Family and Child Health Nursing
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Family and Child Health Nursing focuses on the provision of holistic health care to families, infants, children, and adolescents within the context of the community and healthcare system. The course covers growth and development, health promotion, disease prevention, and management of common pediatric conditions, as well as the impact of family dynamics, culture, and environment on child health. Emphasis is placed on family-centered care, nursing interventions across the lifespan, communication skills, and collaborative approaches to optimize health outcomes for both children and their families.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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1131 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a parenting class to new parents. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session about the characteristics of a healthy family?
A) Adults agree on the majority of basic parenting principles.
B) The parents and children have rigid assignments for all the family tasks.
C) Young families assume total responsibility for the parenting tasks, refusing any assistance.
D) The family is overwhelmed by the significant changes that occur as a result of childbirth.
Answer: A
Q2) The Grantly Dick-Read method of prepared childbirth allows for:
A) the use of medication to control pain.
B) advocating for the role of the father and/or significant other as labor coach.
C) the use of chloroform as an analgesic during the birthing process.
D) focusing on the ability of the mother to control fear of impending labor through knowledge.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is writing an expected outcome for the nursing diagnosis-acute pain related to trauma of tissue, secondary to vaginal birth, as evidenced by client stating pain of 8 on a scale of 10. Which is a correctly stated expected outcome for this problem?
A) Client will state that pain is a 2 on a scale of 10.
B) Client will have a reduction in pain after administration of the prescribed analgesic.
C) Client will state an absence of pain 1 hour after administration of the prescribed analgesic.
D) Client will state that pain is a 2 on a scale of 10, 1 hour after the administration of the prescribed analgesic.
Answer: D
Q2) Which most therapeutic response to the client's statement, "I'm afraid to have a cesarean birth" should be made by the nurse?
A) "Everything will be OK."
B) "Don't worry about it. It will be over soon."
C) "What concerns you most about a cesarean birth?"
D) "The physician will be in later and you can talk to him."
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Duty
A)The nurse's breach of duty caused harm.
B)The nurse has a responsibility to give care to the client.
C)An actual injury or harm to the client occurred because of the nurse's breach of duty.
Answer: B
Q2) A charge nurse is working on a postpartum unit and discovers that one of the clients did not receive AM care during her shift assessment. The charge nurse questions the nurse assigned to provide care and finds out that the nurse thought that "the client should just do it by herself because she will have to do this at home." On further questioning of the nurse, it is determined that the rest of her assigned clients were provided AM care. The assigned nurse has violated which ethical principle?
A) Justice
B) Truth
C) Confidentiality
D) Autonomy
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) On speculum examination of the cervix, it is found to be round and smooth. These findings suggest that the client:
A) is a multipara.
B) has had vaginal deliveries.
C) is a nulliparous.
D) is a gravida 1, para 0.
Q2) Follicular phase of the female reproductive cycle
A)Ovulation marks the beginning of this stage and occurs about 14 days before the next menstrual period.
B)The period in which an ovum matures begins with the first day of menstruation and ends about 14 days later.
C)This occurs as the ovum matures and is released during the first half of the ovarian cycle.
Q3) Delayed onset of menstruation or primary amenorrhea is considered if the girl's periods have not begun by which age in years? Record your answer in a whole number.
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identification of a newborn's blood indicates type AB. Based on this assessment, which statement is correct?
A) Each parent had recessive genes for type O.
B) One parent had type O and the other parent had type A.
C) One parent had type A and the other parent had type B.
D) Each parent had type A.
Q2) Autosomal dominant
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
Q3) Which statement is true of multifactorial disorders?
A) They may not be evident until later in life.
B) They are usually present and detectable at birth.
C) The disorders are characterized by multiple defects.
D) Secondary defects are rarely associated with them.
Q4) Autosomal recessive
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Q1) Umbilical artery
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Q2) Umbilical veins
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Q3) The nurse is explaining the process of cell division during the preembryonic period to a group of nursing students. Which describes the morula?
A) Fertilized ovum before mitosis begins
B) Double layer of cells that becomes the placenta
C) Flattened, disk-shaped layer of cells within a fluid-filled sphere
D) Solid ball composed of the first cells formed after fertilization
Q4) Which physical characteristics decrease as the fetus nears term? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vernix caseosa
B) Lanugo
C) Port wine stain
D) Brown fat
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the gravida and para for a client who delivered triplets 2 years ago and is now pregnant again?
