Exercise Science
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Exercise Science is a multidisciplinary field that studies the scientific principles underlying physical activity, fitness, and human movement. It integrates knowledge from anatomy, physiology, biomechanics, nutrition, and psychology to understand how the body responds and adapts to exercise. Students explore topics such as exercise testing and prescription, injury prevention, athletic performance, and the role of physical activity in promoting overall health and well-being. The course also covers practical applications for improving physical performance and quality of life in diverse populations, preparing students for careers in fitness, rehabilitation, sports science, and health promotion.
Recommended Textbook
Examination of Orthopedic Athletic Injuries 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
20 Chapters
843 Verified Questions
843 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2209 Page 2
Chapter 1: Examination Process
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43948
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not examined during the inspection,when checking the injured body part and comparing the results with the opposite structure?
A) Infection
B) Edema
C) Ecchymosis
D) Movement pattern
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following represents the heart rate range in beats/minute (bpm)of the general population?
A) 60 to 100 bpm
B) 80 to 120 bpm
C) 70 to 110 bpm
D) 90 to 120 bpm
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Examination and Management of Acute Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43949
Sample Questions
Q1) What ROM test(s)must an athlete be able to perform while on the field in order to be allowed to walk off the field?
A) AROM and PROM
B) AROM and RROM, but not PROM
C) AROM only
D) AROM, RROM, and PROM
Answer: D
Q2) Which type of breathing is identified by respirations in which the diaphragm is inactive?
A) Apneustic
B) Biot's
C) Thoracic
D) Cheyne-Stokes
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is not true when developing an EAP?
A) Coordinate the EAP with the pertinent individuals.
B) Establish one written EAP that is not venue specific.
C) Determine the venue-specific access to early defibrillation.
D) Integrate the EAP into the local EMS response.
Answer: B
Page 4
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Practice in the Diagnostic Process
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43950
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for a clinical test that incorrectly identifies a condition as present when there is no pathology?
A) True positive
B) False positive
C) True negative
D) False negative
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following choices represents the highest reliability?
A) 0.83
B) 0.91
C) 0.29
D) 0.50
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is not true regarding the use of clinical decision rules,also known as clinical prediction rules?
A) They improve decision making.
B) They decrease costs.
C) They ultimately improve patient outcome.
D) They decrease the experience level of the clinician.
Answer: D
Page 5
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 4: Injury Pathology Nomenclature
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43951
Sample Questions
Q1) Where does muscle rupture occur on the load-deformation curve?
A) Elastic region
B) Plastic region
C) Tensile region
D) Failure point
Q2) Which of the following terms describes growth of extraneous bone that can occur as a stress reaction from injury or from irregular forces being placed on the bone?
A) Osteochondritis dissecans
B) Apophysitis
C) Exostosis
D) Arthralgia
Q3) Sometimes called "growing pains," what term identifies an inflammatory condition involving a bone's growth plate?
A) Osteochondritis dissecans
B) Apophysitis
C) Exostosis
D) Arthralgia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
6
Chapter 5: Musculoskeletal Diagnostic Techniques
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43952
Sample Questions
Q1) For which structure is an arthrogram best used to identify pathology?
A) Spinal canal
B) Blood vessels
C) Muscle
D) Articular cartilage lesions
Q2) Which imaging technique uses a form of nuclear medicine to detect bony abnormalities that are not normally visible on a standard radiograph?
A) CT scan
B) Radiograph
C) MRI
D) Bone scan
Q3) Sonograms are relatively inexpensive,easy to obtain,risk-free to the patient,and unaffected by the skill of the individual operating the unit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Body piercings are allowed to remain in place during the MRI procedure.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Assessment of Posture
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43953
Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle becomes overactivated and tightened in a person with both forward head posture and forward shoulder posture?
A) Upper trapezius
B) Lower trapezius
C) Middle trapezius
D) Serratus anterior
Q2) When treating an athlete with right-curving functional scoliosis,which of the following would be the first thing that should be done in the treatment plan?
A) Stretching the right-side musculature
B) Strengthening the left-side musculature
C) Stretching the left-side musculature
D) Strengthening the right-side musculature
Q3) When trying to rehabilitate the antagonist muscle when the agonist is overactivated,which of the following is the first step in the rehabilitation?
