Family Health Nursing Test Bank
Course Introduction
Family Health Nursing focuses on the principles and practices involved in promoting, maintaining, and restoring the health of families across the life span. The course covers family structure and dynamics, health assessment, and interventions tailored to the unique needs of diverse family units. Emphasizing a holistic and culturally competent approach, students learn to identify risk factors, facilitate health education, and provide support during various life events such as childbearing, parenting, aging, and chronic illness. Through case studies and community engagement, students develop the skills necessary for effective communication, advocacy, and collaboration with families to enhance overall health outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care 4th Edition by Shannon E. Perry
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55 Chapters
1509 Verified Questions
1509 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1913 Page 2
Chapter 1: Contemporary Maternity Nursing
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38119
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for the pregnant client should be aware that the U.S. birth rate shows what trend?
A)Births to unmarried women are more likely to have less favorable outcomes.
B)Birth rates for women 40 to 44 years of age are beginning to decline.
C)Cigarette smoking among pregnant women continues to increase.
D)The rates of pregnancy and abortion among teens are lower in the United States than in any other industrial country.
Answer: A
Q2) To ensure client safety the practicing nurse must have knowledge of the current Joint Commission's "Do Not Use" list of abbreviations. Which abbreviation is acceptable for use?
A)q.o.d. or Q.O.D
B)MSO<sub>4</sub> or MgSO<sub>4</sub>
C)International Unit
D)Lack of a leading zero
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Family and Culture
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38120
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about family systems theory is NOT accurate?
A)A family system is part of a larger suprasystem.
B)A family as a whole is equal to the sum of the individual members.
C)A change in one family member affects all family members.
D)The family is able to create a balance between change and stability.
Answer: B
Q2) In which culture is the father more likely to be expected to participate in the labor and delivery?
A)Asian-American
B)African-American
C)European-American
D)Hispanic
Answer: C
Q3) The client's family is important to the maternity nurse because:
A)They pay the bills.
B)The nurse will know which family member to avoid.
C)The nurse will know which mothers will really care for their children.
D)The family culture and structure will influence nursing care decisions.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Community and Home Care
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38121
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should be aware that the well-known program "warm lines":
A)Was developed as a reaction to impersonal telephonic nursing care.
B)Was set up to take complaints about health maintenance organizations (HMOs).
C)Is the second option when 911 hot lines are busy.
D)Refers to community service telephone lines designed to provide new parents with encouragement and basic information.
Answer: D
Q2) A health care service representing the tertiary level of prevention includes:
A)Stress management seminars.
B)Childbirth education classes for single parents.
C)A breast self-examination (BSE) pamphlet and teaching.
D)A premenstrual syndrome (PMS) support group.
Answer: D
Q3) In preparing for maternal home visits,nurses should be aware that:
A)The client's safety is more important than the nurse's safety.
B)Infection control is less important at home than at the hospital.
C)Such hospital trappings as name tags and rubber gloves are inappropriate.
D)Nurses should wash their hands thoroughly before and after each visit.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38122
Sample Questions
Q1) During the past 20 years the prevalence of obesity has doubled in the United States,with 25% of women older than 20 years of age being obese. Body mass index is defined as the measure of an adult's weight in relation to his or her height. This is currently the most accurate measure of weight. It is an important part of the health screening process because obesity is closely associated with:
A)The non-Hispanic Caucasian population.
B)A large number of chronic conditions.
C)Mostly acute illnesses.
D)Improved mental well-being.
Q2) During a health history interview,a woman tells the nurse that her husband physically abuses her. The nurse's first response should be to:
A)Advise the woman of mandatory state reporting laws pertaining to abuse and confidentiality.
B)Reassure the woman that the abuse is not her fault.
C)Give the woman referrals to local agencies and shelters where she can obtain help.
D)Formulate an escape plan for the woman that she can use the next time her husband abuses her.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Health Assessment
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38123
Sample Questions
Q1) The uterus is a muscular,pear-shaped organ that is responsible for:
A)Cyclic menstruation.
B)Sex hormone production.
C)Fertilization.
D)Sexual arousal.
Q2) Certain fatty acids classified as hormones that are found in many body tissues and that have roles in many reproductive functions are known as:
A)Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
B)Prostaglandins (PGs).
C)Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
D)Luteinizing hormone (LH).
Q3) The female reproductive organ(s) responsible for cyclic menstruation is/are the: A)Uterus.
B)Ovaries.
C)Vaginal vestibule.
D)Urethra.
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Chapter 6: Common Health Problems
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38124
Sample Questions
Q1) Nafarelin (200 mg BID per nasal spray) currently is used as a treatment for mild-to-severe endometriosis. The nurse should tell the woman taking this medication that the drug:
A)Stimulates the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH),thereby stimulating ovarian activity.
B)Should be sprayed into one nostril every other day.
C)Should be injected into subcutaneous tissue BID.
D)Can cause her to experience some hot flashes and vaginal dryness.
Q2) With regard to endometriosis,nurses should be aware that:
A)It is characterized by the presence and growth of endometrial tissue inside the uterus.
B)It is found more often in African-American women than in Caucasian or Asian women.
C)It may worsen with repeated cycles or remain asymptomatic and disappear after menopause.
D)It is unlikely to affect sexual intercourse or fertility.
Q3) The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is an acute febrile reaction associated with treatment for __________________.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Infertility,Contraception,and Abortion
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38125
Sample Questions
Q1) In their role of implementing a plan of care for infertile couples,nurses should:
A)Be comfortable with their sexuality and nonjudgmental about others to effectively counsel their clients.