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 1
D) 1, 3
Q2) A client, gravida 2, para 1, comes for a prenatal visit at 20 weeks of gestation. Her fundus is palpated 3 cm below the umbilicus. This finding is:
A) appropriate for gestational age.
B) a sign of impending complications.
C) lower than normal for gestational age.
D) higher than normal for gestational age.
Q3) A patient at 24 week' gestation reports to the clinic nurse that she is tired all the time. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Everyone has chronic anemia at this time in pregnancy."
B) "I'll make sure your health care provider is informed of your concern."
C) "Your urine is clean of protein and sugar. You are doing well at this time."
D) "Make sure you are drinking enough fluid to keep up with the demands of your body."
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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reveals to the patient that the over-the-counter test is verified and that she is pregnant. The patient confides to the nurse, "We have wanted to be pregnant for some time. These last few days I have been questioning our decision. I am feeling really bad right now." What is the nurse's best response?
A) "You will come around in time and you will grow to love this baby."
B) "Don't feel bad. It is the hormones of pregnancy talking right now."
C) "Why do you think you are feeling bad when you wanted to be pregnant?"
D) "Your feelings are understandable. Ambivalence is not uncommon right now."
Q2) A patient arrives to the clinic 2 hours late for her prenatal appointment. This is the third time she has been late. What is the nurse's best action in response to this patient's tardiness?
A) Ask the patient if she has a way to tell the time.
B) Ask the patient if she is deliberately being late for her appointments.
C) Determine if the patient wants this baby and if this is her way of acting out.
D) Determine if the patient arrives after the start time for other types of appointments.
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most important reason for evaluating the pattern of weight gain in pregnancy?
A) Prevents excessive adipose tissue deposits
B) Determines cultural influences on the woman's diet
C) Assesses the need to limit caloric intake in obese women
D) Identifies potential nutritional problems or complications of pregnancy
Q2) The pregnant woman of normal weight enters her 13th week of pregnancy. If the client eats and exercises as directed, what will the nurse anticipate as the ongoing weight gain for the remaining trimesters?
A) 0.3 pound every week
B) 1 pound every week
C) 1.8 pounds every week
D) 2 pounds every week
Q3) For the pregnant client who is a vegan, what combination of foods will the nurse advise to meet the nutritional needs for all essential amino acids?
A) Eggs and beans
B) Fruits and vegetables
C) Grains and legumes
D) Vitamin and mineral supplements
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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) On which aspect of fetal diagnostic testing do parents usually place the most importance?
A) Safety of the fetus
B) Duration of the test
C) Cost of the procedure
D) Physical discomfort caused by the procedure
Q2) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
A)A test for estimating fetal lung maturity
B)A test to assess blood flow to identify abnormalities
C)A test to diagnose fetal chromosomal, metabolic, or DNA abnormalities
Q3) The nurse is preparing a client for a non-stress test (NST). Which interventions should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ensure that the client has a full bladder.
B) Plan approximately 15 minutes for the test.
C) Have the client sit in a recliner with the head elevated 45 degrees.
D) Apply electronic monitoring equipment to the client's abdomen.
E) Instruct the client to press an event marker every time she feels fetal movement.
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) The labor nurse is reviewing breathing techniques with a primipara admitted for induction of labor. When is the best time to encourage the laboring patient to use slow, deep chest breathing with contractions?
A) During labor, when she can no longer talk through contractions
B) During the first stage of labor, when the contractions are 3 to 4 minutes apart
C) Between contractions, during the transitional phase of the first stage of labor
D) Between her efforts to push to facilitate relaxation between contractions
Q2) Lamaze childbirth education
A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach
B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain
C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle
Q3) Which client is most likely to experience pain during labor?
A) Gravida 1 whose fetus is in a breech presentation
B) Gravida 3 who is using Lamaze breathing techniques
C) Gravida 2 who is anxious because her last labor was difficult
D) Gravida 2 who has not attended childbirth preparation classes
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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Q1) Which mechanism of labor occurs when the largest diameter of the fetal presenting part passes the pelvic inlet?
A) Extension
B) Engagement
C) Internal rotation
D) External rotation
Q2) Position
A)The fetal part that enters the pelvic inlet first
B)The orientation of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the woman
C)Relation of a fixed reference point on the fetus to the quadrants of the maternal pelvis
Q3) The nurse who elects to practice in the area of obstetrics often hears discussion regarding the four Ps. What are the four Ps that interact during childbirth? (Select all that apply.)
