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Family and Child Nursing focuses on the holistic care of children and their families within diverse sociocultural contexts. The course covers growth and development from infancy through adolescence, common pediatric health issues, and the promotion of health and wellness in children. Emphasis is placed on family-centered care, principles of communication, and strategies for supporting families through health challenges. Students will learn to apply the nursing process in pediatric care and address psychosocial, environmental, and behavioral factors affecting child and family health, preparing them to deliver compassionate, evidence-based nursing interventions in various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook Wongs Nursing Care of Infants and Children 10th Edition by Hockenberry
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35 Chapters
1814 Verified Questions
1814 Flashcards
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41 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the leading cause of death in infants younger than 1 year in the United States?
A) Congenital anomalies
B) Sudden infant death syndrome
C) Disorders related to short gestation and low birth weight
D) Maternal complications specific to the perinatal period
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse is determining if a newborn is classified in the low birth weight (LBW) category of less than 2500 g. The newborn's weight is 5 lb, 4 oz. What is the newborn's weight in grams? Record your answer in a whole number.
Answer: 2386
Convert the 4 oz to a decimal by dividing 4 by 16 = 0.25. Use 5.25 lb and divide by 2.2 to get 2.386 kg. Multiply by 1000 to convert to grams = 2386.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When discussing discipline with the mother of a 4-year-old child, which should the nurse include?
A) Parental control should be consistent.
B) Withdrawal of love and approval is effective at this age.
C) Children as young as 4 years rarely need to be disciplined.
D) One should expect rules to be followed rigidly and unquestioningly.
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse is caring for an adolescent hospitalized for asthma. The adolescent belongs to a large family. The nurse recognizes that the adolescent is likely to relate to which group?
A) Peers
B) Parents
C) Siblings
D) Teachers
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which genetic term refers to the transfer of all or part of a chromosome to a different chromosome after chromosome breakage?
A) Trisomy
B) Monosomy
C) Translocation
D) Nondisjunction
Answer: C
Q2) Which is a sex chromosome abnormality that is caused by the presence of one or more additional X chromosomes in a male?
A) Turner
B) Triple X
C) Klinefelter
D) Trisomy 13
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action should the nurse implement when taking an axillary temperature?
A) Take the temperature through one layer of clothing.
B) Add a degree to the result when recording the temperature.
C) Place the tip of the thermometer under the arm in the center of the axilla.
D) Hold the child's arm away from the body while taking the temperature.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to perform a physical assessment on a 10-year-old girl. The nurse gives her the option of her mother staying in the room or leaving. This action should be considered which?
A) Appropriate because of child's age
B) Appropriate, but the mother may be uncomfortable
C) Inappropriate because of child's age
D) Inappropriate because child is same sex as mother
Q3) The nurse is assessing a child's capillary refill time. This can be accomplished by doing what?
A) Inspect the chest.
B) Auscultate the heart.
C) Palpate the apical pulse.
D) Palpate the nail bed with pressure to produce a slight blanching.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child receiving morphine sulfate (Morphine) is experiencing respiratory depression. A health care provider prescribes naloxone (Narcan), 0.5 mcg/kg IV in 2-minute increments until breathing improves. The medication label states: "Naloxone 400 mcg/1 mL." The child weighs 40 kg. The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using two decimal places.
Q2) Manipulative treatment
A)Vitamins
B)Massage
C)Reiki
D)Hypnosis
E)Homeopathy
Q3) Which is a complication that can occur after abdominal surgery if pain is not managed?
A) Atelectasis
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Decrease in heart rate
D) Increase in cardiac output
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Q1) A state in which immune bodies are actively formed against specific antigens, either naturally by having had the disease or artificially
A)Natural immunity
B)Acquired immunity
C)Active immunity
D)Passive immunity
E)Herd immunity
Q2) The nurse is preparing to admit a 1-year-old child with pertussis (whooping cough). Which clinical manifestations of pertussis should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)
A) Earache
B) Coryza
C) Conjunctivitis
D) Low-grade fever
E) Dry hacking cough
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Q1) The nurse is assessing the reflexes of a newborn. Stroking the outer sole of the foot assesses which reflex?
A) Grasp
B) Perez
C) Babinski
D) Dance or step
Q2) What is the grayish white, cheeselike substance that covers the newborn's skin?
