Family-Centered Nursing Care Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Family-Centered Nursing Care explores the principles and practices of providing holistic nursing care within the context of the family unit. This course emphasizes the importance of collaboration between healthcare providers, patients, and their families to promote optimal health outcomes. Students will learn to assess family structures, dynamics, and cultural influences, while developing communication and advocacy skills tailored to diverse family systems. The curriculum covers strategies for supporting families across the lifespan, addressing challenges such as chronic illness, disability, and crisis situations, with a focus on empowerment and partnerships in care.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care 4th Edition by Shannon
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55 Chapters
1509 Verified Questions
1509 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1913
Page 2
E. Perry
Chapter 1: Contemporary Maternity Nursing
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38119
Sample Questions
Q1) Recent trends in childbirth practice indicate that:
A)Delayed pushing is now discouraged in the second stage of labor.
B)Episiotomy rates are increasing.
C)Midwives perform more episiotomies than physicians.
D)Newborn infants remain with the mother and are encouraged to breastfeed.
Answer: D
Q2) The role of the professional nurse has evolved to emphasize:
A)Providing care to clients directly at the bedside.
B)Planning client care to cover longer hospital stays.
C)Leading the activities of a team of interdisciplinary health care providers.
D)Managing care to cure health problems once they have occurred.
Answer: C
Q3) Which methods would help alleviate the problems associated with access to health care for the maternity client? Choose all that apply.
A)Provide transportation to prenatal visits.
B)Provide child care so that a pregnant woman may keep prenatal visits.
C)Mandate that physicians make house calls.
D)Provide low-cost or no-cost health care insurance.
E)Provide job training.
Answer: A,B,D
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Chapter 2: The Family and Culture
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client's family is important to the maternity nurse because:
A)They pay the bills.
B)The nurse will know which family member to avoid.
C)The nurse will know which mothers will really care for their children.
D)The family culture and structure will influence nursing care decisions.
Answer: D
Q2) In what form do families tend to be most socially vulnerable?
A)Married-blended family
B)Extended family
C)Nuclear family
D)Single-parent family
Answer: D
Q3) A traditional family structure in which male and female partners and their children live as an independent unit is known as a(n):
A)Extended family
B)Binuclear family
C)Nuclear family
D)Blended family
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Community and Home Care
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21 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A health care service representing the tertiary level of prevention includes:
A)Stress management seminars.
B)Childbirth education classes for single parents.
C)A breast self-examination (BSE) pamphlet and teaching.
D)A premenstrual syndrome (PMS) support group.
Answer: D
Q2) Which situation would be considered safe by a nurse who is making a home visit?
A)A group of teens is sitting on the stairs in front of the client's apartment.
B)Parking is only possible 3 blocks from the client's house because no space is available in front of the house.
C)The family dog is on a chain in the front yard.
D)The door of the home is open when the nurse arrives.
Answer: C
Q3) In preparing for maternal home visits,nurses should be aware that:
A)The client's safety is more important than the nurse's safety.
B)Infection control is less important at home than at the hospital.
C)Such hospital trappings as name tags and rubber gloves are inappropriate.
D)Nurses should wash their hands thoroughly before and after each visit.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intervention for the sexual abuse survivor often is not attempted by maternity and women's health nurses because of the concern about increasing the woman's distress and the lack of expertise in counseling. What initial intervention is appropriate and most important in facilitating the woman's care?
A)Initiating a referral to an expert counselor
B)Setting limits on what the client discloses
C)Listening and encouraging therapeutic communication skills
D)Acknowledging the nurse's discomfort to the client as an expression of empathy
Q2) During the past 20 years the prevalence of obesity has doubled in the United States,with 25% of women older than 20 years of age being obese. Body mass index is defined as the measure of an adult's weight in relation to his or her height. This is currently the most accurate measure of weight. It is an important part of the health screening process because obesity is closely associated with:
A)The non-Hispanic Caucasian population.
B)A large number of chronic conditions.
C)Mostly acute illnesses.
D)Improved mental well-being.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Health Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because of the effect of cyclic ovarian changes on the breast,the best time for breast self-examination (BSE) is:
A)Five to 7 days after menses ceases.
B)Day 1 of the endometrial cycle.
C)Midmenstrual cycle.
D)Any time during a shower or bath.
Q2) Which statement would indicate that the client requires additional instruction about breast self-examination?
A)"Yellow discharge from my nipple is normal if I'm having my period."
B)"I should check my breasts at the same time each month,like after my period."
C)"I should also feel in my armpit area while performing my breast examination."
D)"I should check each breast in a set way,such as in a circular motion."
Q3) The transition phase during which ovarian function and hormone production decline is called:
A)The climacteric.
B)Menarche.
C)Menopause.
D)Puberty.
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Chapter 6: Common Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The viral sexually transmitted infection (STI) that affects most people in the United States today is:
A)Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2).
B)Human papillomavirus (HPV).
C)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
D)Cytomegalovirus (CMV).
Q2) Any episode of vaginal bleeding that occurs at a time other than during menses is referred to as _______________.
Q3) Which statement concerning cyclic perimenstrual pain and discomfort (CPPD) is accurate?
A)Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a milder form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) and more common in younger women.
B)Secondary dysmenorrhea is more intense and medically significant than primary dysmenorrhea.
C)Premenstrual syndrome is a complex,poorly understood condition that may include any of a hundred symptoms.
D)The causes of PMS have been well established.
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Chapter 7: Infertility,Contraception,and Abortion
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Sample Questions
Q1) While instructing a couple regarding birth control,the nurse should be aware that the method called natural family planning:
A)Is the same as coitus interruptus,or "pulling out."
B)Uses the calendar method to align the woman's cycle with the natural phases of the moon.