B)Know about such nonmedical remedies as diet,exercise,and stress management.
C)Be able to direct clients to sources of information about what herbs to take that might help and which ones to avoid.
D)Do all of the above plus be knowledgeable about potential drug and surgical remedies.
Q2) A woman is 16 weeks pregnant and has elected to terminate her pregnancy. The nurse knows that the most common technique used for medical termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester is:
A)Dilation and evacuation (D&E).
B)Instillation of hypertonic saline into the uterine cavity.
C)Intravenous administration of Pitocin.
D)Vacuum aspiration.
Q3) ________________ _______________ _________________ (LAM) can be a highly effective,temporary method of birth control.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Genetics,Conception,and Fetal Development
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38126
Sample Questions
Q1) At approximately _____ weeks of gestation,lecithin is forming on the alveolar surfaces,the eyelids open,and the fetus measures approximately 27 cm crown to rump and weighs approximately 1110
A)20
B)24
C)28
D)30
Q2) With regard to prenatal genetic testing,nurses should be aware that:
A)Maternal serum screening can determine whether a pregnant woman is at risk of carrying a fetus with Down syndrome.
B)Carrier screening tests look for gene mutations of people already showing symptoms of a disease.
C)Predisposition testing predicts with near certainty that symptoms will appear.
D)Presymptomatic testing is used to predict the likelihood of breast cancer.
Q3) ____________________ twins is another term for fraternal twins. These twins may be the same or different sexes and genetically are no more alike than siblings born at different times.
Q4) The ability of the fetus to survive outside the uterus is called
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Chapter 9: Assessment for Risk Factors
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38127
Sample Questions
Q1) A client asks her nurse,"My doctor told me that he is concerned with the grade of my placenta because I am overdue. What does that mean?" The best response by the nurse is:
A)"Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses,and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits,the higher the grade,or number,that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby."
B)"Your placenta isn't working properly,and your baby is in danger."
C)"This means that we will need to perform an amniocentesis to detect if you have any placental damage."
D)"Don't worry about it. Everything is fine."
Q2) Intrauterine growth restriction is associated with what pregnancy-related risk factors? Choose all that apply.
A)Poor nutrition
B)Maternal collagen disease
C)Gestational hypertension
D)Premature rupture of membranes
E)Smoking
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Chapter 10: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38128
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman at 10 weeks of gestation who is seen in the prenatal clinic with presumptive signs and symptoms of pregnancy likely will have:
A)Amenorrhea.
B)Positive pregnancy test.
C)Chadwick's sign.
D)Hegar's sign.
Q2) A woman is at 14 weeks of gestation. The nurse would expect to palpate the fundus at which level?
A)Not palpable above the symphysis at this time
B)Slightly above the symphysis pubis
C)At the level of the umbilicus
D)Slightly above the umbilicus
Q3) A woman is in for a routine prenatal checkup. You are assessing her urine for proteinuria. You know that which findings are considered normal? Choose all that apply.
A)Dipstick assessment of trace to +1
B)<300 mg/24 hours
C)Dipstick assessment of +2
D)>300 mg/24 hours
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Chapter 11: Nursing Care During Pregnancy
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38129
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should be aware that the partner's main role in pregnancy is to:
A)Provide financial support.
B)Protect the pregnant woman from "old wives' tales."
C)Support and nurture the pregnant woman.
D)Make sure the pregnant woman keeps prenatal appointments.
Q2) With regard to follow-up visits for women receiving prenatal care,nurses should be aware that:
A)The interview portions become more intensive as the visits become more frequent over the course of the pregnancy.
B)Monthly visits are scheduled for the first trimester,every 2 weeks for the second trimester,and weekly for the third trimester.
C)During the abdominal examination the nurse should be alert for supine hypotension.
D)For pregnant women a systolic blood pressure (BP) of 130 and a diastolic BP of 80 is sufficient to be considered hypertensive.
Q3) A 30-year-old primigravida client is at the clinic for her initial prenatal visit. She is unsure of her chickenpox immune status. The nurse should recommend that this woman have a ____________________________ drawn.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38130
Sample Questions
Q1) Maternal nutritional status is an especially significant factor of the many that influence the outcome of pregnancy because:
A)It is very difficult to adjust because of people's ingrained eating habits.
B)It is an important preventive measure for a variety of problems.
C)Women love obsessing about their weight and diets.
D)A woman's preconception weight becomes irrelevant.
Q2) When counseling a client about getting enough iron in her diet,the maternity nurse should tell her that:
A)Milk,coffee,and tea aid iron absorption if consumed at the same time as iron.
B)Iron absorption is inhibited by a diet rich in vitamin C.
C)Iron supplements are permissible for children in small doses.
D)Constipation is common with iron supplements.
Q3) Which meal would provide the most absorbable iron?
A)Toasted cheese sandwich,celery sticks,tomato slices,and a grape drink
B)Oatmeal,whole wheat toast,jelly,and low-fat milk
C)Black bean soup,wheat crackers,ambrosia (orange sections,coconut,and pecans),and prunes
D)Red beans and rice,cornbread,mixed greens,and decaffeinated tea
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Chapter 13: Pregnancy at Risk: Preexisting Conditions
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38131
Sample Questions
Q1) Prophylaxis of subacute bacterial endocarditis is given before and after birth when a pregnant woman has:
A)Valvular disease.
B)Congestive heart disease.
C)Arrhythmias.
D)Postmyocardial infarction.
Q2) In assessing the knowledge of a pregestational woman with type 1 diabetes concerning changing insulin needs during pregnancy,the nurse recognizes that further teaching is warranted when the client states:
A)"I will need to increase my insulin dosage during the first 3 months of pregnancy."