A) Milia
B) Meconium
C) Amniotic fluid
D) Vernix caseosa
Q3) Which is the name of the suture separating the parietal bones at the top of a newborn's head?
A) Frontal
B) Sagittal
C) Coronal
D) Occipital
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Q1) A pregnant client asks the nurse to explain the meaning of "cephalopelvic disproportion." Which explanation should the nurse give to the client?
A) "It means a large for gestational age fetus."
B) "It is the narrow opening between the ischial spines."
C) "There is an uneven size between the fetus' presenting part and the pelvis."
D) "The shape of the pelvis is an android shape and is unfavorable for vaginal delivery."
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child after a cleft palate repair who is on a clear liquid diet. Which feeding device should the nurse use to deliver the clear liquid diet?
A) Straw
B) Spoon
C) Sippy cup
D) Open cup
Q3) What is an infant with severe jaundice at risk for developing?
A) Encephalopathy
B) Bullous impetigo
C) Respiratory distress
D) Blood incompatibility
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a gavage feeding to an infant. The nurse should place the infant in which position for the feeding?
A) Supine with the head flat
B) Sitting upright in a car seat
C) Left side-lying with the head flat
D) Prone with the head slightly elevated
Q2) The nurse is caring for a high-risk neonate who has an umbilical catheter and is in a radiant warmer. The nurse notes blanching of the feet. Which is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Place socks on the infant's feet.
B) Elevate the infant's feet 15 degrees.
C) Wrap the infant's feet loosely in a prewarmed blanket.
D) Report the findings immediately to the practitioner.
Q3) A preterm infant with respiratory distress syndrome is receiving inhaled nitric oxide (NO). What is the reason for administering the inhaled nitric oxide?
A) To mature the lungs
B) To deliver a level of oxygen that is safe
C) To increase the removal of pulmonary debris such as meconium
D) To reduce pulmonary vasoconstriction and pulmonary hypertension
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Q1) What is the best age to introduce solid food into an infant's diet?
A) 2 to 3 months
B) 4 to 6 months
C) When birth weight has tripled
D) When tooth eruption has started
Q2) Turning the hips and shoulders to one side causes all the other body parts to follow.
A)Labyrinth righting
B)Body righting
C)Otolith righting
D)Landau
E)Parachute
Q3) The parent of 2-week-old infant asks the nurse if fluoride supplements are necessary because the infant is exclusively breastfed. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "The infant needs to begin taking them now."
B) "Supplements are not needed if you drink fluoridated water."
C) "The infant may need to begin taking them at age 6 months."
D) "The infant can have infant cereal mixed with fluoridated water instead of supplements."
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Q1) The nurse is teaching parents guidelines for feeding their 8-month-old infant with failure to thrive (FTT). Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "We will continue to use the 24-kcal/oz formula."
B) "We will be sure to follow the formula preparation instructions."
C) "We will be sure to give our infant at least 8 oz of juice every day."
D) "We will be sure to feed our infant according to the written schedule."
Q2) Which one of the following strategies might be recommended for an infant with failure to thrive (FTT) to increase caloric intake?
A) Vary the schedule for routine activities on a daily basis.
B) Be persistent through 10 to 15 minutes of food refusal.
C) Avoid solids until after the bottle is well accepted.
D) Use developmental stimulation by a specialist during feedings.
Q3) After the introduction of the Back to Sleep campaign in 1992, an increased incidence has been noted of which pediatric issues?
A) Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
B) Plagiocephaly
C) Failure to thrive
D) Apnea of infancy
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Q1) Eliminate all foods of animal origin, including milk and eggs, allowing only a few types of fruits, vegetables, and legumes
A)Lacto-ovo vegetarians
B)Lactovegetarians
C)Pure vegetarians (vegans)
D)Macrobiotics
E)Semi-vegetarians
Q2) Parents tell the nurse that their toddler eats little at mealtime, only sits at the table with the family briefly, and wants snacks "all the time." What should the nurse recommend?
A) Give her nutritious snacks.
B) Offer rewards for eating at mealtimes.
C) Avoid snacks so she is hungry at mealtimes.
D) Explain to her in a firm manner what is expected of her.
