Exercise Science Test Questions
Course Introduction
Exercise Science explores the scientific principles behind human movement, physical activity, and exercise. The course examines anatomical, physiological, and biomechanical aspects of the human body as they relate to health, fitness, sport, and performance enhancement. Students learn about the body's responses and adaptations to various forms of exercise, methods for assessing physical fitness, and the role of exercise in the prevention and management of chronic diseases. The course also introduces students to key concepts in exercise testing, prescription, nutrition, and injury prevention, providing a strong foundation for careers in health, fitness, rehabilitation, and athletic performance.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy 7th Edition by Elaine N. Marieb
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Q1) Which structures are evidence of the vertebrate characteristic of segmentation?
A) branches of the blood vessels
B) multiple joints of fingers
C) subdivisions of the gastrointestinal tract
D) vertebral column
Answer: D
Q2) The axillary artery is found in the region of the
A) posterior surface of the knee.
B) vertebral column.
C) armpit.
D) long axis of any limb.
Answer: C
Q3) Which letter indicates the umbilical region?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Living Units
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Q1) Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of the nuclear envelope?
A) separation of nucleoplasm and cytoplasm
B) regulation of passage of substances into and out of the cell membrane
C) transcription of DNA
D) protein synthesis
Answer: A
Q2) Chromatin is composed of DNA wound around proteins known as actin.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) This organelle is defective in the inherited disorder Tay-Sachs disease.
A) Golgi apparatus
B) lysosome
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) mitochondria
E) peroxisome
Answer: B
Q4) This is the outermost continuous boundary of a human cell.
Answer: plasma membrane (plasmalemma)
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Basic Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hand develops with ________ between the fingers. Answer: webs (webbing)
Q2) The ectoderm develops into the epithelium of the skin, whereas this layer gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gut tube.
A) endoderm
B) ectoderm
C) mesoderm-somites
D) mesoderm-lateral plate
E) intermediate mesoderm
Answer: A
Q3) The embryonic ________ ultimately form the arms and legs of the adult. Answer: limb buds
Q4) The inner cell mass will form the embryo, and the trophoblast will form the placenta. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) The sex of the fetus can be determined externally by approximately month
Answer: 3
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Chapter 4: Tissues
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Q1) Dense regular connective tissue is characterized by giving strength in all directions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Areolar connective tissue forms the lamina propria of mucous membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Only one type of fiber in connective tissue can be stretched and then recoil-return to its original length and shape. This fiber is the
Q4) A pseudostratified epithelium is always
A) simple.
B) ciliated.
C) stratified.
D) cuboidal.
Q5) Cells lining the digestive tube are characteristic of this tissue category.
A) muscle
B) nervous
C) connective
D) epithelial
Q6) The smallest diameter blood vessels, capillaries are comprised of ________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Q1) The lunule, which represents the thickest part of the nail matrix is found at the A) body of the nail.
B) eponychium.
C) proximal part of the nail bed.
D) dermis around the nail.
Q2) In the ABCD rule of skin cancer, the letter B stands for A) big.
B) blisters.
C) border.
D) baked skin.
Q3) Which letter indicates a specialized sensory receptor that responds to deep pressure?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) The vitamin produced by the skin is vitamin ________.
Q5) In thin skin, the epidermis is comprised of how many layers?
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissues
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Q1) Which type of fracture tends to occur where cartilage cells are dying and the matrix is calcifying?
A) greenstick
B) epiphyseal
C) spiral
D) comminuted
Q2) Which of these results from a genetic mutation that leads to premature endochondral ossification before adult height can be reached?
A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget's disease
Q3) Cartilage is strong in resisting twisting and bending but weak in resisting tension and compression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) ________ is common in older persons and is a projection on a bone due to abnormal bone overgrowth.
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Chapter 7: Bones, Part 1: The Axial Skeleton
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Q1) What is the most common congenital abnormality of the skull?
Q2) The costal margin is formed by what structures? Be specific!
Q3) Which of these bones has both the cribriform plate and the crista galli?
