressure in the left ventricle exceeds that in the aorta and the pressure in the right ventricle exceeds that in the pulmonary artery,the
A) A-V node is stimulated.
B) semilunar valves open.
C) A-V valves open.
D) semilunar valves close.
Q3) Angina pain is typically described as
A) a sudden onset of pain that is tearing and worsens with breathing.
B) aching, tightness, or heaviness in the chest, which may be relieved with rest.
C) a sudden onset of sharp, tearing pain that radiates to shoulders, neck, back, and abdomen.
D) pain reproducible by chest wall palpation and relieved by position changes.
Q4) The bicuspid valve is also known as the ____________________ valve.
Q5) A healthy adult heart pumps up to ____________________ liters of blood per minute.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Peripheral Vasculature And Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) You examine the patient for the hepatojugular reflux by examining for a rise in the jugular venous pressure after
A) applying firm pressure to the left upper quadrant of the abdomen for 30 to 60 seconds.
B) lowering the head of the bed from a 45° angle until the patient is lying flat.
C) palpating the liver for 20 seconds.
D) applying firm pressure to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen for 30 to 60 seconds.
Q2) Possible causes of pulse paradox include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Cardiac tamponade
B) Pericardial effusion
C) Constrictive pericarditis
D) Restrictive cardiomyopathy
E) Superior vena cava obstruction
F) Severe chronic obstructive lung disease
Q3) The visceral layer,a serous layer that lies against the heart,is also called the
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19
Chapter 18: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substance impairs gastric absorption and increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding?
A) coffee
B) tobacco
C) caffeinated beverages
D) alcohol
Q2) During auscultation of a patient's abdomen,you hear a high-pitched sound that resembles the sound of two pieces of sandpaper being rubbed together.This sound is most likely the result of
A) a bruit caused by turbulent blood flow through a partially obstructed artery.
B) a venous hum caused by blood flow through portal veins obstructed by portal hypertension.
C) a murmur caused by turbulent blood flow from an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
D) a friction rub caused by the rubbing together of inflamed layers of the peritoneum.
Q3) Normal bowel sounds are heard as
A) continuous, low-pitched rumbling sounds.
B) intermittent, high-pitched tinkling sounds occurring every 10-25 seconds.
C) intermittent, high-pitched gurgling sounds occurring 5-30 times per minute.
D) intermittent, loud gurgling sounds.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which illustrates the proper method to conduct a musculoskeletal examination?
A) Examine the painful body part first.
B) Examine the musculoskeletal system in a head-to-toe, proximal-to-distal manner.
C) Manipulate each joint through its full anatomic range of motion even if pain occurs.
D) Always conduct the examination first thing in the morning.
Q2) While observing a patient walking,you note that she lifts one foot 1-2 inches off the floor and steps forward approximately 12 inches,shifting her weight from the heel onto the ball of that foot,and continues forward.The patient is erect,balanced,and swings her arms freely in the opposite direction to the movement of her legs.You record that her gait and mobility are
A) normal.
B) abnormal; she lifts her foot too high.
C) abnormal; her stride is too long.
D) abnormal; her arm motion is uncoordinated.
Q3) Osteoporosis is the loss of ____________________.
Q4) Bone marrow is contained in the _________________________.
Q5) The function of the tendon is to _______________________________.
Q6) The function of the tendon is to ______________________________.
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Chapter 20: Mental Status And Neurological Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unilateral anosmia is most likely caused by A) a cold.
B) sinusitis.
C) meningioma of the sphenoid ridge.
D) heavy smoking.
Q2) When testing your patient for two-point discrimination,you should
A) first touch one fingertip with a sharp object and then a second fingertip, and assess if she can accurately report the sequence.
B) simultaneously touch two points of one of her fingers with sharp objects, and assess if she can distinguish the two points.
C) simultaneously touch a finger on her right hand and the corresponding finger on her left hand with two sharp objects, and assess if she can distinguish the two points.
D) simultaneously touch a fingertip with two sharp objects, remove one stimulus, and then assess if she can detect that one point has been removed.
Q3) Your patient has suffered a cerebrovascular accident and is presenting with erratic respirations and heart rate.The portion of the brain most likely affected is the
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22
Chapter 21: Female Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the cervix could not be visualized upon the initial insertion of the speculum,you would close the blades and
A) insert the speculum 2-3 cm farther and check again for the cervix.
B) withdraw the speculum 2-3 cm and reinsert at a slightly different angle.
C) withdraw the speculum and select a larger speculum for reinsertion.
D) withdraw the speculum and select a smaller speculum for reinsertion.
Q2) Which of the following sexual characteristics occur at the onset of puberty? Select all that apply.
A) Absence of pubic hair
B) Breast enlargement
C) Contour changes of hips and abdomen
D) Increase in estrogen production
E) Increased urination
F) Elevated testosterone levels
Q3) A pale cervix indicates
A) changes resulting from menopause.
B) pregnancy.
