Exploring Physical Science Test
Preparation
Course Introduction
Exploring Physical Science introduces students to the foundational concepts of physics and chemistry, focusing on the principles that govern matter, energy, and their interactions. This course emphasizes the scientific method, fostering critical thinking and problem-solving skills as students investigate topics such as motion, forces, energy transformations, the structure of atoms, chemical reactions, and the properties of matter. Through hands-on experiments and real-world applications, learners gain practical experience and develop a deeper understanding of the physical world, preparing them for further study in science and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 14th Edition by James Shipman(Numbers)
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24 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The metric prefix that means one million (1,000,000)is
A) centi-.
B) mega-.
C) milli-.
D) nano-.
Answer: B
Q2) The standard unit of time is the A) hour.
B) day.
C) second.
D) minute.
Answer: C
Q3) A hypothesis is a very tentative explanation of some ______________ of nature. Answer: regularity (or relationship)
Q4) Which has a larger mass,a liter of water or a liter of mercury (a liquid metal)?
A) mercury
B) water
C) none of these
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physics deals with force,energy,motion,and ______________.
Answer: matter
Q2) What two quantities are constant in uniform circular motion? ______________ and ______________
Answer: radial distance (radius); speed
Q3) An object with a mass of 5 kg is dropped and takes 9 s to hit the ground.Then another object with a mass of 10 kg is dropped from the same point.How long does it take to hit the ground?
A) 9 s
B) 18 s
C) 5 s
D) 81 s
E) 729 s
Answer: A
Q4) In straight-line motion,if a moving object slows down,the direction of the acceleration is ______________ the direction of the velocity.
Answer: opposite to,or antiparallel to
Q5) A speedometer registers ______________.
Answer: instantaneous speed
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Chapter 3: Force and Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mass and weight on Earth's surface
A) are the same thing.
B) are defined solely by inertia.
C) are explained by Newton's third law.
D) differ in magnitude by a constant.
E) are explained by Kepler's second law.
Answer: D
Q2) The acceleration produced by an unbalanced force acting on an object is A) inversely proportional to the mass of the object.
B) directly proportional to the magnitude of the force.
C) in the direction of the force.
D) all of these.
Answer: D
Q3) A quantity that is capable of producing motion or a change in motion is called a(n)______________.
Answer: force
Q4) What is the mass in kilograms of an astronaut on the Moon who weighs 185 lb on Earth?
Answer: 84 kg
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Chapter 4: Work and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mixture of ethanol and gasoline is called
A) ethaline.
B) gasanine.
C) gasohol.
D) gethanine.
Q2) The United States' most abundant fuel supply is ______________.
Q3) Gravitational potential energy is equal to the ______________ of an object times its height.
Q4) One ______________ is equal to one joule per second.
A) kilogram
B) newton
C) pound
D) watt
Q5) The quantity \(\frac { 1 } { 2 } m v ^ { 2 }\) is known as A) kinetic energy.
B) potential energy.
C) work.
D) energy.
E) power.
Q6) The two types of mechanical energy are ______________ and
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Chapter 5: Temperature and Heat
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Sample Questions
Q1) For every natural process,the entropy of the universe
A) is destroyed.
B) decreases.
C) increases.
D) remains constant.
Q2) The Sun's rays are transmitted to Earth by means of A) radiation.
B) convection.
C) temperature.
D) conduction.
Q3) What happens to a sample of water when its temperature is reduced between 0°C and 4°C?
A) Its density increases.
B) It vaporizes.
C) Its density decreases.
D) Its density remains constant.
Q4) The number of molecules in a container is tripled and the Kelvin temperature doubled.The volume remains unchanged.The new pressure will be how many times greater than the original pressure?
Q5) A ______________ has a definite volume and assumes the shape of its container.
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Chapter 6: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) The loudness of a sound wave is determined by its ______________.
Q2) A sound with a frequency of 15 Hz is in the ______________ region of the sound spectrum.
Q3) Approximately how many times faster is the speed of light in vacuum than the speed of sound in air?
Q4) Which of the following sound frequencies lie(s)outside the audible range?
A) 14 Hz
B) 11 kHz
C) 2700 Hz
D) All of these
Q5) The frequency and the wavelength of a wave are ______________ proportional.
Q6) Wave velocity is inversely proportional to A) period.
B) wavelength.
C) amplitude.
D) all of these.
