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Exercise Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the scientific principles underlying physical activity, exercise, and human movement. This course covers a range of topics including anatomy, physiology, biomechanics, nutrition, and psychology as they relate to exercise performance, fitness, health promotion, and disease prevention. Students will learn how the body responds and adapts to physical activity, gain practical skills in exercise assessment and prescription, and examine evidence-based approaches for enhancing physical health and athletic performance. The course prepares students for careers in fitness, rehabilitation, sports, and wellness industries, as well as for advanced study in health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Human Physiology 4th Edition by Lauralee Sherwood
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111 Verified Questions
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Q1) Blood is a type of connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) This tissue type is made up of cells specialized in the exchange of materials between the cell and its environment
A)nervous tissue
B)epithelial tissue
C)muscle tissue
D)connective tissue
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is (not a type of muscle tissue)?
A) smooth
B) skeletal
C) cardiac
D) respiratory
E) none of these answers.
Answer: D
Q4) Sweat glands
Answer: C
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Q1) This cytosol:
A) is found within the nucleus
B) does not contain organelles or cytoskeleton
C) is found only in plant cells
D) is found outside the cell
E) is part of the ECF
Answer: B
Q2) takes place on the inner mitochondrial membrane
A)glycolysis
B)citric-acid cycle
C)oxidative phosphorylation
Answer: C
Q3) Which characteristic of the golgi complex is incorrect?
A) they sort and direct products to their final destination.
B) they modify proteins chemically.
C) they produce secretory vesicles.
D) they produce proteins using ribosome.
E) they receive transport vesicles coming from the ER.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ are connecting tunnels in gaps between adjacent cells.
Answer: connexons
Q2) Gap junctions play an important role in transmission of impulses for heart contraction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Pinocytosis refers to the process of a cell engulfing a large, multimolecular particle and bringing the particle within the contents of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A first messenger is an intracellular chemical messenger that triggers a preprogrammed series of biochemical events within a cell to bring about a desired response.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The head of a phospholipid molecule has a(n) ____________________ charge.
Answer: negative
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipophilic hormones must interact with which of the following prior to gene activation?
A) membrane receptors.
B) molecular chaperones.
C) hormone response elements.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) both (b) and (c) above.
Q2) ____________________ are long-range chemical mediators secreted by endocrine glands into the blood, which carries them to distant target organs.
Q3) Which of the classes of hormones is derived from large preprohormones?
A) peptides.
B) estrogen
C) steroids.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of the above
Q4) ____________________ are hormones released into the blood by neurosecretory neurons.
Q5) The axon hillock has the lowest threshold in the neuron. A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nervous system is organized into the ____________________, consisting of the brain and ____________________, and the ____________________, consisting of nerve fibers that carry information between the CNS and other parts of the body.
Q2) Select the incorrect association.
A) occipital lobe/speech formation.
B) occipital lobe/visual input.
C) parietal lobe/proprioception.
D) parietal lobe/somesthetic sensations.
E) temporal lobe/sound input.
Q3) location of ascending and descending tracts
A)gray matter of spinal cord.
B)white matter of spinal cord
C)dorsal root ganglion
Q4) A deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine in the basal nuclei causes A) schizophrenia.
B) epilepsy.
C) Parkinson's disease.
D) depression.
E) aphasia.
Q5) Describe how memories are created.
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Q1) Receptors transduce one form of energy into electrical energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The conversion of stimuli into neuron potentials
A) requires an adequate level of stimulus.
B) is called transduction.
C) stems from generation of receptor potentials.
D) all of these answers.
E) none of these answers.
Q3) The hair cells for hearing are located in the A) cochlea.
B) Eustachian tube.
C) saccule.
D) utricle.
E) vestibule.
Q4) A generator potential in a receptor begins with the influx of ____________________ ions into the cell.
Q5) Proprioception is the awareness of the body's position in space. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Antibodies inactivate ACh receptor sites.
A)myasthenia gravis
B)black widow spider venom
C)curare
D)Clostridium botulinum toxin
E)organophosphates
Q2) Sympathetic fibers issue from ________-________ regions of the spinal cord. .