B)"Insulin dosage will likely need to be increased during the second and third trimesters."
C)"Episodes of hypoglycemia are more likely to occur during the first 3 months."
D)"Insulin needs should return to normal within 7 to 10 days after birth if I am bottle-feeding."
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15
Chapter 14: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38132
Sample Questions
Q1) Magnesium sulfate is given to women with preeclampsia and eclampsia to:
A)Improve patellar reflexes and increase respiratory efficiency.
B)Shorten the duration of labor.
C)Prevent and treat convulsions.
D)Prevent a boggy uterus and lessen lochial flow.
Q2) A pregnant woman has been receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion for treatment of severe preeclampsia for 24 hours. On assessment the nurse finds the following vital signs: temperature of 37.3Ā° C,pulse rate of 88 beats/min,respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min,blood pressure (BP) of 148/90 mm Hg,absent deep tendon reflexes,and no ankle clonus. The client complains,"I'm so thirsty and warm." The nurse:
A)Calls for a stat magnesium sulfate level.
B)Administers oxygen.
C)Discontinues the magnesium sulfate infusion.
D)Prepares to administer hydralazine.
Q3) The antidote administered to reverse magnesium toxicity is _____________________.
Q4) _________________________ is responsible for 9% of all maternal mortality and is the leading cause of infertility.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Labor and Birth Processes
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38133
Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to primary and secondary powers,the maternity nurse should know that:
A)Primary powers are responsible for effacement and dilation of the cervix.
B)Effacement generally is well ahead of dilation in women giving birth for the first time;they are more together in subsequent pregnancies.
C)Scarring of the cervix caused by a previous infection or surgery may make the delivery a bit more painful,but it should not slow or inhibit dilation.
D)Pushing in the second stage of labor is more effective if the woman can breathe deeply and control some of her involuntary needs to push,as the nurse directs.
Q2) With regard to factors that affect how the fetus moves through the birth canal,nurses should be aware that:
A)The fetal attitude describes the angle at which the fetus exits the uterus.
B)Of the two primary fetal lies,the horizontal lie is that in which the long axis of the fetus is parallel to the long axis of the mother.
C)The normal attitude of the fetus is called general flexion.
D)The transverse lie is preferred for vaginal birth.
Q3) A ____________________ pelvic shape is ideal for a vaginal birth.
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Chapter 16: Management of Discomfort
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38134
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement correctly describes the effects of various pain factors?
A)Higher prostaglandin levels arising from dysmenorrhea can blunt the pain of childbirth.
B)Upright positions in labor increase the pain factor because they cause greater fatigue.
C)Women who move around trying different positions are experiencing more pain.
D)Levels of pain-mitigating b-endorphins are higher during a spontaneous,natural childbirth.
Q2) To help clients manage discomfort and pain during labor,nurses should be aware that:
A)The predominant pain of the first stage of labor is the visceral pain located in the lower portion of the abdomen.
B)Referred pain is the extreme discomfort between contractions.
C)The somatic pain of the second stage of labor is more generalized and related to fatigue.
D)Pain during the third stage is a somewhat milder version of the second stage.
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Chapter 17: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38135
Sample Questions
Q1) During labor a fetus with an average heart rate of 135 beats/min over a 10-minute period would be considered to have:
A)Bradycardia.
B)A normal baseline heart rate.
C)Tachycardia.
D)Hypoxia.
Q2) A nurse might be called on to stimulate the fetal scalp:
A)As part of fetal scalp blood sampling.
B)In response to tocolysis.
C)In preparation for fetal oxygen saturation monitoring.
D)To elicit an acceleration in the fetal heart rate (FHR).
Q3) Fetal bradycardia is most common during:
A)Intraamniotic infection.
B)Fetal anemia.
C)Prolonged umbilical cord compression.
D)Tocolytic treatment using ritodrine.
Q4) External fetal monitoring cannot detect the ____________________ of uterine contractions.
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19
Chapter 18: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38136
Sample Questions
Q1) As the United States and Canada continue to become more culturally diverse,it is increasingly important for the nursing staff to recognize a wide range of varying cultural beliefs and practices. Nurses need to develop respect for these culturally diverse practices and learn to incorporate these into a mutually agreed on plan of care. Although it is common practice in the United States for the father of the baby to be present at the birth,in many societies this is not the case. When implementing care,the nurse would anticipate that a woman from which country would have the father of the baby in attendance?
A)Mexico
B)China
C)Iran
D)India
Q2) What is an expected characteristic of amniotic fluid?
A)Deep yellow color
B)Pale,straw color with small white particles
C)Acidic result on a Nitrazine test
D)Absence of ferning
Q3) A ____________________-degree perineal laceration continues through the anal sphincter muscle.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Labor and Birth at Risk
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38137
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is having her first child. She has been in labor for 15 hours. Two hours ago her vaginal examination revealed the cervix to be dilated to 5 cm and 100% effaced,and the presenting part was at station 0. Five minutes ago her vaginal examination indicated that there had been no change. What abnormal labor pattern is associated with this description?
A)Prolonged latent phase
B)Protracted active phase
C)Arrest of active phase
D)Protracted descent
Q2) The nurse recognizes that uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin requires emergency interventions. What clinical cues would alert the nurse that the woman is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation? Choose all that apply.