A) Strengthen the agonist.
B) Strengthen the antagonist.
C) Stretch the agonist.
D) Stretch the antagonist.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
8
Chapter 7: Evaluation of Gait
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43954
Sample Questions
Q1) What is being described when one says a person walks 50 steps per minute?
A) Stride time
B) Gait velocity
C) Stride length
D) Cadence
Q2) Which period of the stance phase begins as the body weight moves directly over the support limb and stationary foot,and concludes when the center of gravity is directly over the foot?
A) Loading response
B) Preswing
C) Midstance
D) Terminal stance
Q3) What term represents the distance covered per unit time,such as 1 meter per second?
A) Stride time
B) Gait velocity
C) Stride length
D) Cadence
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
9
Chapter 8: Foot and Toe Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43955
Sample Questions
Q1) For which problem would one recommend proper bathing,regularly changing socks,and keeping the area dry to help prevent the buildup of fungi?
A) Molluscum contagiosum
B) Tinea pedis
C) Verruca plantaris
D) Hard corns
Q2) Typically,where is pain centralized when someone has plantar fasciitis?
A) Medial calcaneal tubercle
B) Sustentaculum tali
C) Navicular tuberosity
D) Base of the fifth metatarsal
Q3) How many structural bones form the three regions of the foot?
A) 25
B) 26
C) 27
D) 28
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 9: Ankle and Leg Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43956
Sample Questions
Q1) Which ligament is more commonly injured during supination of the ankle?
A) Anterior talofibular ligament
B) Posterior talofibular ligament
C) Calcaneofibular ligament
D) Anterior tibiofibular ligament
Q2) Which of the following describes correct patient positioning for the Thompson Test?
A) Supine with the foot on the table
B) Supine with the foot off the table
C) Prone with the foot on the table
D) Prone with the foot off the table
Q3) What test is used to evaluate the lateral translation of the talus in the ankle mortise?
A) Talar tilt test
B) Anterior drawer test
C) Kleiger's test
D) Cotton test
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: Knee Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43957
Sample Questions
Q1) Which test would be appropriate to perform in an on-field evaluation situation?
A) Valgus stress test
B) McMurray test
C) Pivot shift test
D) Slocum drawer test
Q2) Which of the following is not a true statement about the MCL?
A) The MCL has two layers (deep and superficial).
B) The MCL attaches to a meniscus.
C) The MCL thickens the joint capsule.
D) The MCL is a cordlike structure.
Q3) Which of the following is indicated by a ballottable patella?
A) Knee edema
B) Inflamed infrapatellar bursa
C) Inflamed suprapatellar bursa
D) Knee effusion
Q4) On what bony structure does the iliotibial (IT)band insert?
A) Gerdy's tubercle
B) Lateral femoral condyle
C) Fibular head
D) Tibial tubercle
Page 12
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: Patellofemoral Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43958
Sample Questions
Q1) With the knee extended,which direction should a patella be moved in order to palpate the odd facet?
A) Lateral
B) Medial
C) Lateral or medial
D) The patella does not need to be moved.
Q2) By what degree of knee flexion is the patella firmly seated in the trochlear groove?
A) 5°
B) 10°
C) 15°
D) 30°
Q3) Which test can be completed to assess tension of the iliotibial band?
A) Ober test
B) Navicular drop test
C) Stutter test
D) Clarke's sign
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Pelvis and Thigh Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43959
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are symptoms of a femur fracture?
A) Deformity without loss of function
B) Pain and deformity
C) Immediate loss of function without pain
D) Deformity, pain, and loss in function
Q2) What is the ligament that originates off of the ASIS and inserts at the pubic symphysis?
A) Ligamentum teres
B) Inguinal ligament
C) Iliofemoral ligament
D) Pubofemoral ligament
Q3) What is the bursa that separates the gluteus maximus from the origin of the vastus lateralis?
A) Ischial bursa
B) Gluteofemoral bursa
C) Iliopsoas bursa
D) Trochanteric bursa
Q4) The angle of torsion changes as an individual grows.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Lumbosacral Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43960
Sample Questions
Q1) How many pairs of foramina perforate the sacral bone,allowing for the passage of the dorsal and ventral primary divisions of the sacral plexus?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Six
Q2) What is the amount of stress placed on the lumbar intervertebral discs when a person is standing?