A) Powers
B) Passage
C) Position
D) Passenger
E) Psyche
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14
Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client in labor experiences a spontaneous rupture of membranes. What information related to this event must the nurse include in the client's record?
A) Fetal heart rate
B) Pain level
C) Test results ensuring that the fluid is not urine
D) The client's understanding of the event
Q2) Which client at term should go to the hospital or birth center the soonest after labor begins?
A) Gravida 2, para 1, who lives 10 minutes away
B) Gravida 1, para 0, who lives 40 minutes away
C) Gravida 2, para 1, whose first labor lasted 16 hours
D) Gravida 3, para 2, whose longest previous labor was 4 hours
Q3) A woman arrives to the labor and birth unit at term. She is greeted by a staff nurse and a nursing student. The student reviews the initial intake assessment with the staff nurse. Which action will the staff nurse have to correct?
A) Obtain a fetal heart rate.
B) Determine the estimated due date.
C) Auscultate anterior and posterior breath sounds.
D) Ask the client when she last had something to eat.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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Q1) Increasing the infusion rate of nonadditive intravenous fluids can increase fetal oxygenation primarily by:
A) expanding the maternal blood volume.
B) maintaining a normal maternal temperature.
C) preventing normal maternal hypoglycemia.
D) increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the maternal blood.
Q2) Which of the following is the priority intervention for a supine client whose monitor strip shows decelerations that begin after the peak of the contraction and return to the baseline after the contraction ends?
A) Increase IV infusion.
B) Elevate lower extremities.
C) Reposition to left side-lying position.
D) Administer oxygen per face mask at 4 to 6 L/min.
Q3) Which maternal condition should be considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices?
A) Unruptured membranes
B) Cervix dilated to 4 cm
C) Fetus has known heart defect
D) External monitors currently being used
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which method of pain management would be safest for a gravida 3, para 2, admitted at 8 cm cervical dilation?
A) Narcotics
B) Spinal block
C) Epidural anesthesia
D) Breathing and relaxation techniques
Q2) A labor client, gravida 2, para 1, at term has received meperidine (Demerol) for pain control during labor. Her most recent dose was 15 minutes ago and birth is now imminent. Maternal vital signs have been stable and the EFM tracing has not shown any baseline changes. Which medication does the nurse anticipate would be required in the birth room for administration?
A) Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) Naloxone (Narcan)
C) Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
D) Oxygen
Q3) Which client will most likely have increased anxiety and tension during labor?
A) Gravida 2 who refused any medication
B) Gravida 2 who delivered a stillborn baby last year
C) Gravida 1 who did not attend prepared childbirth classes
D) Gravida 3 who has two children younger than 3 years
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Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pregnant client is admitted to the labor and birth unit for induction of labor. Which finding would allow the induction to continue as planned?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Cephalopelvic disproportion
C) Ripening of the cervix
D) Umbilical cord prolapse
Q2) Which aspect of newborn assessment may be limited by the application of a vacuum extractor at birth?
A) Anterior fontanel
B) Coronal suture lines
C) Posterior fontanel
D) Biparietal diameter
Q3) A pregnant woman develops hypertension. The nurse monitors the client's blood pressure closely at subsequent visits because the nurse is aware that hypertension is associated with what complication?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Cardiac abnormalities in the neonate
C) Neonatal jaundice
D) Reduced placental blood flow
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Q1) A postpartum client overhears the nurse tell the health care provider that she has a positive Homans sign and asks what it means. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "You have pitting edema in your ankles."
B) "You have deep tendon reflexes rated 2+."
C) "You have calf pain when the nurse flexes your foot."
D) "You have a 'fleshy' odor to your vaginal drainage."
Q2) The nurse is providing care to a patient who delivered a 3525-g infant 14 hours ago. The nurse palpates the fundus of the uterus as firm and at the umbilicus. What is the nurse's priority action related to this finding?
A) Inform the health care provider.
B) Encourage the patient to urinate.
C) Massage the uterus to expel clots.
D) Document the finding in the patient's chart.
Q3) Which is the best measure to prevent abdominal distention following a cesarean birth?
A) Rectal suppositories
B) Carbonated beverages
C) Early and frequent ambulation
D) Tightening and relaxing abdominal muscles
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Q1) A postpartum patient calls the clinic and reports to the nurse feelings of fatigue, tearfulness, and anxiety. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "When did these symptoms begin?"