A)Uterine contractions lasting <90 seconds and occurring >2 minutes in frequency
B)Uterine contractions lasting >90 seconds and occurring <2 minutes in frequency
C)Uterine tone <20 mm Hg
D)Uterine tone >20 mm Hg
E)Increased uterine activity accompanied by a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) and pattern
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Chapter 20: Maternal Physiologic Changes
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38138
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman gave birth to a healthy infant boy 5 days ago. What type of lochia would the nurse expect to find when assessing this woman?
A)Lochia rubra
B)Lochia sangra
C)Lochia alba
D)Lochia serosa
Q2) Which woman is most likely to experience strong afterpains?
A)A woman who experienced oligohydramnios
B)A woman who is a gravida 4,para 4-0-0-4
C)A woman who is bottle-feeding her infant
D)A woman whose infant weighed 5 pounds,3 ounces
Q3) Several changes in the integumentary system that appear during pregnancy disappear after birth,although not always completely. What change is almost certain to be completely reversed?
A)Nail brittleness
B)Darker pigmentation of the areolae and linea nigra
C)Striae gravidarum on the breasts,abdomen,and thighs
D)Spider nevi
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22
Chapter 21: Nursing Care During the Fourth Trimester
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a variation of rooming-in,called couplet care,the mother and infant share a room,and the mother shares the care of the infant with:
A)The father of the infant.
B)Her mother (the infant's grandmother).
C)Her eldest daughter (the infant's sister).
D)The nurse.
Q2) A primiparous woman is to be discharged from the hospital tomorrow with her infant girl. Which behavior indicates a need for further intervention by the nurse before the woman can be discharged?
A)The woman leaves the infant on her bed while she takes a shower.
B)The woman continues to hold and cuddle her infant after she has fed her.
C)The woman reads a magazine while her infant sleeps.
D)The woman changes her infant's diaper and then shows the nurse the contents of the diaper.
Q3) Regardless of her obstetric status,no woman should be discharged from the recovery area until she has completely recovered from the effects of anesthesia and has been cleared by a member of the anesthesia care team.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38140
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the many factors that influence parental responses,nurses should be aware that all of these statements regarding age are true except:
A)An adolescent mother's egocentricity and unmet developmental needs interfere with her ability to parent effectively.
B)An adolescent mother is likely to use less verbal instruction,be less responsive,and interact less positively than other mothers.
C)Adolescent mothers have a higher documented incidence of child abuse.
D)Mothers older than 35 often deal with more stress related to work and career issues and decreasing libido.
Q2) With regard to parents' early and extended contact with their infant and the relationships built,nurses should be aware that:
A)Immediate contact is essential for the parent-child relationship.
B)Skin-to-skin contact is preferable to contact with the body totally wrapped in a blanket.
C)Extended contact is especially important for adolescents and low-income women because they are at risk for parenting inadequacies.
D)Mothers need to take precedence over their partners and other family matters.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Postpartum Complications
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38141
Sample Questions
Q1) To provide adequate postpartum care,the nurse should be aware that postpartum depression (PPD) without psychotic features:
A)Means that the woman is experiencing the baby blues. In addition she has a visit with a counselor or psychologist.
B)Is more common among older,Caucasian women because they have higher expectations.
C)Is distinguished by irritability,severe anxiety,and panic attacks.
D)Will disappear on its own without outside help.
Q2) When helping the mother,father,and other family members actualize the loss of the infant,nurses should:
A)Use the words lost or gone rather than dead or died.
B)Make sure that the family understands that it is important to name the baby.
C)If the parents choose to visit with the baby,apply powder and lotion to the baby and wrap the infant in a pretty blanket.
D)Set a firm time for ending the visit with the baby so the parents know when to let go.
Q3) ____________________ is the most common postpartum infection.
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Chapter 24: Physiologic Adaptations of the Newborn
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38142
Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother states that her infant must be cold because the baby's hands and feet are blue. The nurse explains that this is a common and temporary condition called:
A)Acrocyanosis.
B)Erythema neonatorum.
C)Harlequin color.
D)Vernix caseosa.
Q2) With regard to the gastrointestinal (GI) system of the newborn,nurses should be aware that:
A)The newborn's cheeks are full because of normal fluid retention.
B)The nipple of the bottle or breast must be placed well inside the baby's mouth because teeth have been developing in utero,and one or more may even be through.
C)Regurgitation during the first day or two can be reduced by burping the infant and slightly elevating the baby's head.
D)Bacteria are already present in the infant's GI tract at birth,because they traveled through the placenta.
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Chapter 25: Nursing Care of the Newborn
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38143
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is using the Ballard scale to determine the gestational age of a newborn. Which assessment finding is consistent with a gestational age of 40 weeks?
A)Flexed posture
B)Abundant lanugo
C)Smooth,pink skin with visible veins
D)Faint red marks on the soles of the feet
Q2) A 3.8-kg infant was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks after a 30-minute second stage. There was a nuchal cord. After birth the infant is noted to have petechiae over the face and upper back. Information given to the infant's parents should be based on the knowledge that petechiae:
A)Are benign if they disappear within 48 hours of birth.
B)Result from increased blood volume.
C)Should always be further investigated.
D)Usually occur with forceps delivery.
Q3) The nurse is discussing infant care as part of the mother-infant's couplet discharge planning. The mother asks the nurse,"When will my baby's cord fall off?" The nurse responds,"Your baby's cord should fall off by ____________________ (weeks/days) after birth."
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27
Chapter 26: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38144
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is discussing storage of breast milk with a mother whose infant is preterm and in the special care unit. What statement would indicate that the mother needs additional teaching?
A)"I can store my breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 months."
B)"I can store my breast milk in the freezer for 3 months."
