Exercise Science
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Exercise Science explores the scientific principles underlying human movement, physical activity, and athletic performance. The course examines topics such as anatomy, physiology, biomechanics, nutrition, and exercise psychology, providing students with a comprehensive understanding of how the body responds to physical activity. Students learn to assess fitness components, design exercise programs for diverse populations, and apply evidence-based strategies to enhance health, performance, and injury prevention. Emphasis is placed on both theoretical knowledge and practical skills, preparing students for careers in health, fitness, rehabilitation, or further study in related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 5th Edition by
Elaine N. Marieb
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3257 Verified Questions
3257 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind?
A) anterior
B) lateral
C) distal
D) dorsal Answer: D
Q2) It is important for any organism to maintain its boundaries, so that its internal environment remains distinct from the external environment surrounding it.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Removes and filters excess fluid from tissues.
A)Cardiovascular
B)Immune
C)Lymphatic
D)Endocrine Answer: C
Q4) Vertebral cavity. Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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Sample Questions
Q1) If all protons, electrons, and neutrons are alike, regardless of the atom considered, what determines the unique properties of each element?
Answer: Atoms of different elements are composed of different numbers of protons, electrons, and neutrons.
Q2) Which of the following statements is False?
A) When acids and bases are mixed, they react with each other to form water and a salt.
B) The more hydrogen ions in a solution, the more acidic the solution.
C) When the hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentration also decreases.
D) The pH of blood is slightly basic.
Answer: C
Q3) A chemical bond never occurs between components of a mixture. Discuss this.
Answer: Mixtures come in three forms-solutions, colloids, and suspensions. Components of these mixtures always retain their original makeup and can be separated into their individual components; therefore no chemical bonding has taken place.
Q4) What does the polar end of a phospholipid contain?
Answer: a phosphorus-containing group
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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the difference in cell division between normal cells and cancer cells.
Answer: Normal cells divide in two distinct events-mitosis and cytokinesis which are well-controlled. Cancer cells divide wildly, with uncontrollable mechanisms and defective mitosis, sometimes ending in unequal chromosome sets, which makes them dangerous to their host.
Q2) Which of the following describes the plasma membrane?
A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell
B) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma
C) a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
D) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae
Answer: C
Q3) A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________.
A) shrink
B) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached
C) neither shrink nor swell
D) swell and burst
Answer: D
Q4) Produced in the nucleus, this molecule specifies the exact sequence of amino acids of the protein to be made.
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium ciliated variety ________.
A) lines most of the respiratory tract
B) aids in digestion
C) possesses no goblet cells
D) is not an epithelial classification
Q2) Stratified squamous epithelium.
Q3) Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue.
A) areolar
B) dense regular
C) embryonic
D) reticular
Q4) Smooth muscle cells possess central nuclei but lack striations.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________.
A) elastic
B) collagen
C) reticular
D) muscle
Q6) Cardiac muscle.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The single most important risk for skin cancer is ________
A) race
B) genetics
C) use of farm chemicals
D) overexposure to UV radiation
Q2) The apocrine sweat glands are fairly unimportant in thermoregulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a patient is said to have "third-degree burns," this indicates that the patient has burns that cover approximately one-third or more of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The outermost sheath of a hair follicle is the connective tissue root sheath.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A bluish color in light-skinned individuals.
Q6) The glands that serve an important function in thermoregulation.
Q7) Why is profuse sweating on a hot day good, and yet a potential problem?
Page 7
Q8) Pulls the hair follicle into an upright position.
Q9) Responsible for shock absorption and located in the hypodermis.
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood cell formation is called ________.
Q2) Abnormal bone formation and reabsorption.
Q3) Short, irregular, and flat bones have marrow cavities in order to keep the weight of the bones light.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If your elderly patient's blood calcium level is normal, does that mean the patient does not have osteoporosis? Explain.
Q5) Bones are classified by whether they are weight bearing or protective in function.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause?
A) overproduction of thyroid hormone
B) elevated levels of sex hormones
C) too much vitamin D in the diet
D) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity
Q7) Epiphysis of the bone.
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________.
A) no transverse processes
B) costal facets
C) transverse foramina
D) no intervertebral discs
Q2) The hyoid bone is unique because it ________.
A) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
B) is composed of three bones joined together
C) is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves
D) is the only irregular bone found in the neck
Q3) Identify the four major cranial sutures in any order and the bones they connect.