C)Is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic church.
D)Relies on barrier methods during fertility phases.
Q2) Injectable progestins (DMPA,Depo-Provera) are a good contraceptive choice for women who:
A)Want menstrual regularity and predictability.
B)Have a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer.
C)Have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily.
D)Are homeless or mobile and rarely receive health care.
Q3) A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs). The nurse's most appropriate reply is:
A)"They're not very effective,and it's very likely you'll get pregnant."
B)"They can be effective for many couples,but they require motivation."
C)"These methods have a few advantages and several health risks."
D)"You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry."
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Genetics,Conception,and Fetal Development
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34 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a pregnant client knows that her health teaching regarding fetal circulation has been effective when the client reports that she has been sleeping:
A)In a side-lying position.
B)On her back with a pillow under her knees.
C)With the head of the bed elevated.
D)On her abdomen.
Q2) A couple has been counseled for genetic anomalies. They ask you,"What is karyotyping?" Your best response is:
A)"Karyotyping will reveal if the baby's lungs are mature."
B)"Karyotyping will reveal if your baby will develop normally."
C)"Karyotyping will provide information about the gender of the baby and the number and structure of the chromosomes."
D)"Karyotyping will detect any physical deformities the baby has."
Q3) The ability of the fetus to survive outside the uterus is called
Q4) ____________________ twins is another term for fraternal twins. These twins may be the same or different sexes and genetically are no more alike than siblings born at different times.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Assessment for Risk Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 40-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool would be appropriate to suggest to her at this time?
A)Biophysical profile
B)Amniocentesis
C)Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
D)Transvaginal ultrasound
Q2) Nurses should be aware of the strengths and limitations of various biochemical assessments during pregnancy,including that:
A)Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is becoming more popular because it provides early diagnosis.
B)Screening for maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) levels is recommended only for women at risk for neural tube defects.
C)Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is one of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome.
D)MSAFP is a screening tool only;it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures.
Q3) MSAFP levels have been used as a screening tool for ________________ in pregnancy.
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11
Chapter 10: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which time-based description of a stage of development in pregnancy is accurate?
A)Viability-22 to 37 weeks since the last menstrual period (LMP) (assuming a fetal weight greater than 500 g)
B)Term-pregnancy from the beginning of week 38 of gestation to the end of week 42
C)Preterm-pregnancy from 20 to 28 weeks
D)Postdate-pregnancy that extends beyond 38 weeks
Q2) To reassure and educate their pregnant clients about changes in their blood pressure,maternity nurses should be aware that:
A)A blood pressure cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too low;a cuff that is too large produces a reading that is too high.
B)Shifting the client's position and changing from arm to arm for different measurements produces the most accurate composite blood pressure reading at each visit.
C)The systolic blood pressure increases slightly as pregnancy advances;the diastolic pressure remains constant.
D)Compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava by the uterus contributes to hemorrhoids in the later stage of term pregnancy.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Nursing Care During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for the newly pregnant woman would advise her that ideally prenatal care should begin:
A)Before the first missed menstrual period.
B)After the first missed menstrual period.
C)After the second missed menstrual period.
D)After the third missed menstrual period.
Q2) A 3-year-old girl's mother is 6 months pregnant. What concern is this child likely to verbalize?
A)How the baby will "get out"
B)What the baby will eat
C)Whether her mother will die
D)What color eyes the baby has
Q3) A 30-year-old primigravida client is at the clinic for her initial prenatal visit. She is unsure of her chickenpox immune status. The nurse should recommend that this woman have a ____________________________ drawn.
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13
Chapter 12: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement made by a lactating woman would lead the nurse to believe that the woman might have lactose intolerance?
A)"I always have heartburn after I drink milk."
B)"If I drink more than a cup of milk,I usually have abdominal cramps and bloating."
C)"Drinking milk usually makes me break out in hives."
D)"Sometimes I notice that I have bad breath after I drink a cup of milk."
Q2) While taking a diet history,the nurse might be told that the expectant mother has cravings for ice chips,cornstarch,and baking soda. This represents a nutritional problem known as:
A)Preeclampsia.
B)Pyrosis.
C)Pica.
D)Purging.
Q3) Which minerals and vitamins usually are recommended to supplement a pregnant woman's diet?
A)Fat-soluble vitamins A and D
B)Water-soluble vitamins C and B<sub>6</sub>
C)Iron and folate
D)Calcium and zinc
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Pregnancy at Risk: Preexisting Conditions
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In planning for the care of a 30-year-old woman with pregestational diabetes,the nurse recognizes that the most important factor affecting pregnancy outcome is the: A)Mother's age.
B)Number of years since diabetes was diagnosed.
C)Amount of insulin required prenatally.
D)Degree of glycemic control during pregnancy.
Q2) Diabetes in pregnancy puts the fetus at risk in several ways. Nurses should be aware that:
A)With good control of maternal glucose levels,sudden and unexplained stillbirth is no longer a major concern.
B)The most important cause of perinatal loss in diabetic pregnancy is congenital malformations.
C)Infants of mothers with diabetes have the same risks for respiratory distress syndrome because of the careful monitoring.
D)At birth the neonate of a diabetic mother is no longer in any risk.
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Chapter 14: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Methotrexate is recommended as part of the treatment plan for which obstetric complication?
A)Complete hydatidiform mole
B)Missed abortion
C)Unruptured ectopic pregnancy
D)Abruptio placentae
Q2) A woman with severe preeclampsia has been receiving magnesium sulfate by intravenous infusion for 8 hours. The nurse assesses the woman and documents the following findings: temperature of 37.1° C,pulse rate of 96 beats/min,respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min,blood pressure (BP) of 155/112 mm Hg,3+ deep tendon reflexes,and no ankle clonus. The nurse calls the physician,anticipating an order for:
A)Hydralazine.