B) "Sounds like normal postpartum depression."
C) "Are you having trouble getting enough sleep?"
D) "Are you able to get out of bed and provide care for your baby?"
Q2) An example of binding in during the postpartum period is a:
A) new mother telling her friends all about her labor and birth experience.
B) father looking at his newborn and stating that he "looks like I did when I was a baby."
C) mother reporting increasing anxiety during the postpartum period because she feels like she is all alone.
D) mother wanting some time alone so that she can catch up on needed sleep.
Q3) The postpartum client who continually repeats the story of her labor, birth, and recovery experiences is doing which?
A) Making the birth experience "real"
B) Accepting her response to labor and birth
C) Providing others with her knowledge of events
D) Taking hold of the events leading to her labor and birth
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20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Q1) Which method of heat loss may occur if a newborn is placed on a cold scale or touched with cold hands?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Evaporation
Q2) The nurse is planning to conduct the initial assessment of a full-term newborn. Included in the plan is providing a neutral thermal environment. To accomplish this plan, what is the desired environmental temperature to conduct the assessment?
A) 24° to 27° C (75.2° to 80.6° F)
B) 28° to 31.5° C (82.4° to 88.7° F)
C) 32° to 33.5° C (89.6° to 92.3° F)
D) 34° to 37.5° C (93.2° to 99.5° F)
Q3) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
A)Only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
B)First immunoglobulin produced by the newborn when stressed
C)Important in protection of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) Which nursing action is designed to avoid unnecessary heat loss in the newborn?
A) Maintain room temperature at 70° F.
B) Place a blanket over the scale before weighing the infant.
C) Take the rectal temperature every hour to detect early changes.
D) Undress the infant completely for assessments so that they can be finished quickly.
Q2) Which are early signs of hypoglycemia in the newborn for which the nurse should assess? (Select all that apply.)
A) Jitteriness
B) Poor feeding
C) Respiratory difficulty
D) An increase in temperature
E) A capillary refill of 2 seconds
Q3) A maculopapular rash with a red base and a small white papule in the center is: A) milia.
B) Mongolian spots.
C) erythema toxicum.
D) café-au-lait spots.
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) A nursing student has been caring for a client and her newborn all morning. After taking the newborn to the nursery for tests, the student is returning the newborn to the mother. Which procedure is correct for identifying the newborn?
A) Ask the mother to state her name and the name of her infant.
B) Call out the mother's full name before leaving the infant with her.
C) Have the mother read her printed band number and verify that it matches the infant's number.
D) Return the infant with no special procedure because the student knows the mother and infant.
Q2) In which position should the parents be instructed to place their newborn for sleep?
A) On the back
B) On the left side
C) On the right side
D) On the abdomen
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Q1) Which type of formula should not be diluted before being administered to an infant?
A) Powdered
B) Concentrated
C) Ready to use
D) Modified cow's milk
Q2) A new mother asks why she has to open a new bottle of formula for each feeding.
What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Formula may turn sour after it is opened."
B) "Bacteria can grow rapidly in warm milk."
C) "Formula loses some nutritional value once it is opened."
D) "This makes it easier to keep track of how much the baby is taking."
Q3) What is the difference between the aseptic and terminal methods of sterilization?
A) The aseptic method requires a longer preparation time.
B) The aseptic method does not require boiling of the bottles.
C) The terminal method requires boiling water to be added to the formula.
D) The terminal method sterilizes the prepared formula at the same time it sterilizes the equipment.
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Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Q1) Which statement by the parents indicates the need for further education with regard to pacifier use?
A) "We will discard the pacifier if it becomes torn."
B) "We will replace the pacifier every 1 to 2 months."
C) "We will be sure to cleanse the pacifier frequently."
D) "We will keep track of the pacifier by tying it to a string around the baby's neck."
Q2) As the nurse assists a newly discharged client and her infant to the waiting car, the nurse notes that the infant seat is in the front seat of the car facing the front and secured by the seat belt. The nurse should explain to the parents that the car seat should be placed:
A) in an upright position.
B) at a 30-degree angle.
C) not secured by the seat belt.
D) in the back seat facing the rear of the car.
Q3) Which is a sign of illness in the newborn?