A) mandible
B) sphenoid bone
C) occipital bone
D) temporal bone
E) ethmoid bone
Q4) What does the costal tubercle of a rib articulate with?
A) vertebral body of thoracic vertebrae
B) transverse process of thoracic vertebrae
C) vertebral lamina of thoracic vertebrae
D) costal cartilage of thoracic cage
Q5) The function of the anterior longitudinal ligament on the vertebral bodies is
A) to prevent hyperextension of the back.
B) to allow for extensive lateral movement and rotation of adjacent vertebrae.
C) to protect the spinal nerve cord.
D) to hold the vertebral laminae together.
Q6) This is the largest fontanelle of the skull.
Q7) Name the four longest sutures of the skull.
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Chapter 8: Bones, Part 2: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bone in the upper limb that corresponds to the femur in the lower limb is the A) humerus.
B) radius.
C) ulna.
D) ischium.
Q2) The tibia articulates distally with the trochlea of the talus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The anatomical neck of the humerus lies
A) proximal to the tubercles.
B) distal to the tubercles.
C) beside the deltoid tuberosity.
D) near the radial groove.
Q4) In the proximal row of carpals, there are the scaphoid, lunate, triquetral, and pisiform, from lateral to medial.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The head of the femur has a ________, from which a ligament extends that attaches to the inner surface of the acetabulum.
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) Gliding movements occur between all these joints except A) adjacent carpals.
B) adjacent phalanges.
C) articular processes of vertebrae.
D) temporomandibular joints.
Q2) Of the joints listed below, the only joint with a relatively shallow or flat articular surface is the
A) ankle joint.
B) hip joint.
C) shoulder joint.
D) elbow joint.
Q3) The main function of synovial fluid is
A) cooling.
B) nourishing bone.
C) removing metabolic wastes.
D) lubrication.
Q4) The atlantoaxial joint is a saddle joint.
A)True
B)False
Q5) This is the action by which the thumb touches the tips of the other fingers.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Skeletal Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acetylcholine
A) binds to the myosin head, enabling it to form cross-bridges with actin.
B) binds to the sarcolemma and initiates an impulse in the muscle fiber.
C) breaks down the neurotransmitter that activates muscle fibers.
D) is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and binds to actin.
Q2) Identify the letter that indicates the endomysium.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) Which protein strengthens the sarcolemma by connecting the cytoskeleton with the extracellular matrix?
A) actin
B) dystrophin
C) myosin
D) titin
Q4) Fibromyalgia is a muscular disease, and its cause is known to be genetic.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Muscles of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle fascicle arrangement for Orbicularis oris is best characterized as A) parallel.
B) bipennate.
C) convergent.
D) unipennate.
E) circular.
Q2) Which of the following structures is not used to define the borders of femoral triangle?
A) the anterior superior iliac spine
B) the sartorius
C) the inguinal ligament
D) the adductor longus
Q3) The posterior triangle of the neck is bordered by the sternocleidomastoid, the trapezius, and the clavicle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The elbow joint is an example of a fulcrum as the biceps brachii flexes the forearm.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) This region of a neuron contains chromatophilic substance or Nissl bodies.
A) synapse
B) axon terminal
C) axon
D) cell body
E) dendrite
Q2) The entire nerve is surrounded by a tough fibrous sheath called the A) endoneurium.
B) perineurium.
C) ectoneurium.
D) epineurium.
Q3) A monosynaptic reflex arc is an example of A) a converging circuit.
B) parallel processing.
C) a reverberating circuit.
D) serial processing.
Q4) Cytoplasm, organelles, and neurotransmitters move through the cytoplasm of the axon by a mechanism called ________.
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Q5) Describe the levels of layers of myelin and connective tissue surrounding a nerve.
Chapter 13: The Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which of these lobes of the cerebrum lies anterior to the central sulcus?
A) occipital lobe
B) cerebellum
C) temporal lobe
D) frontal lobe
Q2) The cerebellum has an outer cortex, internal white matter, and areas of gray matter buried deep in the white matter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are structures of the limbic system except the A) hippocampus.