B)Magnesium sulfate bolus.
C)Diazepam.
D)Calcium gluconate.
Q3) The antidote administered to reverse magnesium toxicity is _____________________.
Q4) _________________________ is responsible for 9% of all maternal mortality and is the leading cause of infertility.
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Chapter 15: Labor and Birth Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother asks the nurse when the "soft spot" on her son's head will go away. The nurse's answer is based on the knowledge that the anterior fontanel closes after birth by _____ months.
A)2
B)8
C)12
D)18
Q2) With regard to fetal positioning during labor,nurses should be aware that:
A)Position is a measure of the degree of descent of the presenting part of the fetus through the birth canal.
B)Birth is imminent when the presenting part is at +4 to +5 cm,below the spine.
C)The largest transverse diameter of the presenting part is the suboccipitobregmatic diameter.
D)Engagement is the term used to describe the beginning of labor.
Q3) What factors influence cervical dilation? Choose all that apply.
A)Strong uterine contractions
B)The force of the presenting fetal part against the cervix
C)The size of the female
D)The pressure applied by the amniotic sac
E)Scarring of the cervix
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Chapter 16: Management of Discomfort
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has requested an epidural for her pain. She is 5 cm dilated and 100% effaced. The baby is in a vertex position and is engaged. The nurse increases the woman's intravenous fluid for a preprocedural bolus. She reviews her laboratory values and notes that the woman's hemoglobin is 12 g/dl,hematocrit is 38%,platelets are 67,000,and white blood cells (WBCs) are 12,000/mm³. Which factor would contraindicate an epidural for the woman?
A)She is too far dilated.
B)She is anemic.
C)She has thrombocytopenia.
D)She is septic.
Q2) After change-of-shift report the nurse assumes care of a multiparous client in labor. The woman is complaining of pain that radiates to her abdominal wall,lower back,and buttocks and down her thighs. Before implementing a plan of care,the nurse should understand that this type of pain is:
A)Visceral.
B)Referred.
C)Somatic.
D)Afterpain.
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Chapter 17: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that maternal hypotension can result in:
A)Early decelerations.
B)Fetal dysrhythmias.
C)Uteroplacental insufficiency.
D)Spontaneous rupture of membranes.
Q2) External fetal monitoring cannot detect the ____________________ of uterine contractions.
Q3) A normal uterine activity pattern in labor is characterized by:
A)Contractions every 2 to 5 minutes.
B)Contractions lasting about 2 minutes.
C)Contractions about 1 minute apart.
D)A contraction intensity of about 1000 mm Hg with relaxation at 50 mm Hg.
Q4) The nurse caring for the laboring woman should understand that early decelerations are caused by:
A)Altered fetal cerebral blood flow.
B)Umbilical cord compression.
C)Uteroplacental insufficiency.
D)Spontaneous rupture of membranes.
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Chapter 18: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which collection of risk factors most likely would result in damaging lacerations (including episiotomies)?
A)A dark-skinned woman who has had more than one pregnancy,who is going through prolonged second-stage labor,and who is attended by a midwife
B)A reddish-haired mother of two who is going through a breech birth
C)A dark-skinned,first-time mother who is going through a long labor
D)A first-time mother with reddish hair whose rapid labor was overseen by an obstetrician
Q2) The nurse expects to administer an oxytocic (e.g.,Pitocin,Methergine) to a woman after expulsion of her placenta to:
A)Relieve pain.
B)Stimulate uterine contraction.
C)Prevent infection.
D)Facilitate rest and relaxation.
Q3) What is an expected characteristic of amniotic fluid?
A)Deep yellow color
B)Pale,straw color with small white particles
C)Acidic result on a Nitrazine test
D)Absence of ferning
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Labor and Birth at Risk
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Sample Questions
Q1) In planning for an expected cesarean birth for a woman who has given birth by cesarean previously and who has a fetus in the transverse presentation,the nurse would include what information?
A)"Because this is a repeat procedure,you are at the lowest risk for complications."
B)"Even though this is your second cesarean birth,you may wish to review the preoperative and postoperative procedures."
C)"Because this is your second cesarean birth,you will recover faster."
D)"You will not need preoperative teaching because this is your second cesarean birth."
Q2) The nurse providing care to a woman in labor should be aware that cesarean birth:
A)Is declining in frequency in the twenty-first century in the United States.
B)Is more likely to be done for the poor in public hospitals who do not get the nurse counseling that wealthier clients do.
C)Is performed primarily for the benefit of the fetus.
D)Can be either elected or refused by women as their absolute legal right.
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21
Chapter 20: Maternal Physiologic Changes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which woman is most likely to experience strong afterpains?
A)A woman who experienced oligohydramnios
B)A woman who is a gravida 4,para 4-0-0-4
C)A woman who is bottle-feeding her infant
D)A woman whose infant weighed 5 pounds,3 ounces
Q2) Postbirth uterine/vaginal discharge,called lochia:
A)Is similar to a light menstrual period for the first 6 to 12 hours.
B)Is usually greater after cesarean births.
C)Will usually decrease with ambulation and breastfeeding.
D)Should smell like normal menstrual flow unless an infection is present.
Q3) Changes in the maternal immune system during the postpartum period account for the profuse diaphoresis that new mothers experience.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The nurse caring for the postpartum woman understands that breast engorgement is caused by:
A)Overproduction of colostrum.
B)Accumulation of milk in the lactiferous ducts.
C)Hyperplasia of mammary tissue.