Q3) Exclude meat from their diet but consume dairy products and rarely fish
A)Lacto-ovo vegetarians
B)Lactovegetarians
C)Pure vegetarians (vegans)
D)Macrobiotics
E)Semi-vegetarians
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 4-year-old child tells the nurse that she doesn't want another blood sample drawn because "I need all of my insides and I don't want anyone taking them out." What is the nurse's best interpretation of this?
A) The child is being overly dramatic.
B) The child has a disturbed body image.
C) Preschoolers have poorly defined body boundaries.
D) Preschoolers normally have a good understanding of their bodies.
Q2) The nurse is talking to the parent of a 5-year-old child who refuses to go to sleep at night. What intervention should the nurse suggest in helping the parent to cope with this sleep disturbance?
A) Establish a consistent punishment if the child does not go to bed when told.
B) Allow the child to fall asleep in a different room and then gently move the child to his or her bed.
C) Establish limited rituals that signal readiness for bedtime.
D) Allow the child to watch television until almost asleep.
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Q1) The nurse suspects that a child has ingested some type of poison. What clinical manifestation would be most suggestive that the poison was a corrosive product?
A) Tinnitus
B) Disorientation
C) Stupor, lethargy, and coma
D) Edema of the lips, tongue, and pharynx
Q2) A child with cyanide poisoning has been admitted to the emergency department. What antidote does the nurse anticipate being prescribed for the child?
A) Atropine
B) Glucagon
C) Amyl nitrate
D) Naloxone (Narcan)
Q3) A child with diazepam (Valium) poisoning has been admitted to the emergency department. What antidote does the nurse anticipate being prescribed?
A) Succimer (Chemet)
B) EDTA (Versenate)
C) Flumazenil (Romazicon)
D) Octreotide acetate (Sandostatin)
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Q1) The nurse is teaching a class on nutrition to a group of parents of 10- and 11-year-old children. What statement by one of the parents indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
A) "My child does not need to eat a variety of foods, just his favorite food groups."
B) "My child can add salt and sugar to foods to make them taste better."
C) "I will serve foods that are low in saturated fat and cholesterol."
D) "I will continue to serve red meat three times per week for extra iron."
Q2) An 8-year-old girl tells the nurse that she has cancer because God is punishing her for "being bad." What should the nurse interpret this as?
A) A common belief at this age
B) Indicative of excessive family pressure
C) Faith that forms the basis for most religions
D) Suggestive of a failure to develop a conscience
Q3) What is the role of the peer group in the life of school-age children?
A) Decreases their need to learn appropriate sex roles
B) Gives them an opportunity to learn dominance and hostility
C) Allows them to remain dependent on their parents for a longer time
D) Provides them with security as they gain independence from their parents
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Q1) Absence of sensation
A)Pruritus
B)Anesthesia
C)Hyperesthesia
D)Hypesthesia
E)Paresthesia
Q2) The school nurse is reviewing the process of wound healing. What is the initial response at the site of injury?
A) Contraction
B) Maturation
C) Fibroplasia
D) Inflammation
Q3) Wound with a relatively small opening compared with the depth
A)Abrasion
B)Avulsion
C)Laceration
D)Incision
E)Puncture
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Q1) What is an important consideration for the school nurse planning a class on injury prevention for adolescents?
A) Adolescents generally are not risk takers.
B) Adolescents can anticipate the long-term consequences of serious injuries.
C) Adolescents need to discharge energy, often at the expense of logical thinking.
D) During adolescence, participation in sports should be limited to prevent permanent injuries.
Q2) The nurse is explaining to an adolescent the rationale for administering a Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria, acellular pertussis) vaccine 3 years after the last Td (tetanus) booster. What should the nurse tell the adolescent?
A) "It is time for a booster vaccine."
B) "It is past the time for a booster vaccine."
C) "This vaccine will provide pertussis immunity."
D) "This vaccine will be the last booster you will need."
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Q1) An adolescent girl asks the school nurse for advice because she has dysmenorrhea. She says that a friend recommended she try an over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). The nurse's response should be based on what?
A) Hormone therapy is necessary for the treatment of dysmenorrhea.
B) Acetaminophen is the drug of choice for the treatment of dysmenorrhea.
C) Over-the-counter NSAIDs are rarely strong enough to provide adequate pain relief.
D) NSAIDs are effective because they inhibit prostaglandins, leading to reduction in uterine activity.