C)"I can store my breast milk at room temperature for 8 hours."
D)"I can store my breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 to 5 days."
Q2) All of these statements indicate impacts of breastfeeding on the family or society at large except:
A)Breastfeeding requires fewer supplies and less cumbersome equipment.
B)Breastfeeding saves families money.
C)Breastfeeding costs employers in terms of time lost from work.
D)Breastfeeding benefits the environment.
Q3) The process whereby parents awaken the infant to feed every 3 hours during the day and at least every 4 hours at night is:
A)Known as demand feeding.
B)Necessary during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth.
C)Used to set up the supply-meets-demand system.
D)A way to control cluster feeding.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Infants With Gestational Age-Related Problems
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38145
Sample Questions
Q1) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an acute inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa that can progress to perforation of the bowel. Approximately 2% to 5% of premature infants succumb to this fatal disease. Care is supportive;however,there are known interventions that may decrease the risk of NEC. To develop an optimal plan of care for this infant,the nurse must understand that which intervention has the greatest effect on lowering the risk of NEC?
A)Early enteral feedings
B)Breastfeeding
C)Exchange transfusion
D)Prophylactic probiotics
Q2) A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome receives artificial surfactant. How would the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?
A)"Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide."
B)"The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation."
C)"Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea."
D)"Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection."
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Chapter 28: The Newborn at Risk: Acquired and Congenital Problems
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38146
Sample Questions
Q1) An infant diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis would characteristically exhibit: A)Edema.
B)Immature red blood cells.
C)Enlargement of the heart.
D)Ascites.
Q2) With regard to skeletal injuries sustained by a neonate during labor or birth,nurses should be aware that:
A)A newborn's skull is still forming and fractures fairly easily.
B)Unless a blood vessel is involved,linear skull fractures heal without special treatment.
C)Clavicle fractures often need to be set with an inserted pin for stability.
D)Other than the skull,the most common skeletal injuries are to leg bones.
Q3) A plan of care for an infant experiencing symptoms of drug withdrawal should include:
A)Administering chloral hydrate for sedation.
B)Feeding every 4 to 6 hours to allow extra rest.
C)Swaddling the infant snugly and holding the baby tightly.
D)Playing soft music during feeding.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Contemporary Pediatric Nursing
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38147
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing staff in-service education about atraumatic care for pediatric patients. Which intervention should the nurse include?
A)Prepare the child for separation from parents during hospitalization by reviewing a video.
B)Prepare the child before any unfamiliar treatment or procedure by demonstrating on a stuffed animal.
C)Help the child accept the loss of control associated with hospitalization.
D)Help the child accept pain that is connected with a treatment or procedure.
Q2) The leading cause of death from unintentional injuries in children is:
A)Poisoning.
B)Drowning.
C)Motor vehicle-related fatalities.
D)Fire- and burn-related fatalities.
Q3) What is most descriptive of critical thinking?
A)A simple developmental process
B)Purposeful and goal directed
C)Based on deliberate and irrational thought
D)Assists individuals in guessing what is most appropriate
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Chapter 30: Community-Based Nursing Care of the Child and Family
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38148
Sample Questions
Q1) Which term best describes the identification of the distribution and causes of disease,injury,or illness?
A)Nursing process
B)Epidemiologic process
C)Community-based statistics
D)Mortality and morbidity statistics
Q2) One of the community nurses at the health department is trying to identify how many new cases of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome have occurred in her city this past year. The term that best describes this measurement is:
A)mortality.
B)morbidity.
C)incidence.
D)prevalence.
Q3) A local community has recently experienced severe flooding with loss of homes and injuries. Counseling has been provided to assist families in coping with the sequelae of this natural disaster. This is an example of primary prevention.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Family Influences on Child Health Promotion
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of family is one in which all members are related by blood?
A)Consanguineous
B)Affinal
C)Family of origin
D)Household
Q2) A young couple who has just delivered their first child adapts to the stress of new parenthood by using two types of family resources. These include (choose all that apply):
A)Internal resources.
B)Adaptation.
C)Integration.
D)Coping strategies.
E)Community resources.
Q3) What applies to the rate of frequency of monozygotic (identical) twins being born?
A)The rate is affected by heredity.
B)The rate is affected by maternal age.
C)It varies among races.
D)It occurs uniformly in all populations.
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33
Chapter 32: Social,cultural and Religious Influences on
Child Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Poverty has serious implications for children and families. Social and cultural deprivation,including limited employment opportunities,inferior educational opportunities,inferior or no access to health care,and a lack of public services,is referred to as the __________________ type of poverty.
Q2) When minority groups immigrate to another country,a certain degree of cultural or ethnic blending occurs through the involuntary process of:
A)Acculturation.
B)Ethnocentrism.
C)Culture shock.
D)Cultural sensitivity.
Q3) Which term best describes a group of people who share a set of values,beliefs,practices,social relationships,law,politics,economics,and norms of behavior?
A)Race
B)Culture
C)Ethnicity
D)Social group
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Developmental Influences on Child Health
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about the basal metabolic rate (BMR) in children?
A)It is reduced by fever.
B)It is slightly higher in boys than in girls at all ages.
C)It increases with the age of child.
D)It decreases as proportion of surface area to body mass increases.
Q2) By the time children reach their twelfth birthday,they should have learned to trust others and should have developed a sense of:
A)Identity.
B)Industry.
C)Integrity.
D)Intimacy.
Q3) At what age do children tend to imitate the religious gestures and behaviors of others without understanding their significance?