D)Congestion of veins and lymphatics.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Nursing Care During the Fourth Trimester
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hospital has a number of different perineal pads available for use. A nurse is observed soaking several of them and writing down what she sees. This activity indicates that the nurse is trying to:
A)Improve the accuracy of blood loss estimation,which usually is a subjective assessment.
B)Determine which pad is best.
C)Demonstrate that other nurses usually underestimate blood loss.
D)Reveal to the nurse supervisor that one of them needs some time off.
Q2) A primiparous woman is to be discharged from the hospital tomorrow with her infant girl. Which behavior indicates a need for further intervention by the nurse before the woman can be discharged?
A)The woman leaves the infant on her bed while she takes a shower.
B)The woman continues to hold and cuddle her infant after she has fed her.
C)The woman reads a magazine while her infant sleeps.
D)The woman changes her infant's diaper and then shows the nurse the contents of the diaper.
Q3) During the immediate postpartum period,saturation of one pad within 2 hours is considered ____________________ blood loss.
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Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to the adaptation of other family members,mainly siblings and grandparents,to the newborn,nurses should be aware that:
A)Sibling rivalry cannot be dismissed as overblown psychobabble;negative feelings and behaviors can take a long time to blow over.
B)Participation in preparation classes helps both siblings and grandparents.
C)In the United States paternal and maternal grandparents consider themselves of equal importance and status.
D)Since 1990 the number of grandparents providing permanent care to their grandchildren has been declining.
Q2) The nurse can help a father in his transition to parenthood by:
A)Pointing out that the infant turned at the sound of his voice.
B)Encouraging him to go home to get some sleep.
C)Telling him to tape the infant's diaper a different way.
D)Suggesting that he let the infant sleep in the bassinet.
Q3) ____________________ is the process by which the parent and infant come to love and accept each other.
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Chapter 23: Postpartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medications used to manage postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) include (choose all that apply):
A)Pitocin.
B)Methergine.
C)Terbutaline.
D)Hemabate.
E)Magnesium sulfate.
Q2) When a woman is diagnosed with postpartum depression (PPD) with psychotic features,one of the main concerns is that she may:
A)Have outbursts of anger.
B)Neglect her hygiene.
C)Harm her infant.
D)Lose interest in her husband.
Q3) ____________________ is the most common postpartum infection.
Q4) What infection is contracted mostly by first-time mothers who are breastfeeding?
A)Endometritis
B)Wound infections
C)Mastitis
D)Urinary tract infections
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Chapter 24: Physiologic Adaptations of the Newborn
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Q1) The nurse assessing a newborn knows that the most critical physiologic change required of the newborn is:
A)Closure of fetal shunts in the circulatory system.
B)Full function of the immune defense system at birth.
C)Maintenance of a stable temperature.
D)Initiation and maintenance of respirations.
Q2) During life in utero oxygenation of the fetus occurs through transplacental gas exchange. When birth occurs,four factors combine to stimulate the respiratory center in the medulla. The initiation of respiration then follows. Which is NOT one of these essential factors?
A)Chemical
B)Mechanical
C)Thermal
D)Psychologic
Q3) With regard to the newborn's developing cardiovascular system,nurses should be aware that:
A)The heart rate of a crying infant may rise to 120 beats/min.
B)Heart murmurs heard after the first few hours are cause for concern.
C)The point of maximal impulse (PMI) often is visible on the chest wall.
D)Persistent bradycardia may indicate respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
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Chapter 25: Nursing Care of the Newborn
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Q1) With regard to umbilical cord care,nurses should be aware that:
A)The stump can easily become infected.
B)A nurse noting bleeding from the vessels of the cord should immediately call for assistance.
C)The cord clamp is removed at cord separation.
D)The average cord separation time is 5 to 7 days.
Q2) The nurse is performing a blood glucose test every 4 hours on an infant born to a diabetic mother. This is to assess the infant's risk of hypoglycemia. The nurse becomes concerned if the infant's blood glucose concentration falls below _____ mg/dl.
Q3) As part of their teaching function at discharge,nurses should tell parents that the baby's respiration should be protected by all of the following procedures except:
A)Preventing exposure to people with upper respiratory tract infections.
B)Keeping the infant away from secondhand smoke.
C)Avoiding loose bedding,water beds,and beanbag chairs.
D)Not letting the infant sleep on his or her back.
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Chapter 26: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) At a 2-month well-baby examination,it was discovered that a breastfed infant had only gained 10 ounces in the past 4 weeks. The mother and the nurse agree that,to gain weight faster,the infant needs to:
A)Begin solid foods.
B)Have a bottle of formula after every feeding.
C)Add at least one extra breastfeeding session every 24 hours.
D)Start iron supplements.
Q2) A primiparous woman is delighted with her newborn son and wants to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible. The nurse can facilitate the infant's correct latch-on by helping the woman hold the infant:
A)With his arms folded together over his chest.
B)Curled up in a fetal position.
C)With his head cupped in her hand.
D)With his head and body in alignment.
Q3) Benefits to the mother associated with breastfeeding include all except:
A)They have a decreased risk of breast cancer.
B)It is an effective method of birth control.
C)It increases bone density.
D)It may enhance postpartum weight loss.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Infants With Gestational Age-Related Problems
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Premature infants who exhibit 5 to 10 seconds of respiratory pauses followed by 10 to 15 seconds of compensatory rapid respiration are:
A)Suffering from sleep or wakeful apnea.
B)Experiencing severe swings in blood pressure.
C)Trying to maintain a neutral thermal environment.
D)Breathing in a respiratory pattern common to premature infants.
Q2) For diagnostic and treatment purposes nurses should know the birth weight classifications of high risk infants. For example,extremely low birth weight (ELBW) is the designation for an infant whose weight is:
A)Less than 1500g.