B) cingulate gyrus.
C) amygdaloid nucleus.
D) caudate nucleus.
Q4) The ventral portion of the cerebral peduncles connect the midbrain to the cerebellum and contain the pyramidal (corticospinal) motor tracts descending to the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the structure and functions of the thalamus.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Peripheral Nervous System
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Q1) Of the cranial nerve pairs listed below, which nerve, along with XI and XII, relays only somatic motor impulses?
A) I
B) II
C) IV
D) V
E) VIII
Q2) A nerve from the ________ cord of the brachial plexus innervates the posterior extensor muscles of the upper limb.
Q3) Which cranial nerve pair, similar to cranial nerve II, runs through a canal that bears the same name?
A) IV
B) V
C) VIII
D) XI
E) XII
Q4) The portion of the nervous system that does NOT include the brain and spinal cord.
Q5) This nerve innervates the diaphragm.
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Sensory Neurons
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Q1) Congenital megacolon, or Hirschsprung's disease, is a birth defect in which the ________ innervation of the distal region of the large intestine fails to develop normally.
Q2) The gray and white rami communicantes attach to the
A) dorsal root ganglia.
B) ventral rami.
C) dorsal roots.
D) spinal nerves.
Q3) Parasympathetic fibers innervate the sweat glands, arrector pili, and smooth muscles of the arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Autonomic fibers to the pelvic organs pass through the pelvic plexus, also known as the ________ plexus.
Q5) Only about half a dozen parasympathetic ganglia have specific names. Two of these are the
A) celiac and superior mesenteric.
B) inferior and superior hypogastric.
C) ciliary and pterygopalatine.
D) chain and prevertebral.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Special Senses
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Q1) Which of the following statements does not correctly describe the spiral organ of Corti?
A) High-frequency sounds stimulate hair cells at the basal end of the basilar membrane.
B) The "hairs" of the receptor cells are embedded in the tectorial membrane.
C) The spiral organ is part of the cochlear duct, which equals the scala media.
D) The tectorial membrane bends with vibrations, whereas the basilar membrane is rigid and fixed.
Q2) The cristae ampullares in the inner ear are located in the A) saccule.
B) utricle.
C) semicircular ducts.
D) cochlear duct.
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the flow of taste sensation along the gustatory pathway to the cerebral cortex?
A) hypothalamic appetite centers
B) solitary nucleus of the medulla oblongata
C) thalamic nuclei
D) vagus nerve
Q4) The posterior segment of the eye contains ________ humor.
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary?
A) LH
B) ADH
C) glucagon
D) adrenaline
Q2) Which of the following endocrine glands develops primarily from the endoderm of the pharynx?
A) anterior and posterior lobes of the pituitary
B) thyroid and parathyroids
C) pineal
D) adrenal medulla
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the anterior lobe of the pituitary?
A) pars distalis
B) pars intermedia
C) pars tuberalis
D) pars nervosa
Q4) Gonadotropic cells of the anterior lobe of the pituitary secrete prolactin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Blood
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Q1) Mast cells and basophils both release histamine at the site of inflammation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the correct ranking of formed elements of blood by longevity (life span), from longest-lived to shortest-lived?
A) neutrophils, basophils, erythrocytes
B) basophils, erythrocytes, eosinophils
C) erythrocytes, platelets, neutrophils
D) monocytes, neutrophils, erythrocytes
Q3) Blood clots are formed when cells become trapped among a tangle of the activated plasma protein ________ along with other clotting factors.
Q4) Which of the following cells develop into macrophages?
A) monocytes
B) neutrophils
C) basophils
D) lymphocytes
Q5) B lymphocytes attach to non-self cells and cause them to lyse.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the change in blood flow through the heart in the condition of a ventricular septal defect.
Q2) Pericarditis can lead to all of the following except A) excess fluid in the pericardial cavity.