Q7) If a sound level increases by 30 dB,the intensity increases by a factor of ______________.
Page 8
Q8) When a jet plane exceeds the speed of sound,a(n)______________ forms,resulting in a sonic boom.
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Chapter 7: Optics and Wave Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) The change in wave motion produced by phase and amplitude relations of two or more waves is called a(n)______________ effect.
Q2) Liquid crystal displays (LCDs)make use of the wave phenomenon called ______________.
Q3) Images of objects are formed by lenses because of A) refraction.
B) diffraction.
C) internal reflection.
D) all of these.
Q4) A diamond is said to have "fire" because of ______________.
Q5) Polarizing sunglasses have the transmission axis oriented ______________.
Q6) Dispersion occurs in a medium because
A) the index of refraction depends on wave amplitude.
B) of regular reflection.
C) of diffuse reflection.
D) the index of refraction depends on the wavelength.
Q7) A(n)______________ image cannot be focused on a screen.
Q8) If we restrict the vibrations of the electric field vector of a wave to one direction,the wave is said to be linearly ______________.
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Chapter 8: Electricity and Magnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a dc motor,the polarity and current are reversed by a(n)______________.
Q2) An object that is positively charged will
A) repel a rubber rod stroked with fur.
B) repel a glass rod stroked with silk.
C) be polarized.
D) none of these
Q3) A system of an electron and a neutron has a net charge of
A) +1.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
B) -1.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
C) 3.2 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
D) zero.
Q4) An object that is negatively charged will
A) attract a rubber rod stroked with fur.
B) attract a glass rod stroked with silk.
C) be polarized.
D) none of these
Q5) If two protons are moved 3 times farther apart,the electrical force between them is what factor of the original force?
Q6) The resistances are added in a(n)______________ circuit.
Q7) Another name for electric potential difference is ______________.
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Chapter 9: Atomic Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who discovered the nucleus of the atom in 1911?
A) Thomson
B) Rutherford
C) Dalton
D) Bohr
Q2) In the electron cloud model,or quantum model,of the atom,the focus is on the ______________ nature of the electron.
Q3) Which is not a possible value for the principal quantum number n?
A) 3
B) 7
C) 3/2
D) None of these
Q4) The lines in the visible region of the hydrogen spectrum are known as the A) Lyman series.
B) Balmer series.
C) Paschen series.
D) Bohr series.
Q5) Niels Bohr postulated that the hydrogen electron radiates energy only when it makes a(n)______________ from one allowed orbit to another.
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Chapter 10: Nuclear Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an unstable W nucleus undergoes gamma decay,the nucleus formed is that of
A) W.
B) Os.
C) Ta.
D) Hf.
E) Re.
Q2) Which one of the following isotopes of gallium would you expect to be radioactive? Explain your choice \({ } _ { 31 } ^ { 68 } \mathrm { Ga } \quad { } _ { 31 } ^ { 69 } \mathrm { Ga }\) .
Q3) The number of neutrons in an atom of is \({ } _ { 9 } ^ { 19 } \mathrm {~F}\)
Q4) What is the symbol for the element Actinium?
A) Ac
B) Tl
C) B
D) Md
E) He
Q5) A scientist named ______________ discovered radioactivity in 1896.
Q6) The diameter of the average atom is about ______________ m.
Q7) The symbolic notation for a beta particle is ______________.
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Chapter 11: The Chemical Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many elements occur naturally on Earth?
A) 102
B) 88
C) 112
D) 82
Q2) Take a cup of water,add sugar,and stir.If the resulting solution contains sugar crystals that do not dissolve,the solution is said to be
A) an unsaturated solution.
B) a saturated solution.
C) a homogeneous solution.
D) none of these.
Q3) H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> is the formula for ______________acid.
Q4) Which of the following Group 1A elements has the largest atom?
A) Rb
B) Na
C) K
D) Li
Q5) The molecular formula of "buckyball" is ______________.
Q6) The amount of energy necessary to remove an electron from an atom is called that atom's ______________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Chemical Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A compound consists of only magnesium,carbon,and oxygen.If the percentage by mass of Mg is 28.8% and that of C is 14.2%,what is the percentage by mass of O?
A) 16.0%
B) 57.0%
C) 43.0%
D) 22.5%
E) None of the above
Q2) Element A,mass 10.00 g,reacts exactly with 2.00 g of element B to form 12.00 g of compound AB.If 5.00 g of element A is reacted with 2.00 g of element B to form the same compound,what mass of compound AB will be formed?