B)Less than 1000 g.
C)Less than 2000 g.
D)Dependent on the gestational age.
Q3) Infants of mothers with diabetes are at higher risk for developing:
A)Anemia.
B)Hyponatremia.
C)Respiratory distress syndrome.
D)Sepsis.
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Chapter 28: The Newborn at Risk: Acquired and Congenital Problems
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis would characteristically exhibit: A)Edema.
B)Immature red blood cells.
C)Enlargement of the heart.
D)Ascites.
Q2) With regard to the classification of neonatal bacterial infection,nurses should be aware that:
A)Congenital infection progresses slower than nosocomial infection.
B)Nosocomial infection can be prevented by effective handwashing;early-onset infections cannot.
C)Infections occur with about the same frequency in boy and girl infants,although female mortality is higher.
D)The clinical sign of a rapid,high fever makes infection easier to diagnose.
Q3) When attempting to diagnose and treat developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH),the nurse should:
A)Be able to perform the Ortolani and Barlow tests.
B)Teach double or triple diapering for added support.
C)Explain to the parents the need for serial casting.
D)Carefully monitor infants for DDH at follow-up visits.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Contemporary Pediatric Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) EBP,__________________ _____________ _______________,is the collection,interpretation and integration of valid,important and applicable patient-reported,nurse-observed and research-derived information.
Q2) The nursing process is a method of problem identification and problem solving that describes what the nurse actually does. The five steps include (choose all that apply):
A)Assessment.
B)Diagnosis.
C)Planning.
D)Identification.
E)Implementation.
F) Evaluation
Q3) Which of the following is descriptive of deaths caused by unintentional injuries?
A)More deaths occur in males.
B)More deaths occur in females.
C)Pattern of deaths varies widely in Western societies.
D)Pattern of deaths does not vary according to age and sex.
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Chapter 30: Community-Based Nursing Care of the Child and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) A local community has recently experienced severe flooding with loss of homes and injuries. Counseling has been provided to assist families in coping with the sequelae of this natural disaster. This is an example of primary prevention.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A number of children in the same neighborhood have developed illness related to an exposure to lead paint. Which of the three factors that form the epidemiologic triangle is responsible for this condition?
A)Agent
B)Host factor
C)Environmental factor
D)Lifestyle factor
Q3) Demography is the study of population characteristics. Which demographic characteristic would be associated with an increased risk for hemophilia?
A)Age
B)Race and ethnicity
C)Gender
D)Socioeconomic status
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Chapter 31: Family Influences on Child Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which family theory explains how families react to stressful events and suggests factors that promote adaptation to these events?
A)Family systems theory
B)Developmental theory
C)Family stress theory
D)Family assessment
Q2) A mother brings 6-month-old Eric to the clinic for a well-baby checkup. She comments,"I want to go back to work,but I don't want Eric to suffer because I'll have less time with him." The nurse's most appropriate answer is:
A)"I'm sure he'll be fine if you get a good babysitter."
B)"You will need to stay home until Eric starts school."
C)"You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others."
D)"Let's talk about the child-care options that will be best for Eric."
Q3) What is most characteristic of the physical punishment of children,such as spanking?
A)Psychologic impact is usually minimal.
B)Children rarely become accustomed to spanking.
C)Children's development of reasoning increases.
D)Misbehavior is likely to occur when parents are not present.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Social,cultural and Religious Influences on
Child Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research is being done on the development of assets in children. A community that is supportive of children has which external assets? Choose all that apply.
A)Unstructured environments to allow for freedom of choice
B)Social competencies to make positive choices
C)Empowerment to feel safe and secure
D)Positive values to direct choice
E)Boundaries to set expectations and actions
Q2) Health beliefs vary among the cultural groups living in the United States. The belief that health is "a state of harmony with nature and the universe" is common in which culture?
A)Japanese
B)African-American
C)Native American
D)Hispanic American
Q3) Poverty has serious implications for children and families. Social and cultural deprivation,including limited employment opportunities,inferior educational opportunities,inferior or no access to health care,and a lack of public services,is referred to as the __________________ type of poverty.
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Chapter 33: Developmental Influences on Child Health
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Q1) What should the elementary school nurse consider when discussing television and movie viewing with parents?
A)Children usually ignore advertisements on television.
B)Alcohol and tobacco use can be encouraged by television and movies.
C)Children become more physically active when watching television and movies.
D)No evidence exists that television and movies affect aggressive behavior.
Q2) What is characteristic of the preoperational stage of cognitive development?
A)Thinking is logical.
B)Thinking is concrete.
C)Reasoning is inductive.
D)Generalizations can be made.
Q3) Trauma to which site can result in a growth problem for children's long bones?
A)Matrix
B)Connective tissue
C)Calcified cartilage
D)Epiphyseal cartilage plate
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Chapter 34: Communication, history, physical and Developmental Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is having difficulty communicating with a hospitalized 6-year-old child. What technique might be most helpful?
A)Suggest that the child keep a diary.
B)Suggest that the parent read fairy tales to the child.
C)Ask the parent if the child is always uncommunicative.
D)Ask the child to draw a picture.
Q2) Which parameter correlates best with measurements of the body's total protein stores?
A)Height
B)Weight
C)Skin-fold thickness
D)Upper arm circumference
Q3) What heart sound is produced by vibrations within the heart chambers or in the major arteries from the back-and-forth flow of blood?
A)S<sub>1</sub>,S<sub>2</sub>
B)S<sub>3</sub>,S<sub>4</sub>
C)Murmur
D)Physiologic splitting
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Chapter 35: Pain Assessment and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonpharmacologic strategies for pain management:
A)May reduce pain perception.