Q3) A sympathetic agonist drug would cause a faster heart rate and dilated pupils.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sympathetic preganglionic fibers originate in the thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Select the CNS structure that does not influence autonomic activity.
A) medulla.
B) hypothalamus.
C) spinal cord.
D) cerebellum
E) all these answers.

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a determinant of whole muscle tension?
A) the number of muscle fibers contracting.
B) the tension produced by each contracting fiber.
C) the extent of motor-unit recruitment.
D) the frequency of stimulation.
E) the proportion of each motor unit that is contracting at any given time.
Q2) Produces the most lactic acid.
A)slow-oxidative fiber
B)fast-oxidative fiber
C)fast-glycolytic fiber
Q3) Anaerobic exercise is endurance-type exercise.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Z lines
A) are formed by the T tubules.
B) extend down the middle of the I band.
C) are formed by the cross bridges.
D) are the thin filaments.
E) extend down the middle of the sarcomere.
Q5) ____________________ is the intracellular signal for contraction.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A. resistance and pressure in the pulmonary circulation
B. resistance and pressure in the systemic circulation
A)A is greater than B
B)B is greater than A
C)A and B are equal
Q2) Arteries carry blood away from the ventricles whereas veins carry blood toward the atria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the Frank-Starling law of the heart, the greater the stroke volume, the smaller the subsequent end-diastolic volume will be, because as more blood is squeezed out, the heart cannot fill as completely during the next diastole.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Normally, the stroke volume of the right side of the heart is the same as the stroke volume of the left side of the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An increase in heart rate ____________________ the cardiac output.
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Q1) reduced synthesis of plasma proteins due to liver disease
A)The change would increase ultrafiltration and decrease reabsorption.
B)The change would decrease ultrafiltration and increase reabsorption.
C)The change would increase both ultrafiltration and reabsorption.
D)the change would decrease both ultrafiltration and reabsorption.
E)The change would not alter ultrafiltration and reabsorption.
Q2) The colloidal osmotic pressure in the blood plasma draws fluid into the capillary.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The major function of the arterioles is to
A) regulate flow of blood through capillary beds.
B) distribute the cardiac output to tissues.
C) serve as a pressure reservoir.
D) convert the intermittent flow from the heart to a steady outflow.
E) both (a) and (b) above.
Q4) Organs that do not adjust the blood are more vulnerable to reductions in blood flow than are organs that perform homeostatic functions on the blood.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The percentage of whole blood occupied by erythrocytes, known as the ____________________, is normally ____________________ (greater than, less than) the plasma volume.
Q2) Direct attack on foreign cells.
A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)basophils
D)monocytes
E)T lymphocytes
F)B lymphocytes
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the inflammatory response?
A) localized vasodilation.
B) migration of neutrophils and macrophages to the site of injury.
C) kinin activation.
D) interferon inhibition of viral replication.
E) formation of interstitial-fluid clots that wall off bacterial invaders.
Q4) ____________________ refers to the body's ability to resist or eliminate potentially harmful foreign materials or abnormal cells.
Q5) Explain the developmental processes involved in B and T cell formation.
Q6) phagocytic secretions

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Q1) At a constant temperature, the pressure that a gas exerts depends on the volume that it occupies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hemoglobin
A) combines preferentially with O<sub>2</sub> over any other substance.
B) when combined with carbon dioxide is known as carboxyhemoglobin.
C) plays a critical role in determining the amount of O<sub>2</sub> that is exchanged between alveoli and blood, because it acts as a storage depot, removing dissolved O<sub>2</sub> from the blood thereby keeping PO<sub>2</sub> low and allowing net diffusion of O<sub>2</sub> to continue until the hemoglobin is completely saturated.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers
Q3) Inspiratory events occur because
A) the air pressure in the alveoli is greater than that of the atmosphere.
B) the air pressure in the alveoli is less than that of the atmosphere.
C) the volume of the thoracic cavity increases.
D) both (a) and (c) above.
E) both (b) and (c) above
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Q1) ureter
A)Collecting tubules empty into this structure.