C) Chlamydia infection.
D) venous congestion.
Q4) Menstrual blood does not clot,because it lacks ____________________.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Male Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing instructor asks a group of students,"What are some of the complications from male genital piercings?" Which responses by the students would indicate that further study is necessary? Select all that apply.
A) Bleeding
B) Hypertension
C) Hypersensitivity
D) Paraphimosis
E) Urethral tears
F) Urinary incontinence
Q2) Your 20-year-old patient states that he has noticed a bulging in his groin recently.Palpation reveals a painless mass at his left external inguinal ring that protrudes into the scrotum with straining.Bowel sounds are auscultated in the scrotum.This mass is most likely a(n)
A) direct inguinal hernia.
B) grossly enlarged inguinal lymph node.
C) femoral hernia.
D) indirect inguinal hernia.
Q3) The pouchlike structure supporting the testes is called the ____________________.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Anus, rectum, and Prostate
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Q1) Because of the possibility of bacteremia,a rectal examination should be avoided in patients with
A) acute bacterial prostatitis.
B) fecal incontinence.
C) irritable bowel syndrome.
D) inflammatory bowel disease.
Q2) Which of the following can cause diarrhea? Select all that apply.
A) Antibiotics
B) Fecal impaction
C) Irritable bowel syndrome
D) Weak abdominal muscles
E) Lactose intolerance
F) Inadequate fluid intake
Q3) Which of the following increases the risk for prostate cancer?
A) alcohol
B) cigarette smoking
C) use of illicit drugs
D) anal intercourse
Q4) Hemorrhoids result from ____________________ of the superior and inferior hemorrhoidal veins.
25
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Chapter 24: The Pregnant Patient
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Q1) To measure the height of the uterine fundus with a tape measure,the nurse would place the 0 cm mark at the
A) level of the iliac crests.
B) symphysis pubis.
C) top of the fundus.
D) umbilicus.
Q2) Which of the following are Grade: B Recommendations from the U.S.Preventive Services Task Force? Select all that apply.
A) Screen all pregnant women for HIV.
B) Screen for hepatitis B virus in pregnant women at the first prenatal visit.
C) Screen for iron deficiency anemia in asymptomatic pregnant women.
D) Intervene during pregnancy and after birth to promote breast feeding.
E) Screen for chlamydial infection for all pregnant women aged 24 and younger and older pregnant women who are at risk.
F) Screen for asymptomatic bacteriuria with urine culture for pregnant women at 12 to 16 weeks gestation or at the first visit.
Q3) A decrease in fundal height resulting from the descent of the fetus into the pelvis is known as ____________________ or ____________________.
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Chapter 25: The Pediatric Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is found to have cryptorchidism.This means that he has
A) an enlargement of the scrotum.
B) one testis that is not palpable.
C) a bulge in the inguinal area.
D) an epididymal enlargement.
Q2) Children in which age group typically gain 3 to 6 pounds and grow 1 to 2 inches (2.5-5 cm)per year?
A) 12-24 months
B) 2-6 years
C) 6-12 years
D) 13-18 years
Q3) When assessing a small child for a thrill,you palpate as for the adult or use the alternative method,which requires the use of the
A) distal one-third of your fingers.
B) fingertips of your dominant hand.
C) palm of your hand.
D) proximal one-third of your fingers.
Q4) Rapid growth in an adolescent is called a(n)____________________.
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Chapter 26: The Older Adult Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) A member of an older patient's family asks the nurse why medications are ordered at half of the usual dose.Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
A) "Medications for the older adult are prescribed at a pediatric dose."
B) "The metabolism of the older adult is much like that of a child of the same weight."
C) "Medications for the older adult are sometimes at lower doses initially until the patient's response is evaluated."
D) "Older adults generally take a lower dose of a medication because of cost."
Q2) The impact that older adults have on the health care system is illustrated by the fact that
A) the aging population is growing faster than any other age group.
B) many individuals over age 65 have chronic illnesses requiring frequent hospitalizations.
C) older adults have a lower rate of hospitalization and physician visits than any other group.
D) older adults tend to overreport symptoms and delay seeking treatment.
Q3) Depression is often caused by decreases in the neurotransmitters
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Chapter 27: The Complete Health History And Physical Examination
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11888
Sample Questions
Q1) You would assess for costovertebral angle tenderness while assessing the A) anterior thorax.
B) back, and posterior and lateral thorax.
C) neck.
D) upper extremities.
Q2) Nail bed color and capillary refill are assessed during which part of the assessment?
A) heart
B) height and weight
C) upper extremities
D) assessed only if patient is short of breath
Q3) Personal digital assistants (PDAs)are coming into use by nurses mainly for A) interacting with patients.
B) data storage and retrieval.
C) formulating nursing diagnoses.
D) contacting physician specialists.
Q4) A provider-generated list of health problems that assists in documenting your health history is called a(n)____________________.
Q5) Femoral pulses are palpated and auscultated when you are assessing the
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