A)Toddlerhood
B)Young school-age period
C)Older school-age period
D)Adolescence
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Communication, history, physical and Developmental Assessment
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is testing an infant's visual acuity. By what age should the infant be able to fix on and follow a target?
A)1 month
B)1 to 2 months
C)3 to 4 months
D)6 months
Q2) The most frequently used test for measuring visual acuity is the:
A)Denver Eye Screening test.
B)Allen picture card test.
C)Ishihara vision test.
D)Snellen letter chart.
Q3) The nurse is having difficulty communicating with a hospitalized 6-year-old child. What technique might be most helpful?
A)Suggest that the child keep a diary.
B)Suggest that the parent read fairy tales to the child.
C)Ask the parent if the child is always uncommunicative.
D)Ask the child to draw a picture.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Pain Assessment and Management
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physiologic measurements in children's pain assessment are:
A)The best indicator of pain in children of all ages.
B)Essential to determine whether a child is telling the truth about pain.
C)Of most value when children also report having pain.
D)Of limited value as sole indicator of pain.
Q2) A lumbar puncture is needed on a school-age child. The most appropriate action to provide analgesia during this procedure is to apply:
A)Tetracaine-adrenaline-cocaine (TAC) 15 minutes before procedure.
B)Transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch immediately before procedure.
C)Eutectic mixture of local anesthetics (EMLA) 1 hour before procedure.
D)EMLA 30 minutes before procedure.
Q3) Kyle,age 6 months,is brought to the clinic. His parent says,"I think he hurts. He cries and rolls his head from side to side a lot." This most likely suggests which feature of pain?
A)Type
B)Severity
C)Duration
D)Location
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Page 37
Chapter 36: The Infant and Family
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What behavior indicates that an infant has developed object permanence?
A)Recognizes familiar face such as mother
B)Recognizes familiar object such as bottle
C)Actively searches for a hidden object
D)Secures objects by pulling on a string
Q2) The clinic is lending a federally approved car seat to an infant's family. The nurse should explain that the safest place to put the car seat is:
A)Front facing in back seat.
B)Rear facing in back seat.
C)Front facing in front seat with airbag on passenger side.
D)Rear facing in front seat if an air bag is on the passenger side.
Q3) Austin,age 6 months,has six teeth. The nurse should recognize that this is:
A)Normal tooth eruption.
B)Delayed tooth eruption.
C)Unusual and dangerous.
D)Earlier-than-normal tooth eruption.
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Chapter 37: The Toddler and Family
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kimberly's parents have been using a rearward-facing convertible car seat since she was born. Most car seats can be safely switched to the forward-facing position when the child weighs:
A)10 pounds
B)20 pounds
C)30 pounds
D)40 pounds
Q2) The leading cause of death during the toddler period is:
A)Injuries.
B)Infectious diseases.
C)Congenital disorders.
D)Childhood diseases.
Q3) Developmentally most children at age 12 months:
A)Use a spoon adeptly.
B)Relinquish the bottle voluntarily.
C)Eat the same food as the rest of the family.
D)Reject all solid food in preference to the bottle.
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Chapter 38: The Preschooler and Family
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38156
Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin A supplementation may be recommended for the young child who has: A)Mumps.
B)Rubella.
C)Measles (rubeola).
D)Erythema infectiosum.
Q2) In terms of language and cognitive development,a 4-year-old child would be expected to:
A)Think in abstract terms.
B)Follow simple commands.
C)Understand conservation of matter.
D)Comprehend another person's perspective.
Q3) By what age would the nurse expect that most children could obey prepositional phrases such as "under," "on top of," "beside," and "in back of"?
A)18 months
B)24 months
C)3 years
D)4 years
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Chapter 39: The School-Age Child and Family
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 9-year-old girl often comes to the school nurse complaining of stomach pains. Her teacher says that she is completing her schoolwork satisfactorily,but lately she has been somewhat aggressive and stubborn in the classroom. The school nurse should recognize this as:
A)Signs of stress.
B)Developmental delay.
C)A physical problem causing emotional stress.
D)Lack of adjustment to the school environment.
Q2) A group of boys ages 9 and 10 years have formed a "boys-only" club that is open to neighborhood and school friends who have skateboards. This should be interpreted:
A)Behavior that encourages bullying and sexism.
B)Behavior that reinforces poor peer relationships.
C)Characteristic of social development of this age.
D)Characteristic of children who later are at risk for membership in gangs.
Q3) The role of the peer group in the life of school-age children is that it:
A)Gives them an opportunity to learn dominance and hostility.
B)Allows them to remain dependent on their parents for a longer time.
C)Decreases their need to learn appropriate sex roles.
D)Provides them with security as they gain independence from their parents.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: The Adolescent and Family
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38158
Sample Questions
Q1) Which aspect of cognition develops during adolescence?
A)Capability to use a future time perspective
B)Ability to place things in a sensible and logical order
C)Ability to see things from the point of view of another
D)Progress from making judgments based on what they see to making judgments based on what they reason
Q2) According to Erikson,the psychosocial task of adolescence is developing:
A)Intimacy.
B)Identity.
C)Initiative.
D)Independence.
Q3) The mean age of menarche in the United States is:
A)11.5 years
B)12.75 years
C)13.5 years
D)14 years
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Chapter 41: Chronic Illness, Disability and End of Life Care
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38159
Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a child born with disabilities ask the nurse for advice about discipline. The nurse's response should be based on knowledge that discipline is:
A)Essential for the child.
B)Too difficult to implement with a special-needs child.
C)Not needed unless child becomes problematic.
D)Best achieved with punishment for misbehavior.