B) pericardial friction rub. C) adhesions.
D) a myocardial infarction.
Q3) The middle cardiac vein lies alongside the anterior interventricular artery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Atherosclerosis in the marginal artery may cause ischemia in the left side of the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The epicardium is the same as the A) visceral layer of serous pericardium.
B) pericardium.
C) endocardium.
D) fibrous pericardium.
Q6) Irregular ridges in the walls of the ventricles are called ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ channels, also known as arterial anastomoses, provide alternative pathways of blood to joints.
Q2) In metabolically active tissues, blood is present in metarterioles, and precapillary sphincters are constricted.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The correct proximal to distal sequence of the three vessels branching from the aortic arch is
A) brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian.
B) brachiocephalic, left subclavian, left common carotid.
C) left common carotid, left subclavian, brachiocephalic.
D) left subclavian, left common carotid, brachiocephalic.
Q4) Venous blood from the right posterior intercostal veins (except the first intercostal space) flows to the unpaired ________ vein and on to the superior vena cava.
Q5) The diameter of a typical capillary is similar to that of A) a venule.
B) a sinusoid.
C) an erythrocyte.
D) a fat cell.
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is not a part of MALT?
A) lymphoid tissue in the appendix
B) lymphoid tissue in the tonsils
C) aggregated lymphoid nodules
D) lymphocytes in the spleen
Q2) By secreting hormones, the thymus causes which cells to become immunocompetent?
A) T lymphocytes
B) B lymphocytes
C) macrophages
D) monocytes
Q3) The immune system cell type that is preferentially destroyed by the Epstein-Barr virus in mononucleosis is the
A) B lymphocyte.
B) cytotoxic T lymphocyte.
C) helper T lymphocyte.
D) macrophage.
Q4) Epithelial cells within the thymus secrete hormones that are important to lymphocyte development.
A)True
B)False
23
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the letter that indicates the vestibular fold, or False vocal cord.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) In the wall of the trachea and bronchi, the cartilage rings lie within which tissue layer?
A) inner epithelium
B) mucosa
C) submucosa
D) fibromusculocartilaginous layer
Q3) Gas exchange occurs across the bronchi and bronchioles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a runner who is breathing heavily during a race, the rima glottidis is
A) half closed.
B) half open.
C) open as far as possible.
D) all the way closed.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) Identify the letter that indicates folds that allow for expansion of the stomach.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) Bulblike union of the main pancreatic duct and bile duct.
A) cystic duct
B) hepatic duct
C) porta hepatis
D) hepatopancreatic ampulla
E) accessory pancreatic duct
Q3) Identify the letter that indicates the duct formed by the union of the right and left hepatic ducts.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
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Chapter 24: The Urinary System
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Q1) The layer of podocytes is the same as the A) parietal layer.
B) glomerulus.
C) visceral layer of glomerular capsule.
D) capsular space.
Q2) Voiding of urine, known as ________, involves sympathetic, parasympathetic, and somatic fibers.
Q3) Which gland sits atop each kidney?
A) pancreas
B) pituitary
C) adrenal
D) interlobar gland
Q4) The part of the nephron whose epithelial cells are most responsible for resorption and secretion is the
A) glomerular capsule (podocytes).
B) proximal tubule.
C) thin segment.
D) distal tubule.
Q5) Between the fibrous renal capsule and the renal fascia is a cushioning and supportive ________ fat capsule.
26
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Chapter 25: The Reproductive System
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Q1) Identify the letter that indicates the organ that directs sperm toward the seminal vesicles during ejaculation.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) The most effective way to detect cervical cancer in its earliest stage is by a(n)
Q3) Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is incorrect?
A) It can lead to sterility.
B) It is usually caused by chlamydia or gonorrhea.
C) It includes salpingitis.
D) It inhibits ovulation.
Q4) All of the following are adaptations for keeping the testes cool except the A) descent of the testes into the scrotum before birth.
B) pampiniform plexus of veins.
C) cremaster and dartos.
D) testicular artery.
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