Q4) Along with support, the anterior ligament of the vertebral column also acts to
A) hold the discs in place
B) prevent hyperextension of the spine
C) hold the spine erect
D) protect the spinal cord
Q5) These very small bones are at the medial wall of each orbit.
Q6) Receive the most stress.
Q7) Squamosal suture.
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________.
A) tend to run parallel to one another
B) are also called collateral ligaments
C) prevent hyperextension of the knee
D) attach to each other in their midportions
Q2) A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Probenecid inhibits the active resorption of uric acid in the kidney, which leads to increased urinary excretion of uric acid. Explain why this drug would be useful in treating gout.
Q4) Tendon sheaths ________.
A) act as friction-reducing structures
B) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue
C) are extensions of periosteum
D) help anchor the tendon to the muscle
Q5) The type of joint between the carpal and the first metacarpal is a ________ joint.
Q6) Articular cartilage.
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skeletal muscles have two special inclusions that help them perform their function of movement. What are the two special inclusions of skeletal muscle cells and how would they be useful to the cell?
Q2) The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to
A) make and store phosphocreatine
B) synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments
C) provide a source of myosin for the contraction process
D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration
Q3) A patient has no peristalsis in the gastrointestinal tract. Explain a possible complication of this condition.
Q4) An increase in the calcium ion level in the sarcoplasm starts the sliding of the thin filaments. When the level of calcium ions declines, sliding stops.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When a geriatric patient is admitted to the postsurgical unit, an important nursing measure is to prevent the loss of muscle mass. What is the term used for loss of muscle mass and how can the patient prevent it?
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) First-class levers ________.
A) have load at one end of the lever, fulcrum at the other, and effort applied somewhere in the middle
B) are typified by tweezers or forceps
C) in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location
D) are the type using joints forming the ball of the foot as formed in raising the body on the toes
Q2) The quadriceps femoris is composed of three "vastus" muscles and the ________.
Q3) A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a(n) ________.
A) antagonist
B) fixator
C) synergist
D) agonist
Q4) The ________ helps keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth during chewing.
Q5) Sternocleidomastoid
Q6) Muscle spasms of the back often are due to the erector spinae contraction.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous
Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Numerous nerve impulses arriving at a synapse at closely timed intervals exert a cumulative effect.
Q2) The synapse more common in embryonic nervous tissue than in adults is the
Q3) Different types of sensory input can have the same ultimate effect.
Q4) Enkephalins and endorphins are peptides that act like morphine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane?
A) Specific sodium gates will open.
B) Specific potassium gates will open.
C) Sodium gates will open first, then close as potassium gates open.
D) A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium.
Q6) Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function?
A) senses changes in the environment
B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions
C) responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction
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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate clearly between short-term and long-term memory.
Q2) Somatic motor cortex.
Q3) Which part of the brain functions to filter out repetitive and/or unimportant stimuli?
Q4) Point of termination of the spinal cord in an adult
Q5) Survival center
Q6) This brain area associates experiences necessary for the production of abstract ideas, judgment, and conscience.
Q7) Executive suite
Q8) REM sleep is associated with ________.
A) decreased vital signs, such as heart rate and blood pressure
B) decreased activity of the brain, especially the cerebral cortex
C) temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm
D) decreased oxygen use, especially in the cerebral cortex
Q9) Declarative memory ________.
A) is the ability to learn specific information
B) is best remembered in the doing
C) is hard to unlearn when learned once
D) usually involves motor skills
Q10) The axons from this area form the major pyramidal tracts.
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to this nerve would keep the eye from rotating inferolaterally.
Q2) Irritation of the phrenic nerve may cause diaphragm spasms called hiccups.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Loss of hearing resulting from prolonged exposure to high-intensity sounds.
Q4) Pacinian corpuscles can be exteroceptors, interoceptors, or proprioceptor.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Motor neuron.
Q6) Dorsal and ventral rami are similar in that they both contain sensory and motor fibers.
A)True B)False
Q7) The synapse of the olfactory nerves with the mitral cells is called a ________.
Q8) Ralph sustained a leg injury in a bowling accident and had to use crutches. Unfortunately, he never took the time to learn how to use them properly. After two weeks of use, he noticed his fingers were becoming numb. Then he noticed his arms were getting weaker and tingling. What could be his problem?
Page 16
Q9) The neural machinery of the spinal cord, including spinal cord circuits.
Houses the spiral organ (of Corti.)
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adrenal medulla is considered a "misplaced" sympathetic ganglion by some.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.