B)Stores the urine.
C)Passage of substances from the peritubular into the tubular lumen.
D)When dilated leads to an increase in GFR.
E)Tuft of capillaries found in close approximation to the Bowman's capsule.
F)Function of the glomerulus.
G)Urine is forced through this structure by peristalsis.
H)Collects the glomerular filtrate.
I)Passage of substances from the tubular lumen into the peritubular capillaries.
J)Functional unit of the kidney.
K)Supplies the renal tissue with O<sub>2</sub> and nutrients.
L)Carries blood from glomerulus into peritubular capillaries.
M)Tube through which urine leaves the body.
N)Variable water and sodium reabsorption occur here under hormonal control.
O)Responsible for the vertical osmotic gradient in the medulla of the kidney.
P)Glucose and amino acid reabsorption occur here.
Q2) water conserved
Q3) About _________% of the filtered urea is reabsorbed as compared to __________ % of glucose.
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Q1) A drop in arterial blood pressure would trigger
A) decreased GFR.
B) release of aldosterone.
C) increased sodium reabsorption.
D) decreased chloride excretion.
E) all of these answers.
Q2) The osmotic activity across the capillary wall is due to the unequal distribution of plasma proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which factor is controlled by vasopressin?
A) ECF volume
B) ECF osmolarity
C) maintenance of free water balance
D) both (a) and (b)
E) both (b) and (c)
Q4) The barrier between the ECF and ICF is the ____________________
Q5) Describe how the body responds to a substantial drop in ECF pH.
Q6) What are the causes of the four forms of acid-base imbalances?
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Q1) responsible for coordinating local activity within the digestive tract
A)autonomous smooth muscle function
B)extrinsic (autonomic) nerves
C)hormones
D)intrinsic nerve plexuses
Q2) The typical coloration of the feces is due to
A) bile salts.
B) undigested cellulose.
C) aqueous NaHCO<sub>3</sub> secretion.
D) bilirubin.
E) disintegrated epithelial cells.
Q3) Parasympathetic stimulation of the salivary glands produces a large volume of watery saliva high in enzyme concentration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ____________________ is a common passageway for both the digestive and respiratory systems.
Q5) Indicate the causes and effects of constipation and diarrhea.
Q6) Describe the four basic digestive functions: motility, secretion, digestion, and absorption.
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Q1) heat loss by means of conversion of water from a liquid to a gaseous state
A)convection
B)evaporation
C)radiation
D)conduction
Q2) Shivering is the main voluntary means of increasing the production of heat in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The inner core includes the abdominal and thoracic organs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Aspirin reduces a fever by inhibiting synthesis of:
A) leptin
B) thyroid hormone
C) CRH
D) pyrogens
E) prostaglandins
Q5) The temperature-sensitive receptors that monitor skin and core temperature are termed ____________________.
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Q1) LH stimulates the
A) cells that destroy the cells of Leydig.
B) enlargement of the follicles.
C) development of the hypothalamus.
D) formation of the corpus luteum.
E) water balance in the kidney.
Q2) Tri-iodothyronine and tetraiodothyronine are produced by the C-cells of the thyroid gland.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Endocrine controls:
A) occur quickly and last for short periods of time
B) are similar in onset and duration to CNS controls
C) require duration rather than speed
D) are targeted at precise organs
E) none of the above
Q4) increased metabolic rate
Q5) GH acts through IGF to stimulate growth of soft tissue and bone.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A. The number of chromosomes in the ovulated secondary oocyte.
B. The number of chromosomes in a primary oocyte.
A)A is greater than B.
B)B is greater than A.
C)A and B are approximately equal.
Q2) A secondary spermatocyte
A) is haploid with unduplicated chromosomes.
B) is haploid with duplicated chromosomes.
C) is diploid with unduplicated chromosomes.
D) is diploid with duplicated chromosomes.
E) none of these answers.
Q3) High levels of estrogen directly stimulate the LH-secreting cells of the anterior pituitary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A high level of progesterone stimulates myometrial contraction.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The externally visible portions of the reproductive system are referred to as

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