A) 7.00 g
B) 6.00 g
C) 17.00 g
D) 12.00 g
Q3) ______________ is the measure of the ability of an atom to attract shared electrons to itself.
Q4) The symbol for the element that is the major component of steel is ______________.
Q5) The formula for dry ice is _______________.
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Chapter 13: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solution with a pH of 14 is
A) strongly acidic.
B) weakly basic.
C) strongly basic.
D) weakly acidic.
Q2) A weak acid is one that does not
A) taste very sour.
B) ionize appreciably in water.
C) form hydrogen gas when a metal is dropped in.
D) neutralize OH<sup>-</sup> ions.
Q3) When energy is released in a chemical reaction,the reaction is called a(n)______________ reaction.
Q4) By definition,the loss of electrons by an atom or ion is called A) neutralization.
B) reduction.
C) oxidation.
D) displacement.
Q5) State which element is oxidized and which is reduced in the reaction Fe + Cl<sub>2</sub> FeCl<sub>2.</sub>
Page 15
Q6) A neutral aqueous solution has a pH of ______________.
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Chapter 14: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which alcohol is used in beverages?
A) 2-Propanol
B) Ethylene glycol
C) Ethanol
D) Methanol
Q2) Alkyl halides are distinguished by the fact that at least one hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon has been replaced by a(n)
A) alkyl group.
B) OH group.
C) halogen atom.
D) oxygen atom.
E) CH<sub>3</sub> group.
Q3) Hydrocarbons that have the composition that satisfies the general formula
C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2</sub><sub>n</sub> can be either alkenes or
Q4) The suffix -ol in a compound's name signifies
A) an enzyme.
B) an amide.
C) an alcohol.
D) a carbohydrate.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Place and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the time of the summer solstice,all latitudes from ______________ to 90°N are having 24 hours of daylight.
Q2) When one travels east while passing over the International Date Line,
A) the date is decreased one day.
B) the time is decreased one hour.
C) the time is advanced one hour.
D) the date is advanced one day.
E) none of these occurs.
Q3) A line of equal longitude is called a(n)______________.
Q4) Consider the following pairs of points:?F: 0°N,40°W G: 70°N,60°W? 0°N,20°W 70°N,40°W??H: 20°S,130°E J: 30°S,170°E? 20°S,150°E 30°S,170°W??Which pair is closest together?
A) J
B) F
C) G
D) H
E) All are the same distance apart.
Q5) When it is 12 noon,May 6,in Perth,Australia (33°S,116°E),what are the standard time and date in Ottawa,Canada (44°N,76°W)?
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Chapter 16: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is believed to have played a major role in the condensation process predicted by the condensation theory?
A) Dust
B) Temperature
C) Retrograde motion
D) Protosuns
Q2) The planet ______________ contains more than half the mass of the solar system not in the Sun.
Q3) The planet with the largest number of moons is
A) Jupiter.
B) Saturn.
C) Uranus.
D) Neptune.
Q4) Which of the following planets cannot be in opposition?
A) Mercury
B) Jupiter
C) Saturn
D) Mars
Q5) The planet with the polar "ice caps" of frozen carbon dioxide is ______________.
Page 18
Q6) "Canals" are a feature once associated with the planet ______________.
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Chapter 17: Moons and Small Solar System Bodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which planet has the second largest moon in the solar system?
A) Jupiter
B) Saturn
C) Uranus
D) Neptune
Q2) The local solar time at 75°W is 12:00 noon.What is the longitude of an observer who sees the full moon on her meridian at this time?
A) 105°E
B) 75°E
C) 15°E
D) 15°W
E) None of the above
Q3) A waxing phase of the Moon can be seen
A) 10 days after a full moon.
B) 10 days after a new moon.
C) 10 days before a new moon.
D) none of these
Q4) Other than Earth,the only known object in the solar system to have surface water and ice is ______________.
Q5) The central,completely dark portion of a shadow is call the ______________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greater the mass of a star,the ______________ it moves through its life cycle.
Q2) The letters LMC refer to the galaxy named ______________.
Q3) The Sun projects charged particles into space,giving rise to a flow of radiation called the
A) heliosphere.
B) solar wind.
C) corona.
D) chromosphere.
Q4) Stars lying above the main sequence that are relatively cool but very bright are called
A) red giants.