Q2) An adolescent girl is brought to the hospital emergency department by her parents after being raped. The girl is calm and controlled throughout the interview and examination. The nurse should recognize this behavior is what?
A) A sign that a rape has not actually occurred
B) One of a variety of behaviors normally seen in rape victims
C) Indicative of a higher than usual level of maturity in the adolescent
D) Suggestive that the adolescent had severe emotional problems before the rape occurred
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Q1) The nurse has been assigned as a home health nurse for a child who is technology dependent. The nurse recognizes that the family's background differs widely from the nurse's own. The nurse believes some of their lifestyle choices are less than ideal. What nursing intervention is most appropriate to institute?
A) Change the family.
B) Respect the differences.
C) Assess why the family is different.
D) Determine whether the family is dysfunctional.
Q2) What should the nurse determine to be the priority intervention for a family with an infant who has a disability?
A) Focus on the child's disabilities to understand care needs.
B) Institute age-appropriate discipline and limit setting.
C) Enforce visiting hours to allow parents to have respite care.
D) Foster feelings of competency by helping parents learn the special care needs of the infant.
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Q1) What nursing intervention is most appropriate when providing comfort and support for a child when death is imminent?
A) Limit care to essentials.
B) Avoid playing music near the child.
C) Whisper to the child instead of using a normal voice.
D) Explain to the child the need for constant measurement of vital signs.
Q2) How might the quality of life for a terminally ill child and his family be enhanced by nurses?
A) Tell the family what is best.
B) Leave the family alone to deal with their tragedy.
C) Remain objective and uninvolved with family grieving.
D) Advocate for and implement pain and symptom relief measures.
Q3) What characterizes a toddler's concept of death? (Select all that apply.)
A) They are unable to comprehend an absence of life.
B) They may recognize the fact of physical death.
C) They understand the universality and inevitability of death.
D) The are affected more by the change in lifestyle than the concept of death.
E) They can only think about events in terms of their own frame of reference-living.
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Q1) What is a primary goal in caring for a child with cognitive impairment?
A) Developing vocational skills
B) Promoting optimum development
C) Finding appropriate out-of-home care
D) Helping child and family adjust to future care
Q2) Unequal curvatures in refractive apparatus
A)Myopia
B)Hyperopia
C)Astigmatism
D)Anisometropia
E)Amblyopia
Q3) A 2-week-old infant with Down syndrome is being seen in the clinic. His mother tells the nurse that he is difficult to hold, that "he's like a rag doll. He doesn't cuddle up to me like my other babies did." What is the nurse's best interpretation of this lack of clinging or molding?
A) Sign of detachment and rejection
B) Indicative of maternal deprivation
C) A physical characteristic of Down syndrome
D) Suggestive of autism associated with Down syndrome
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Q1) A 6-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit and requires bed rest. Having art supplies available meets which purpose?
A) Allows the child to create gifts for parents
B) Provides developmentally appropriate activities
C) Is essential for play therapy so the child can work on past problems
D) Lets the child express thoughts and feelings through pictures rather than words
Q2) The parents of a 3-year-old admitted for recurrent diarrhea are upset that the practitioner has not told them what is going on with their child. What is the priority intervention for this family?
A) Answer all of the parents' questions about the child's illness.
B) Immediately page the practitioner to come to the unit to speak with the family.
C) Help the family develop a written list of specific questions to ask the practitioner.
D) Inform the family of the time that hospital rounds are made so that they can be present.
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Q1) A 10-year-old child requires daily medications for a chronic illness. Her mother tells the nurse that the child continually forgets to take the medicine unless reminded. What nursing action is most appropriate to promote adherence to the medication regimen?
A) Establish a contract with her, including rewards.
B) Suggest time-outs when she forgets her medicine.
C) Discuss with her mother the damaging effects of her rescuing the child.
D) Ask the child to bring her medicine containers to each appointment so they can be counted.
Q2) A child who has cystic fibrosis is admitted to the pediatric unit with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. The nurse recognizes that in addition to a private room, the child is placed on what precautions?
A) Droplet
B) Contact
C) Airborne
D) Standard
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Q1) What substance is released from the posterior pituitary gland and promotes water retention in the renal system?
A) Renin
B) Aldosterone
C) Angiotensin
D) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Q2) What type of shock is characterized by a hypersensitivity reaction causing massive vasodilation and capillary leaks, which may occur with drug or latex allergy?