A) A yellow scaly lesion on the scalp
B) More than two soft stools per day
C) Regurgitating a small amount of feeding
D) An axillary temperature greater than 100.4° F (38° C)
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Q1) A patient has just acknowledged that she is 20 weeks pregnant and confides to the nurse that she has a daily heroin habit. The nurse discusses treatment options for the patient. Which patient statement requires follow-up?
A) "My plan is to visit the outpatient clinic daily for treatment."
B) "I will see my health care provider at least every 2 weeks."
C) "My baby will not have to go through withdrawal when I take methadone."
D) "With oral methadone, my baby and I are at decreased risk of infection."
Q2) Which characteristics of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) should the nurse expect to assess in affected neonates? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hydrocephaly
B) Low activity
C) Epicanthal folds
D) Short palpebral fissures
E) Flat midface, with a low nasal bridge
Q3) Which is an appropriate nursing measure when a baby has an unexpected defect?
A) Remove the baby from the delivery area immediately.
B) Inform the parents immediately that something is wrong.
C) Tell the parents that the baby has to go to the nursery immediately.
D) Explain the defect and show the baby to the parents as soon as possible.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Q1) The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant client who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to:
A) monitor uterine contractions.
B) assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs.
C) place clean disposable pads to collect any drainage.
D) perform a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
Q2) Which would indicate concealed hemorrhage in abruptio placentae?
A) Bradycardia
B) Hard boardlike abdomen
C) Decrease in fundal height
D) Decrease in abdominal pain
Q3) A labor and birth nurse receives a call from the laboratory regarding a preeclamptic patient receiving an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. The laboratory technician reports that the patient's magnesium level is 7.6 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Stop the infusion of magnesium.
B) Assess the patient's respiratory rate.
C) Assess the patient's deep tendon reflexes.
D) Notify the health care provider of the magnesium level.
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Q1) Which postpartum client requires further assessment?
A) G4 P4 who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours
B) G1 P1 with Class II heart disease who complains of frequent coughing
C) G2 P2 with gestational diabetes whose fasting blood sugar level is 100 mg/dL
D) G3 P2 postcesarean client who has active herpes lesions on the labia
Q2) The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Ask the patient when she last had anything to eat or drink.
B) Take a culture of the lesions to verify the involved organism.
C) Ask the patient if she has had unprotected sex since her outbreak.
D) Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate.
Q3) Which form of heart disease in women of childbearing years usually has a benign effect on pregnancy?
A) Cardiomyopathy
B) Mitral valve prolapse
C) Rheumatic heart disease
D) Congenital heart disease
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Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with polyhydramnios was admitted to a labor-birth-recovery-postpartum (LDRP) suite. Her membranes rupture and the fluid is clear and odorless, but the fetal heart monitor indicates bradycardia and variable decelerations. Which action should be taken next?
A) Perform Leopold maneuvers.
B) Perform a vaginal examination.
C) Apply warm saline soaks to the vagina.
D) Place the client in a high Fowler position.
Q2) Which is (are) the priority nursing assessment(s) for the client having tocolytic therapy with terbutaline (Brethine)?
A) Intake and output
B) Maternal blood glucose level
C) Internal temperature and odor of amniotic fluid
D) Fetal heart rate, maternal pulse, and blood pressure
Q3) Which action by the nurse prevents infection in the labor and birth area?
A) Using clean techniques for all procedures
B) Keeping underpads and linens as dry as possible
C) Cleaning secretions from the vaginal area by using a back to front motion
D) Performing vaginal examinations every hour while the client is in active labor
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which labor and birth information on the client would suggest an increased risk for hemorrhage?
A) Precipitous birth after a 12-hour labor
B) Cesarean birth of an infant weighing 8 lb, 4 oz
C) Vaginal birth of 7-lb infant after a 2-hour labor
D) Vaginal birth of 6-lb infant after a 7-hour labor
Q2) Prior to ambulating the client to the bathroom whose admission hemoglobin level was 10.2 g/dL, the nurse should:
A) request repeat hemoglobin and hematocrit.
B) assess the resting pulse rate.
C) dangle her on the side of the bed.
D) administer the ordered oral analgesic.
Q3) The nurse recognizes that infection may be present in her postpartum client when the client exhibits a temperature of:
A) 100.0° F during the first 36 hours postpartum.
B) 100.8° F twice in the first 24 hours postpartum.
C) 99.6° F on the first postpartum day and 100.4 on the second.
D) 100.4° F on the second postpartum day and 100.8° F on the fourth.