B) white dwarfs.
C) brown dwarfs.
D) pulsars.
Q5) The cluster of galaxies that includes our Milky Way is called the ______________.
Q6) The recent modification of the standard Big Bang model is called the ______________ model.
Q7) Gas and dust distributed among the stars is known as the ______________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: The Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nimbus means
A) "poorly formed."
B) "curl."
C) "heap."
D) none of these.
Q2) The heat index accounts for the "real feel" due to the effects of
A) temperature and perspiration.
B) temperature and pressure.
C) temperature and humidity.
D) humidity and pressure.
Q3) The velocity-dependent force that produces air motion and is associated with Earth's rotation is called the ______________.
Q4) The inventor of the mercury barometer was
A) Newton.
B) Galileo.
C) Bergeron.
D) Torricelli.
Q5) The atmospheric division that lies directly above the stratosphere is the ______________.
Q6) The ozone layer absorbs ______________ radiation.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Atmospheric Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Snowstorms accompanied by high winds and low temperatures are called ______________.
Q2) Hurricanes gain strength when over
A) warm water.
B) hot air.
C) cold water.
D) wind.
Q3) The greatest cause of hurricane deaths is A) the storm surge.
B) panic.
C) the eye.
D) high winds.
Q4) A product of incomplete combustion that is a major air pollutant is A) H<sub>2</sub>O.
B) O<sub>2</sub>.
C) NOx.
D) CO.
Q5) Changes in Earth's thermal balance by decreasing the transparency of the atmosphere to insolation can result from ______________ pollution.
Q6) The boundary between two air masses is called a(n)______________.
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Chapter 21: Structural G Eology and P Late Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pangaea is believed to have broken up about how many years ago?
A) 2000 million
B) 2 million
C) 20 million
D) 200 million
Q2) Large fractures in Earth's surface that are associated with the movement of lithospheric plates are called ______________.
A) canyons
B) trenches
C) subduction zones
D) faults
Q3) The three principal types of mountain building are volcanic,fault-block,and
Q4) The Wasatch Mountains in Utah are examples of ______________ mountains.
Q5) A(n)______________ fault occurs as the result of compressional forces.
Q6) Remanent magnetism is present in rocks that contain the mineral named A) magnetite.
B) quartz.
C) hematite.
D) calcite.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Minerals, rocks, and Volcanoes
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Q1) Rocks formed by changes in structure or mineral content while remaining in the solid phase are classified as ______________.
Q2) Silicates are minerals that have the oxygen and silicon ______________ as their basic structure.
Q3) Magma viscosity depends on the silica content and the ______________ of the magma.
Q4) The softest mineral on the Mohs hardness scale is named ______________.
Q5) Intrusive igneous rock formations that cut more or less vertically across older formations are said to be ______________.
Q6) The sequence of interrelated events by which rocks are formed,altered,destroyed,and re-formed is known as the ______________.
Q7) A(n)______________ is any mineral or other precious or semiprecious stone valued for its beauty.
Q8) The most abundant rocks in Earth's crust are the A) sulfides. B) oxides. C) carbonates. D) silicates.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Surface Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) By which of the following characterisitcs is a desert defined?
A) High winds
B) High temperature
C) Lack of precipitation
D) Hot days and cold nights
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true of glaciers?
A) They cause little erosion.
B) They are made of ice.
C) They form when more snow falls than melts.
D) They flow.
Q3) The upper boundary of the zone of saturation is called the ______________.
Q4) The three major types of seawater movement are ______________,currents,and tides.
Q5) What is the second largest ocean on Earth?
A) Atlantic
B) Indian
C) Antarctic
D) Mediterranean
E) Pacific
Q6) The true edges of the continental landmasses are called the ______________.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Geologic Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The oldest known fossils of the genus Homo date from about how long ago?
A) 6000 years
B) 2 million years
C) 10,000 years
D) 65,000 years
Q2) Much of our energy comes from coal that was formed from plants that lived during the ______________ period.
Q3) Relative and absolute geologic times are combined to give the ______________ scale.
Q4) The Cenozoic era consists of only two periods: the ______________ and the Quaternary.
Q5) The Cambrian is a(n)
A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
Q6) The Paleozoic era ended and the Mesozoic era began about ______________ million years ago.
Q7) The Jurassic period is part of the ______________ era.
Q8) Petrified wood is a common type of ______________ fossil.
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