Q2) Families progress through various stages of reactions when a child is diagnosed with a chronic illness or disability. After the shock phase,a period of adjustment usually follows. This is often characterized by:
A)Denial.
B)Guilt and anger.
C)Social reintegration.
D)Acceptance of child's limitations.
Q3) What is most descriptive of a school-age child's reaction to death?
A)Is very interested in funerals and burials
B)Has little understanding of words such as forever
C)Imagines the deceased person to be still alive
D)Has an idealistic view of world and criticizes funerals as barbaric
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Chapter 42: Impact of Cognitive or Sensory Impairment on the Child and Family
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38160
Sample Questions
Q1) When a child with mild cognitive impairment reaches the end of adolescence,what characteristic would be expected?
A)Achieves a mental age of 5 to 6 years
B)Achieves a mental age of 8 to 12 years
C)Unable to progress in functional reading or arithmetic
D)Acquires practical skills and useful reading and arithmetic to an eighth-grade level
Q2) A newborn assessment shows separated sagittal suture,oblique palpebral fissures,depressed nasal bridge,protruding tongue,and transverse palmar creases. These findings are most suggestive of:
A)Microcephaly.
B)Down syndrome.
C)Cerebral palsy.
D)Fragile X syndrome.
Q3) A nurse would suspect possible visual impairment in a child who displays:
A)Excessive rubbing of the eyes.
B)Rapid lateral movement of the eyes.
C)Delay in speech development.
D)Lack of interest in casual conversation with peers.
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Chapter 43: Family-Centered Home Care
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When communicating with other professionals,it is important for home care nurses to:
A)Ask others what they want to know.
B)Share everything known about the family.
C)Restrict communication to clinically relevant information.
D)Recognize that confidentiality is not possible.
Q2) Home care is being considered for a young child who is ventilator dependent. Which factor is most important in deciding whether home care is appropriate?
A)Level of parents' education
B)Presence of two parents in the home
C)Preparation and training of family
D)Family's ability to assume all health care costs
Q3) What are likely to be the most effective options for case management? Choose all that apply.
A)One nursing case manager
B)The insurance company
C)A panel of experts
D)A multidisciplinary team
E)Primary care provider
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Reaction to Illness and Hospitalization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ryan has just been unexpectedly admitted to the intensive care unit after abdominal surgery. The nursing staff has completed the admission process,and Ryan's condition is beginning to stabilize. When speaking with the parents,the nurses should expect which stressors to be evident? Choose all that apply.
A)Unfamiliar environment
B)Usual day-night routine
C)Strange smells
D)Provision of privacy
E)Inadequate knowledge of condition and routine
Q2) The nurse is caring for an adolescent who had an external fixator placed after suffering a fracture of the wrist during a bicycle accident. Which statement by the adolescent would be expected about separation anxiety?
A)"I wish my parents could spend the night with me while I am in the hospital."
B)"I think I would like for my siblings to visit me but not my friends."
C)"I hope my friends don't forget about visiting me."
D)"I will be embarrassed if my friends come to the hospital to visit."
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Chapter 45: Pediatric Variations of Nursing Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In preparing to give "enemas until clear" to a young child,the nurse should select:
A)Tap water.
B)Normal saline.
C)Oil retention.
D)Fleet solution.
Q2) Tape the nasogastric tube securely to the child's face.
A) Lubricate the nasogastric tube with water-soluble lubricant.
B) Tape the nasogastric tube securely to the child's face.
C) Check the placement of the tube by aspirating stomach contents.
D) Place the child in the supine position with head slightly hyperflexed.
E) Insert the nasogastric tube through the nares.
F) Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the ear lobe to midpoint between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus.
Q3) The Allen test is performed as a precautionary measure before which procedure?
A)Heel stick
B)Venipuncture
C)Arterial puncture
D)Lumbar puncture
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Chapter 46: Respiratory Dysfunction
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is characteristic of acute otitis media (AOM)?
A)The etiology is unknown.
B)Permanent hearing loss often results.
C)It can be treated by intramuscular antibiotics.
D)It is treated with a broad range of antibiotics.
Q2) Which drug is considered the most useful in treating cardiac arrest?
A)Bretylium
B)Lidocaine hydrochloride
C)Epinephrine hydrochloride
D)Naloxone (Narcan)
Q3) An infant has developed staphylococcal pneumonia. Nursing care of the child with pneumonia includes (choose all that apply):
A)Cluster care to conserve energy.
B)Round-the-clock administration of antitussive agents.
C)Strict intake and output to avoid congestive heart failure.
D)Administration of antibiotics.
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Chapter 47: Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant with short bowel syndrome will be discharged home on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and gastrostomy feedings. Nursing care should include:
A)Preparing the family for impending death.
B)Teaching the family signs of central venous catheter infection.
C)Teaching the family how to calculate caloric needs.
D)Securing TPN and gastrostomy tubing under diaper to lessen risk of dislodgment.
Q2) Nurses must be alert for increased fluid requirements when a child has:
A)Fever.
B)Mechanical ventilation.
C)Congestive heart failure.
D)Increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
Q3) The nurse is caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula. Nursing care should include:
A)Elevating the head but giving nothing by mouth.
B)Elevating the head for feedings.
C)Feeding glucose water only.
D)Avoiding suctioning unless the infant is cyanotic.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Cardiovascular Dysfunction
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38 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important nursing consideration when chest tubes will be removed from a child is to:
A)Explain that it is not painful.
B)Explain that only a Band-Aid will be needed.
C)Administer analgesics before procedure.
D)Expect bright red drainage for several hours after removal.
Q2) Which drug is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor?