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn assessment finding that would support the nursing diagnosis of postmaturity would be:
A) loose skin.
B) ruddy skin color.
C) presence of vernix.
D) absence of lanugo.
Q2) Because late preterm infants are more stable than early preterm infants, they may receive care that is much like that of a full-term baby. The mother-baby or nursery nurse knows that these infants are at increased risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sepsis
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hyperbilirubinemia
D) Cardiac distress
E) Problems with thermoregulation
Q3) Which is most helpful in preventing premature birth?
A) High socioeconomic status
B) Adequate prenatal care
C) Aid to Families with Dependent Children
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D) Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) nutritional program
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) While in utero, the fetus passes meconium. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis takes priority for the newborn at birth?
A) Risk for infection related to release of meconium
B) Risk for injury related to high-risk birth interventions, such as amino infusion
C) Risk for aspiration related to retained secretions
D) Risk for thermoregulation because of high-risk labor status
Q2) A mother with diabetes has done some reading about the effects of her condition on a newborn. Which statement shows a misunderstanding that should be clarified by the nurse?
A) "The red appearance of my baby's skin is due to an excessive number of red blood cells."
B) "My baby will be watched closely for signs of low blood sugar, especially during the early days after birth."
C) "My baby's pancreas may not produce enough insulin because the cells became smaller than normal during my pregnancy."
D) "Although my baby is large, some women with diabetes have very small babies because the blood flow through the placenta may not be as good as it should be."
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which response by the nurse is most appropriate when a client asks, "What contraceptive do you think I should use?"
A) "Ask your doctor. She will know what is best for you."
B) "The male condom is probably the easiest for you to use."
C) "Because you are younger than 40, you should use oral contraceptives."
D) "I can discuss the various methods with you so you can decide what is best."
Q2) Which symptom in a client using oral contraceptives should be reported to the physician immediately?
A) 5-lb weight gain
B) Leg pain and edema
C) Decrease in menstrual flow
D) Increased pigmentation of the face
Q3) A client is 27 years old and delivered her first baby yesterday. She and her husband do not want to have another baby for at least 3 to 4 years. The best method of birth control to meet their needs is:
A) withdrawal.
B) fertility awareness method.
C) combination of condoms and foam.
D) vasectomy with a reversal in 3 years.
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Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who is undergoing infertility testing states, "My husband won't discuss this with me. I don't think he cares about or wants a baby." The nurse's best response is:
A) "You should confront him about this."
B) "He probably doesn't understand your concern."
C) "Men are sometimes less eager to have children."
D) "It may be harder for him to express his feelings."
Q2) Which of the following medical conditions could possible affect a woman's fertility status?
A) Past medical history of asthma during childhood that is presently under control with the use of an inhaler
B) Recently diagnosed with PCOS
C) Past surgical history of removal of external polyps on labial tissue
D) History of frequent sinus headaches that is seasonal in nature treated with over-the-counter medication
Q3) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) While interviewing a 48-year-old client during her annual physical examination, the nurse learns that she has never had a mammogram. The American Cancer Society recommends annual mammography screening starting at age 40. Before the nurse encourages this client to begin annual screening, it is important for her to understand the reasons why women avoid testing. These reasons include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fear of x-ray exposure
B) Expense of the procedure
C) Reluctance to hear bad news
D) Having heard that the test is painful
E) Belief that lack of family history makes this test unnecessary
Q2) Findings of a Pap smear exam denote atypical cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). The Pap test is repeated at 6 months and the same finding of ASCUS are reported. Which therapeutic treatment option would the nurse expect the practitioner to order?
A) Mammography
B) Bone scan
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) Biopsy
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In reviewing genetic testing for a female client, you note the presence of BRCA1, BRCA2, and CHEK2. How should these findings be interpreted?
A) There is no increased likelihood that the client will develop breast or ovarian cancer.
B) There is an increased likelihood only for the development of breast cancer in a woman.
C) More information is needed to interpret these findings based on the client's family history and the client's current and past medical history.
D) A radical bilateral mastectomy is required immediately because the cancer may have already undergone sub-metastasis.
Q2) The physician diagnoses a 3-cm cyst in the ovary of a 28-year-old client. You expect the initial treatment to include:
A) beginning hormone therapy.
B) scheduling a laparoscopy to remove the cyst.
C) examining the client after her next menstrual period.
D) aspirating the cyst and sending the fluid to pathology.
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