A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow
B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
C) preganglionic fibers are short
D) preganglionic fibers are long
Q3) The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS have the same effect on most body organ systems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The celiac ganglion is primarily associated with the sympathetic division.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The gray rami communicantes consist of myelinated postganglionic fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Most postganglionic sympathetic.
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Chapter 15: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aldosterone production
Q2) Thyroid hormone production requires the presence of iodine and calcium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which hormones are synthesized from cholesterol?
Q4) One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?
A) carbohydrate oxidation
B) catabolic inhibition
C) protein synthesis
D) humoral stimulation
Q5) The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract ________.
A) connects the hypophysis to the pituitary gland
B) is partly contained within the infundibulum
C) conducts aldosterone to the hypophysis
D) is the site of prolactin synthesis
Q6) Addison's disease is due to a insufficient output of glucocorticoids only.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with either type B or type O blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Eosinophil.
Q3) Type B.
Q4) The plasma protein that is the major contributor to osmotic pressure is ________.
A) fibrinogen
B) albumin
C) alpha globulin
D) gamma globulin
Q5) White blood cell without cytoplasmic granules
Q6) Monocyte.
Q7) Myelocytic leukemia involves a cancerous condition of lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Abnormal excess of erythrocytes resulting in an increase in blood viscosity.
Q9) Hormone that stimulates production of RBCs.
Q10) Universal recipient.
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Chapter 17: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ________.
A) ventricular repolarization
B) ventricular depolarization
C) atrial repolarization
D) atrial depolarization
Q2) The outermost layer of the serous pericardium.
Q3) Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________.
A) has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium
B) lacks striations
C) has more nuclei per cell
D) cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells
Q4) Isovolumetric contraction ________.
A) refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers
B) occurs while the AV valves are open
C) occurs immediately after the aortic and pulmonary valves close
D) occurs only in people with heart valve defects
Q5) Point that represents the "dup" sound made by the heart.
Q6) Junctional rhythm.
Q7) The ________ layer of the serous pericardium covers the heart.
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Supplies the duodenum and stomach.
Q2) For each of the following situations, describe the anticipated effect on blood pressure and the physiological basis of the response: (1) a high-salt diet, (2) a blow on the head that damages (disables) the vasomotor center, (3) an attack by a mugger, and (4) a hypothalamic tumor resulting in excess ADH production.
Q3) Major artery of the thigh.
Q4) Results from heart inability to sustain adequate circulation due to myocardial damage
Q5) Artery that does not anastomose.
Q6) The most common form of shock is ________.
Q7) Mr. Wilson is a 45-year-old stockbroker with essential hypertension. He is African American, obese, and he smokes 2-3 packs of cigarettes daily. What risk factors for hypertension are typified by Mr. Wilson? What steps should be taken to treat Mr. Wilson, and what lifestyle changes should he make? What complications are likely if corrective steps are not taken?
Q8) Branches of the celiac trunk include the common hepatic, left gastric, and ________ arteries.
Q9) Hepatic portal vein.
22
Q10) The ________ veins drain the gall bladder.
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Chapter 19: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Q1) Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the
A) inguinal region
B) cervical region
C) axillary region
D) lower extremities
Q2) Describe why the prognosis of cancer is best when there is no detectable spread from the region of the primary tumor to the lymph nodes.
Q3) A mother takes her son to the doctor and describes the following symptoms that she has observed. The child is running a fever, has flu-like symptoms, and his lymph glands are very swollen and sore to the touch. Of what significance are the swollen and sore lymph glands?
Q4) Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?
A) act as lymph filters and activate the immune system
B) produce lymphoid cells and house granular WBCs
C) produce lymph fluid and cerebrospinal fluid
D) serve as antigen surveillance areas
Q5) Explain the term MALT. What is its function?
Q6) Tonsils have blind-ended structures called ________.
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Chapter 20: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body Defenses
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Q1) Virus infected cells secrete complement to "warn" other cells of the presence of virus. A)True
B)False
Q2) Cytotoxic T cells ________.
A) are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells
B) require the double recognition signal of I MHC plus II MHC on the target cell in order to function
C) function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations
D) self-destruct once the antigen has been neutralized
Q3) Which of the following is not characteristic of the adaptive immune system?
A) It is antigen-specific.
B) It is systemic.
C) It has memory.
D) It is specific for a given organ.
Q4) Constant region.
Q5) What are two general mechanisms by which autoimmune diseases could arise?
Q6) The respiratory burst produced by some macrophages releases free radicals.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 21: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Trachea.