A)Captopril (Capoten)
B)Furosemide (Lasix)
C)Spironolactone (Aldactone)
D)Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
Q3) A major clinical manifestation of rheumatic fever is:
A)Polyarthritis.
B)Osler nodes.
C)Janeway spots.
D)Splinter hemorrhages of distal third of nails.
Q4) Obtain vascular access.
A) Administer epinephrine.
B) Keep child warm and calm.
C) Obtain vascular access.
Page 50
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Chapter 49: Hematologic and Immunologic Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) An acquired hemorrhagic disorder that is characterized by excessive destruction of plateletsĀ is:
A)Aplastic anemia.
B)Thalassemia major.
C)Disseminated intravascular coagulation.
D)Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
Q2) A possible cause of acquired aplastic anemia in children is:
A)Drugs.
B)Injury.
C)Deficient diet.
D)Congenital defect.
Q3) A child with leukemia is receiving triple intrathecal chemotherapy consisting of methotrexate,cytarabine,and hydrocortisone. The purpose of this is to prevent: A)Infection.
B)Brain tumor.
C)Drug side effects.
D)Central nervous system (CNS) disease.
Q4) Nose bleeding,also known as __________________,is common in childhood. The bleeding ordinarily stops spontaneously or with minimal pressure.
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Chapter 50: Genitourinary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a child has chronic renal failure,the progressive deterioration produces a variety of clinical and biochemical disturbances that eventually are manifested in the clinical syndrome known as:
A)Uremia.
B)Oliguria.
C)Proteinuria.
D)Pyelonephritis.
Q2) An objective of care for the child with nephrosis is to:
A)Reduce blood pressure.
B)Reduce excretion of urinary protein.
C)Increase excretion of urinary protein.
D)Increase ability of tissues to retain fluid.
Q3) Which statement is descriptive of renal transplantation in children?
A)It is an acceptable means of treatment after age 10 years.
B)It is preferred means of renal replacement therapy in children.
C)Children can receive kidneys only from other children.
D)The decision for transplantation is difficult since a relatively normal lifestyle is not possible.
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Chapter 51: Cerebral Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What best describes a neuroblastoma?
A)Diagnosis is usually made after metastasis occurs.
B)Early diagnosis is usually possible because of the obvious clinical manifestations.
C)It is the most common brain tumor in young children.
D)It is the most common benign tumor in young children.
Q2) Which type of seizure may be difficult to detect?
A)Absence
B)Generalized
C)Simple partial
D)Complex partial
Q3) What may be beneficial in reducing the risk of Reye's syndrome?
A)Immunization against the disease
B)Medical attention for all head injuries
C)Prompt treatment of bacterial meningitis
D)Avoidance of aspirin and ibuprofen for children with varicella or those suspected of having influenza
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Chapter 52: Endocrine Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing care of a child diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) should include (choose all that apply):
A)Weigh daily.
B)Encourage fluids.
C)Turn frequently.
D)Maintain nothing by mouth..
E)Restrict fluids.
Q2) Type 1 diabetes mellitus is suspected in an adolescent. Which clinical manifestation may be present?
A)Moist skin
B)Weight gain
C)Fluid overload
D)Poor wound healing
Q3) A child will start treatment for precocious puberty. This involves injections of synthetic:
A)Thyrotropin.
B)Gonadotropins.
C)Somatotropic hormone.
D)Luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Integumentary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Matt's mother tells the nurse that he keeps scratching the areas where he has poison ivy. The nurse's response should be based on knowing that:
A)Poison ivy does not itch and needs further investigation.
B)Scratching the lesions will not cause a problem.
C)Scratching the lesions will cause the poison ivy to spread.
D)Scratching the lesions may cause them to become secondarily infected.
Q2) The primary clinical manifestation of scabies is:
A)Edema.
B)Redness.
C)Pruritus.
D)Maceration.
Q3) The nurse should know that Lyme disease is:
A)Difficult to prevent.
B)Easily treated with oral antibiotics in stages 1,2,and 3.
C)Caused by a spirochete that enters the skin through a tick bite.
D)Common in geographic areas where the soil contains the mycotic spores that cause the disease.
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55
Chapter 54: Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38172
Sample Questions
Q1) When does idiopathic scoliosis become most noticeable?
A)Newborn period
B)When child starts to walk
C)During preadolescent growth spurt
D)Adolescence
Q2) What effect does immobilization have on metabolism?
A)Hypocalcemia
B)Decreased metabolic rate
C)Positive nitrogen balance
D)Increased production of stress hormones
Q3) A neonate is born with mild clubfeet. When the parents ask the nurse how this will be corrected,the nurse should explain that:
A)Traction is tried first.
B)Surgical intervention is needed.
C)Frequent,serial casting is tried first.
D)Children outgrow this condition when they learn to walk.
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Chapter 55: Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38173
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common problem of children born with a myelomeningocele is:
A)Neurogenic bladder.
B)Cognitive impairment.
C)Respiratory compromise.
D)Cranioschisis.
Q2) A 14-year-old girl is in the intensive care unit after a spinal cord injury 2 days ago. Nursing care for this child includes (choose all that apply):
A)Monitoring and maintaining systemic blood pressure.
B)Administering corticosteroids.
C)Minimizing environmental stimuli.
D)Discussing long-term care issues with the family.
E)Monitoring for respiratory complications.
Q3) What refers to a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst of meninges,spinal fluid,and a portion of the spinal cord with its nerves through a defect in the vertebral column?
A)Rachischisis
B)Encephalocele
C)Meningocele
D)Myelomeningocele
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