B)Make pharmacologic strategies unnecessary.
C)Usually take too long to implement.
D)Trick children into believing they do not have pain.
Q2) Skin-to-skin holding of infants dressed only in diapers next to their mother's or father's chest is commonly known as _________________ care.
Q3) Kyle,age 6 months,is brought to the clinic. His parent says,"I think he hurts. He cries and rolls his head from side to side a lot." This most likely suggests which feature of pain?
A)Type
B)Severity
C)Duration
D)Location
Q4) Physiologic measurements in children's pain assessment are:
A)The best indicator of pain in children of all ages.
B)Essential to determine whether a child is telling the truth about pain.
C)Of most value when children also report having pain.
D)Of limited value as sole indicator of pain.
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Chapter 36: The Infant and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate play activity for a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation is:
A)Playing peek-a-boo.
B)Playing pat-a-cake.
C)Imitating animal sounds.
D)Showing how to clap hands.
Q2) The best play activity for a 6-month-old infant to provide tactile stimulation is to:
A)Allow to splash in bath.
B)Give various colored blocks.
C)Play music box,tapes,or CDs.
D)Use infant swing or stroller.
Q3) A mother tells the nurse that she is discontinuing breastfeeding her 5-month-old infant. The nurse should recommend that the infant be given:
A)Skim milk.
B)Whole cow's milk.
C)Commercial iron-fortified formula.
D)Commercial formula without iron.
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Chapter 37: The Toddler and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate recommendation in preventing tooth decay in young children is to:
A)Substitute raisins for candy.
B)Serve sweets after a meal.
C)Use honey or molasses instead of refined sugar.
D)Serve sweets between meals.
Q2) The leading cause of death during the toddler period is:
A)Injuries.
B)Infectious diseases.
C)Congenital disorders.
D)Childhood diseases.
Q3) The parents of a newborn say that their toddler "hates the baby . . . he suggested that we put him in the trash can so the trash truck could take him away." The nurse's best reply is:
A)"Let's see if we can figure out why he hates the new baby."
B)"That's a strong statement to come from such a small boy."
C)"Let's refer him to counseling to work this hatred out. It's not a normal response."
D)"That is a normal response to the birth of a sibling. Let's look at ways to deal with this."
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Chapter 38: The Preschooler and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a hospitalized 4-year-old boy,Ryan. His parents tell the nurse that they will be back to visit at 6 PM. When Ryan asks the nurse when his parents are coming,the nurse's best response is:
A)"They will be here soon."
B)"They will come after dinner."
C)"Let me show you on the clock when 6 PM is."
D)"I will tell you every time I see you how much longer it will be."
Q2) What would the nurse expect of a healthy 3-year-old child?
A)Jump rope
B)Ride a two-wheel bicycle
C)Skip on alternate feet
D)Balance on one foot for a few seconds
Q3) During the preschool period the emphasis of injury prevention should be placed on:
A)Constant vigilance and protection.
B)Punishment for unsafe behaviors.
C)Education for safety and potential hazards.
D)Limitation of physical activities.
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Chapter 39: The School-Age Child and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assisting the family of a child with a history of encopresis. What should be included in the nurse's discussion with this family?
A)Instruct the parents to sit the child on the toilet at twice-daily routine intervals.
B)Instruct the parents that the child will probably need to have daily enemas.
C)Suggest the use of stimulant cathartics weekly.
D)Reassure the family that most problems are resolved successfully,with some relapses during periods of stress.
Q2) Which statement best describes fear in school-age children?
A)They are increasingly fearful for body safety.
B)Most of the new fears that trouble them are related to school and family.
C)They should be encouraged to hide their fears to prevent ridicule by peers.
D)Those who have numerous fears need continuous protective behavior by parents to eliminate these fears.
Q3) Generally the earliest age at which puberty begins is:
A)13 years in girls,13 years in boys
B)11 years in girls,11 years in boys
C)10 years in girls;12 years in boys
D)12 years in girls,10 years in boys
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Chapter 40: The Adolescent and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research has shown that the most successful smoking cessation programs among teens include (choose all that apply):
A)Peer-led education and support.
B)Information on the long-term effects of smoking.
C)Programs including the media.
D)School-based programs.
E)Information on the immediate effects of smoking.
Q2) The mean age of menarche in the United States is:
A)11.5 years
B)12.75 years
C)13.5 years
D)14 years
Q3) Matt,age 14 years,seems to be always eating,although his weight is appropriate for his height. The best explanation for this is:
A)This is normal because of increase in body mass.
B)This is abnormal and suggestive of future obesity.
C)His caloric intake would have to be excessive.
D)He is substituting food for unfilled needs.
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Chapter 41: Chronic Illness, Disability and End of Life Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing support to parents at the time their child is diagnosed with chronic disabilities. The nurse notices that the parents keep asking the same questions. The nurse should:
A)Patiently continue to answer questions.
B)Kindly refer them to someone else to answer their questions.
C)Recognize that some parents cannot understand explanations.
D)Suggest that they ask their questions when they are not upset.
Q2) Kelly,age 8 years,will soon be able to return to school after an injury that resulted in several severe,chronic disabilities. What is the most appropriate action by the school nurse?
A)Recommending that Kelly's parents attend school at first to prevent teasing
B)Preparing Kelly's classmates and teachers for changes they can expect
C)Referring Kelly to a school where the children have chronic disabilities similar to hers.
D)Discussing with Kelly and her parents the fact that her classmates will not accept her as they did before
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43
Chapter 42: Impact of Cognitive or Sensory Impairment on the Child and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fragile X syndrome is:
A)A chromosome defect affecting only females.
B)A chromosome defect that follows the pattern of X-linked recessive disorders.