Q2) Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the
A) ciliated mucous lining in the nose
B) abundant blood supply to nasal mucosa
C) porous structure of turbinate bones
D) action of the epiglottis
Q3) Jane had been suffering through a severe cold and was complaining of a frontal headache and a dull, aching pain at the side of her face. What regions are likely to become sites of secondary infection following nasal infection?
Q4) A patient was admitted to the hospital with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His PO was 55 and PCO was 65. A new resident orders 54% oxygen via the venturi mask. One hour later, after the oxygen was placed, the nurse finds the patient with no respiration or pulse. She calls for a Code Blue and begins cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Explain why the patient stopped breathing.
Q5) Define anatomical dead space. What is the relationship between anatomical and alveolar dead space? Which value is likely to increase during lung pathology?
Q6) TV + IRV + ERV
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Chapter 22: The Digestive System
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Q1) The major means of propulsion through the alimentary canal is peristalsis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The lamina propria is composed of ________.
A) loose connective tissue
B) dense irregular connective tissue
C) dense regular connective tissue
D) reticular connective tissue
Q3) Which of the following is not a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier?
A) thick coating of bicarbonate-rich mucus
B) tight junctions of epithelial mucosa cells
C) replacing of damaged epithelial mucosa cells
D) production of intrinsic factor
Q4) The soft palate rises reflexively to open the nasopharynx when we swallow food.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ________ phase of gastric secretions occurs when food enters the stomach.
Q6) Wavelike smooth muscle contractions that move foodstuffs through the alimentary tube.
Page 26
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Chapter 23: Nutrition, Metabolism, and Body Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Which of the choices below is not a fate of carbohydrate taken into the body?
A) ATP production
B) lipogenesis
C) amino acid synthesis
D) direct conversion to a nucleic acid
E) glycogenesis
Q2) The body is considered to be in nitrogen balance when the amount of nitrogen ingested in lipids equals the amount excreted in urine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Breakdown of glycogen to release glucose.
Q4) The preferred energy fuel for the brain is fat.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Involves the use of oxygen to pick up excess hydrogen and electrons.
Q6) Peptides called NPY and AgRP are powerful appetite enhancers.
A)True
B)False
Q7) ATP formed by oxidative phosphorylation.
Q8) How is the postabsorptive state controlled and initiated? Page 27
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Chapter 24: The Urinary System
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Q1) Cells that are the most active in reabsorbing the filtrate.
Q2) The ________ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney.
A) lobar
B) arcuate
C) interlobar
D) cortical radiate
Q3) Which cells of the kidney are chemoreceptors that respond to changes in solute content of the filtrate?
A) juxtaglomerular cells
B) mesangial cells
C) macula densa cells
D) podocytes
Q4) Which of the following is not True regarding tubular reabsorption?
A) It occurs via transcellular or paracellular routes.
B) It is a reclamation process.
C) It involves hormonal signals in the collecting ducts.
D) It is a purely passive transport process.
Q5) Collecting duct.
Q6) Play a role in urine concentration.
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Chapter 25: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Which of the following is not a trigger for juxtaglomerular granular cells to release renin?
A) sympathetic stimulation
B) decreased filtrate NaCl concentration
C) decreased stretch due to decreased blood pressure
D) increased extracellular fluid water levels
Q2) One of the major physiological factors that triggers thirst is ________.
A) a dry mouth from high temperatures
B) becoming overly agitated
C) drinking caffeinated beverages
D) a rise in plasma osmolality
Q3) Parathyroid hormone regulates ________ ions in the body.
Q4) Which of the following is not a chemical buffer system?
A) bicarbonate
B) phosphate
C) nucleic acid
D) protein
Q5) Prolonged hyperventilation can cause alkalosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive System
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Q1) Forms tetrads.
Q2) Which of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins?
A) LH
B) FSH
C) GnRH
D) testosterone
Q3) Teresa has been complaining of severe abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, and a low-grade fever. What might be the doctor's diagnosis, and how should the condition be treated?
Q4) Primordial follicle.
Q5) Which of the following statements about the female reproductive process is not True?
A) Fertilization usually occurs in the fallopian tube.
B) Ovulation usually occurs 14 days after the beginning of menses.
C) Rebuilding the endometrium is under the control of prolactin.
D) The monthly discharge of the uterus (menses) is initiated by the decrease in secretion of female hormones.
Q6) The stage called ovulation.
Q7) First cells with n number of chromosomes.
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