A) Neurogenic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Hypovolemic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
Q3) What organism is a parasite that causes acute diarrhea?
A) Shigella organisms
B) Salmonella organisms
C) Giardia lamblia
D) Escherichia coli
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Q1) The nurse is teaching a child experiencing severe edema associated with minimal change nephrotic syndrome about his diet. The nurse should discuss what dietary need?
A) Consuming a regular diet
B) Increasing protein
C) Restricting fluids
D) Decreasing calories
Q2) Calculate the 24-hour maintenance fluid requirement for a child weighing 25 kg. Fill in the blank with ml/day. Record your answer in a whole number.
Q3) What measure of fluid balance status is most useful in a child with acute glomerulonephritis?
A) Proteinuria
B) Daily weight
C) Specific gravity
D) Intake and output
Q4) Calculate the 24-hour maintenance fluid requirement for a child weighing 12 kg. Fill in the blank with ml/day. Record your answer in a whole number.
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with hepatitis B. What clinical features of hepatitis B should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.)
A) The onset is rapid.
B) Rash is common.
C) Jaundice is present
D) No carrier state exists.
E) The mode of transmission is principally by the parenteral route.
Q2) What term describes invagination of one segment of bowel within another?
A) Atresia
B) Stenosis
C) Herniation
D) Intussusception
Q3) What test is used to screen for carbohydrate malabsorption?
A) Stool pH
B) Urine ketones
C) C urea breath test
D) ELISA stool assay
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Q1) What respiratory condition or disease results in both increased compliance and increased resistance?
A) Asthma
B) Atelectasis
C) Surfactant deficiency
D) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
Q2) A child is in uncompensated metabolic acidosis. What should the nurse expect the arterial blood gas to be?
A) HCO<sub>3</sub>, 24; pH, 7.35
B) HCO<sub>3</sub>, 28; pH, 7.50
C) HCO<sub>3</sub>, 20; pH, 7.30
D) HCO<sub>3</sub>, 26; pH, 7.40
Q3) The continuous administration of mist, or aerosolized water, for the treatment of inflammatory conditions of the airways is a common practice that functions in which manner?
A) Has no proven benefit
B) Decreases the viscosity of mucus
C) Decreases bronchoconstriction
D) Reduces the inflammation of the lower airways
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Q1) The nurse is giving discharge instructions to the parents of a 5-year-old child who had a tonsillectomy 4 hours ago. What statement by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
A) "I can use an ice collar on my child for pain control along with analgesics."
B) "My child should clear the throat frequently to clear the secretions."
C) "I should allow my child to be as active as tolerated."
D) "My child should gargle and brush teeth at least three times per day."
Q2) The mother of a 20-month-old boy tells the nurse that he has a barking cough at night. His temperature is 37° C (98.6° F). The nurse suspects mild croup and should recommend which intervention?
A) Admit to the hospital and observe for impending epiglottitis.
B) Provide fluids that the child likes and use comfort measures.
C) Control fever with acetaminophen and call if cough gets worse tonight.
D) Try over-the-counter cough medicine and come to the clinic tomorrow if no improvement.
Q3) What condition is the leading cause of chronic illness in children?
A) Asthma
B) Pertussis
C) Tuberculosis
D) Cystic fibrosis
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Q1) The test that provides the most reliable evidence of recent streptococcal infection is which?
A) Throat culture
B) Mantoux test
C) Antistreptolysin O test
D) Elevation of liver enzymes
Q2) The nurse is giving discharge instructions to the parent of a 6-year-old child who had a cardiac catheterization 4 hours ago. What statement by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
A) "My child should not attend school for the next 5 days."
B) "I should change the bandage every day for the next 2 days."
C) "My child can take a tub bath but should avoid taking a shower for the next 4 days."
D) "I should expect the site to be red and swollen for the next 3 days."
Q3) Represents the time that the ventricles are in the absolute refractory period
A)P wave
B)QRS complex
C)T wave
D)Q-T interval
E)ST segment
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Q1) A health care provider prescribes OxyContin (Oxycodone), 7.5 mg PO every 4 to 6 hours as needed for pain for a child with sickle cell disease. The medication label states: "OxyContin 5 mg/1 ml." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using one decimal place.