C)The second most common genetic cause of cognitive impairment.
D)The most common cause of noninherited cognitive impairment.
Q2) Prevention of hearing impairment in children is a major goal for the nurse. This can be achieved through:
A)Being involved in immunization clinics for children.
B)Assessing a newborn for hearing loss.
C)Answering parents' questions about hearing aids.
D)Participating in hearing screening in the community.
Q3) Hearing is expressed in decibels,or units of loudness. In decibels the softest sound a normal ear can hear is:
A)0.
B)10.
C)40 to 50.
D)100.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Family-Centered Home Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Home care is being considered for a young child who is ventilator dependent. Which factor is most important in deciding whether home care is appropriate?
A)Level of parents' education
B)Presence of two parents in the home
C)Preparation and training of family
D)Family's ability to assume all health care costs
Q2) The home health nurse is caring for a child who requires complex care. The family expresses frustration related to obtaining accurate information about their child's illness and its management. The best action for the nurse is to:
A)Determine why the family is easily frustrated.
B)Refer the family to the child's primary care practitioner.
C)Clarify the family's request and provide information they want.
D)Answer only questions that are essential to the family knowledge base.
Q3) When communicating with other professionals,it is important for home care nurses to:
A)Ask others what they want to know.
B)Share everything known about the family.
C)Restrict communication to clinically relevant information.
D)Recognize that confidentiality is not possible.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Reaction to Illness and Hospitalization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kimberly,age 3 years,is being admitted for about 1 week of hospitalization. Her parents tell the nurse that they are going to buy her "a lot of new toys because she will be in the hospital." The nurse's reply should be based on an understanding that:
A)New toys make hospitalization easier.
B)New toys are usually better than older ones for children of this age.
C)At this age children often need the comfort and reassurance of familiar toys from home.
D)Buying new toys for a hospitalized child is a maladaptive way to cope with parental guilt.
Q2) Amy,age 6 years,needs to be hospitalized again because of a chronic illness. The clinic nurse overhears her school-age siblings tell her,"We are sick of Mom always sitting with you in the hospital and playing with you. It isn't fair that you get everything and we have to stay with the neighbors." The nurse's best assessment of this situation is that:
A)The siblings are immature and probably spoiled.
B)Jealousy and resentment are common reactions to the illness or hospitalization of a sibling.
C)The family has ineffective coping mechanisms to deal with chronic illness.
D)The siblings need to better understand their sister's illness and needs.
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Chapter 45: Pediatric Variations of Nursing Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate intervention to encourage food and fluid intake in a hospitalized child is to:
A)Force child to eat and drink to combat caloric losses.
B)Discourage participation in noneating activities until caloric intake is sufficient.
C)Administer large quantities of flavored fluids at frequent intervals and during meals.
D)Give high-quality foods and snacks whenever child expresses hunger.
Q2) Tepid water or sponge baths are indicated for hyperthermia in children. The nurse should:
A)Add isopropyl alcohol to the water.
B)Direct a fan on the child in the bath.
C)Stop the bath if the child begins to chill.
D)Continue the bath for 5 minutes.
Q3) An important nursing consideration when performing a bladder catheterization on a young boy is to:
A)Use clean technique,not Standard Precautions.
B)Insert 2% lidocaine lubricant into the urethra.
C)Lubricate catheter with water-soluble lubricant such as K-Y Jelly.
D)Delay catheterization for 20 minutes while anesthetic lubricant is absorbed.
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Chapter 46: Respiratory Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug is considered the most useful in treating cardiac arrest?
A)Bretylium
B)Lidocaine hydrochloride
C)Epinephrine hydrochloride
D)Naloxone (Narcan)
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child with carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning associated with smoke inhalation. What is essential in this child's care?
A)Monitor pulse oximetry.
B)Monitor arterial blood gases.
C)Administer oxygen if respiratory distress develops.
D)Administer oxygen if child's lips become bright,cherry red.
Q3) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is begun on a toddler. Which pulse is usually palpated because it is the most central and accessible?
A)Radial
B)Carotid
C)Femoral
D)Brachial
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Chapter 47: Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
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Q1) What is characterized by a chronic inflammatory process that may involve any part of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract from mouth to anus?
A)Crohn's disease
B)Ulcerative colitis
C)Meckel's diverticulum
D)Irritable bowel syndrome
Q2) An important nursing consideration in the care of a child with celiac disease is to:
A)Refer to a nutritionist for detailed dietary instructions and education.
B)Help the child and family understand that diet restrictions are usually only temporary.
C)Teach proper handwashing and Standard Precautions to prevent disease transmission.
D)Suggest ways to cope more effectively with stress to minimize symptoms.
Q3) Therapeutic management of most children with Hirschsprung's disease is primarily:
A)Daily enemas.
B)Low-fiber diet.
C)Permanent colostomy.
D)Surgical removal of affected section of bowel.
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Chapter 48: Cardiovascular Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing interventions for the child after a cardiac catheterization include (choose all that apply):
A)Allow ambulation as tolerated.
B)Monitor vital signs every 2 hours.
C)Assess the affected extremity for temperature and color.
D)Check pulses above the catheterization site for equality and symmetry.
E)Remove pressure dressing after 4 hours.
F)Maintain a patent peripheral intravenous catheter until discharge.
Q2) A child is brought to the emergency department experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting. While an airway is being established,what medication should the nurse prepare for immediate administration?
A)Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
B)Dopamine
C)Epinephrine
D)Calcium chloride
Q3) The most common causative agent of bacterial endocarditis is:
A)Staphylococcus albus.
B)Streptococcus hemolyticus.
C)Staphylococcus albicans.
D)Streptococcus viridans.
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Chapter 49: Hematologic and Immunologic Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What explains why iron deficiency anemia is common during toddlerhood?
A)Milk is a poor source of iron.
B)Iron cannot be stored during fetal development.
C)Fetal iron stores are depleted by age 1 month.
D)Dietary iron cannot be started until age 12 months.
Q2) The nurse is recommending how to prevent iron deficiency anemia in a healthy,term,breastfed infant. What should he or she suggest?
A)Iron (ferrous sulfate) drops after age 1 month.
B)Iron-fortified commercial formula can be used by ages 4 to 6 months.
C)Iron-fortified infant cereal can be used by age 2 months.
D)Iron-fortified infant cereal can be used at approximately 6 months of age.
Q3) What describes the pathologic changes of sickle cell anemia?
A)Sickle-shaped cells carry excess oxygen.
B)Sickle-shaped cells decrease blood viscosity.
C)Increased red blood cell destruction occurs.
D)Decreased red blood cell destruction occurs.
Q4) Nose bleeding,also known as __________________,is common in childhood. The bleeding ordinarily stops spontaneously or with minimal pressure.
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Chapter 50: Genitourinary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) An objective of care for the child with nephrosis is to:
A)Reduce blood pressure.
B)Reduce excretion of urinary protein.
C)Increase excretion of urinary protein.
D)Increase ability of tissues to retain fluid.
Q2) The primary clinical manifestations of acute renal failure are:
A)Oliguria and hypertension.
B)Hematuria and pallor.
C)Proteinuria and muscle cramps.
D)Bacteriuria and facial edema.
Q3) A major complication in a child with chronic renal failure is:
A)Hypokalemia.
B)Metabolic alkalosis.
C)Water and sodium retention.
D)Excessive excretion of blood urea nitrogen.
Q4) The most common cause of acute renal failure in children is:
A)Pyelonephritis.
B)Tubular destruction.
C)Urinary tract obstruction.
D)Severe dehydration.
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Chapter 51: Cerebral Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old child is hospitalized after a near-drowning accident. The child's mother complains to the nurse,"This seems unnecessary when he is perfectly fine." The nurse's best reply is:
A)"He still needs a little extra oxygen."
B)"I'm sure he is fine,but the doctor wants to make sure."
C)"The reason for this is that complications could still occur."
D)"It is important to observe for possible central nervous system problems."
Q2) What may be beneficial in reducing the risk of Reye's syndrome?
A)Immunization against the disease
B)Medical attention for all head injuries
C)Prompt treatment of bacterial meningitis
D)Avoidance of aspirin and ibuprofen for children with varicella or those suspected of having influenza
Q3) Which test is never performed on a child who is awake?
A)Oculovestibular response
B)Doll's head maneuver
C)Funduscopic examination for papilledema
D)Assessment of pyramidal tract lesions
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Chapter 52: Endocrine Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neonate born with ambiguous genitalia is diagnosed with congenital adrenogenital hyperplasia. Therapeutic management includes administration of:
A)Vitamin D.
B)Cortisone.
C)Stool softeners.
D)Calcium carbonate.
Q2) The nurse is discussing with a child and family the various sites used for insulin injections. Which site usually has the fastest rate of absorption?
A)Arm
B)Leg
C)Buttock
D)Abdomen
Q3) Diabetes insipidus is a disorder of the:
A)Anterior pituitary.
B)Posterior pituitary.
C)Adrenal cortex.
D)Adrenal medulla.
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54
Chapter 53: Integumentary Dysfunction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38171
Sample Questions
Q1) Fentanyl and midazolam (Versed) are given before debridement of a child's burn wounds. These drugs are important to:
A)Promote healing.
B)Prevent infection.
C)Provide pain relief.
D)Limit amount of debridement that will be necessary.
Q2) A mother calls the emergency department nurse because her child was stung by a scorpion. The nurse should recommend:
A)Administering antihistamine.
B)Cleansing with soap and water.
C)Keeping the child quiet and coming to emergency department.
D)Removing the stinger and applying cool compresses.
Q3) What explains physiologically the edema formation that occurs with burns?
A)Vasoconstriction
B)Decreased capillary permeability
C)Increased capillary permeability
D)Decreased hydrostatic pressure within capillaries
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Chapter 54: Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38172
Sample Questions
Q1) A child is upset because,when the cast is removed from her leg,the skin surface is caked with desquamated skin and sebaceous secretions. What should the nurse suggest to remove this material?
A)Soak in a bathtub
B)Vigorously scrub the leg
C)Apply powder to absorb material
D)Carefully pick material off of the leg
Q2) Osteosarcoma is the most common bone cancer in children. Where are most of the primary tumor sites?
A)Femur.
B)Humerus.
C)Pelvis.
D)Tibia.
Q3) What effect does immobilization have on metabolism?
A)Hypocalcemia
B)Decreased metabolic rate
C)Positive nitrogen balance
D)Increased production of stress hormones
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Chapter 55: Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38173
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common problem of children born with a myelomeningocele is:
A)Neurogenic bladder.
B)Cognitive impairment.
C)Respiratory compromise.
D)Cranioschisis.
Q2) A recommendation to prevent neural tube defects is the supplementation of:
A)Vitamin A throughout pregnancy.
B)Multivitamin preparations as soon as pregnancy is suspected.
C)Folic acid for all women of childbearing age.
D)Folic acid during the first and second trimesters of pregnancy.
Q3) Which problem is most often associated with myelomeningocele?
A)Hydrocephalus
B)Craniosynostosis
C)Biliary atresia
D)Esophageal atresia
Q4) How much folic acid is recommended for women of childbearing age?
A)0.1 mg
B)0.4 mg
C)1.5 mg
D)2 mg
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