Q2) In a child with sickle cell anemia (SCA), adequate hydration is essential to minimize sickling and delay the vasoocclusion and hypoxia-ischemia cycle. What information should the nurse share with parents in a teaching plan?
A) Encourage drinking.
B) Keep accurate records of output.
C) Check for moist mucous membranes.
D) Monitor the concentration of the child's urine.
Q3) What condition precipitates polycythemia?
A) Dehydration
B) Severe infections
C) Immunosuppression
D) Prolonged tissue hypoxia
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Q1) Calculate the absolute neutrophil count for a child with a WBC = 10,000/mm³, neutrophils = 25%, and nonsegmented neutrophils (bands) = 22%. Record your answer in a whole number.

Q2) The health care provider prescribes vancomycin 200 mg per intravenous piggyback (IVPB) every 6 hours for a child with cancer admitted to the hospital for fever and neutropenia. The pharmacy sends the medication to the unit in a 240-ml bag with directions to run the medication over 120 minutes. What milliliters per hour will the nurse set the intravenous pump to run the medication over 120 minutes? Fill in the blank and record your answer in a whole number.
Q3) Calculate the absolute neutrophil count for a child with a WBC = 6000/mm³, neutrophils = 18%, and nonsegmented neutrophils (bands) = 20%. Record your answer below in a whole number.
Q4) Calculate the absolute neutrophil count for a child with a WBC = 15,000/mm³, neutrophils = 29%, and nonsegmented neutrophils (bands) = 29%. Record your answer in a whole number.
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with complex partial seizures. What clinical features of complex partial seizures should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.)
A) They last less than 10 seconds.
B) There is usually no aura.
C) Mental disorientation is common.
D) There is frequently a postictal state.
E) There is usually an impaired consciousness.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to admit a 6-month-old infant with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe in this infant? (Select all that apply.)
A) High-pitched cry
B) Poor feeding
C) Setting-sun sign
D) Sunken fontanel
E) Distended scalp veins
F) Decreased head circumference
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Q1) What are characteristics of diabetic ketoacidosis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pallor
B) Acidosis
C) Bradypnea
D) Dehydration
E) Electrolyte imbalance
Q2) A child with hypoparathyroidism is receiving vitamin D therapy. The parents should be advised to watch for which signs or symptoms of vitamin D toxicity?
A) Headache and seizures
B) Weakness and lassitude
C) Anorexia and insomnia
D) Physical restlessness, voracious appetite without weight gain
Q3) A child with growth hormone (GH) deficiency is receiving GH therapy. When is the best time for the GH to be administered?
A) At bedtime
B) After meals
C) Before meals
D) After arising in morning
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Q1) In teaching a 16-year-old adolescent who was recently diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), what statements should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) "You should use a moisturizer with a sun protection factor (SPF) of 30."
B) "You should avoid pregnancy because this can cause a flare-up."
C) "You should not receive any immunizations in the future."
D) "You may need to be on a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet."
E) "You should expect to lose weight while taking steroids."
F) "You may need to modify your daily recreational activities."
Q2) The health care provider has prescribed azathioprine (Imuran) 1 mg/kg/day PO for a child with juvenile arthritis. The child weighs 77 lb. The nurse is preparing to administer the daily dose. Calculate the dose the nurse should administer in milligrams. Record your answer below in a whole number.

Q3) What condition can result from the bone demineralization associated with immobility?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Pooling of blood
C) Urinary retention
D) Susceptibility to infection
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Q1) What is the rationale for orthopedic surgery for a child with cerebral palsy?
A) To cure spasticity
B) To improve function
C) For cosmetic purposes
D) To prevent the need of physical therapy
Q2) The nurse is teaching the family of an infant with cerebral palsy how to administer a diazepam (Valium) pill by gastrostomy tube. What should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A) The pill should be crushed and mixed with a small amount of water.
B) The pill should be crushed and mixed with the infant's formula.
C) After administering the medication, flush the tube with air.
D) Before administering the medication, check the placement of the tube.
Q3) What is a major goal of therapy for children with cerebral palsy (CP)?
A) Cure the underlying defect causing the disorder.
B) Reverse the degenerative processes that have occurred.
C) Prevent the spread to individuals in close contact with the child.
D) Recognize the disorder early and promote optimum development.
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