A) 165 lb (75 kg) of pressure
B) 220 lb (100 kg) of pressure
C) 386 lb (175 kg) of pressure
D) 606 lb (275 kg) of pressure
Q3) The tension sign test begins with the patient's hip flexed to 90° and the knee fully extended.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The primary movement occurring between the L1 and L4 vertebrae is rotation.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Cervical and Thoracic Spine and Thorax Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43961
Sample Questions
Q1) Diseases or conditions affecting the spinal cord
A)Nystagmus
B)Patency
C)Torticollis
D)Myelopathy
Q2) Name two tests that are used to check for an upper motor neuron lesion and state what a positive test is for each.
Q3) Kehr's sign is referred pain to the upper left abdomen and shoulder,indicating appendicitis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In what shape is the cervical spine of a patient considered healthy?
A) Kyphotic curve
B) Lordotic curve
C) Lateral curve
D) Sagittal curve
Q5) Symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome can mimic those of a cervical nerve root impingement.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Shoulder and Upper Arm Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43962
Sample Questions
Q1) Tears most commonly occur in which rotator cuff muscle?
A) Supraspinatus
B) Subscapularis
C) Infraspinatus
D) Teres minor
Q2) For which muscle does the coracoid process serve as the point of insertion?
A) Pectoralis major
B) Pectoralis minor
C) Anterior deltoid
D) Upper trapezius
Q3) What direction of force is applied longitudinally through the humerus during the anterior slide test?
A) Anterior and superior
B) Anterior and inferior
C) Posterior and superior
D) Posterior and inferior
Q4) Scapular dyskinesis is considered a source of internal impingement.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name all the muscles that have a direct action on the scapula.
Page 17
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 16: Elbow and Forearm Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43963
Sample Questions
Q1) Name the four individual articulations of the elbow.
Q2) What is the nerve that innervates the flexi carpi ulnaris muscle and the medial portion of the flexor digitorum profundus in the forearm?
A) Radial
B) Ulnar
C) Median
D) Anterior interosseous
Q3) The forearm is displaced anteriorly or anterolaterally compared to the humerus in 90% of cases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Male patients over what age commonly have biceps tendon ruptures?
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Q5) List the structures within the cubital fossa.
Q6) The "terrible triad" of the elbow involves which type of injury to what structures?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Wrist, Hand, and Finger Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43964
Sample Questions
Q1) Which wrist pathology is commonly associated with clicking on the ulnar side of the wrist?
A) Trigger finger
B) Triangular fibrocartilage tear
C) Tenosynovities
D) De Quervain syndrome
Q2) Which carpal bone is palpable as the floor of the anatomical snuffbox?
A) Trapezoid
B) Capitate
C) Pisiform
D) Scaphoid
Q3) Patients with carpal tunnel syndrome typically describe increased pain when sleeping.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which ligament is not stressed during passive flexion of the wrist?
A) Dorsal radiocarpal
B) Radial collateral
C) Ulnar collateral
D) Palmar ulnocarpal
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Eye Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43965
Sample Questions
Q1) Loss of part of the visual field indicates damage to which of the following?
A) Cornea
B) Lens
C) Retina
D) Sclera
Q2) Which of the following is typically reported as feeling "something in the eye"?
A) Traumatic iritis
B) Corneal abrasion
C) Orbital fracture
D) Retinal detachment
Q3) The efferent lesion associated with a positive pupillary reaction test can affect the retina or optic nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name the bones that form the eye orbit.
Q5) _______ is an anterior displacement of the globe,whereas ______________ is a posterior displacement of the globe.
Q6) A normal-appearing eye from the outside correlates well with internal damage.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 19: Face and Related Structure Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43966
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures would be damaged first by a severe blow to the thyroid cartilage?
A) Larynx
B) Trachea
C) Esophagus
D) Pharynx
Q2) What are the small rough projections found on the surface of a patient's tongue that assist in the movement of food during chewing?
A) Papillae
B) Taste buds
C) Vermilion
D) Papules
Q3) What is the shape of the external ear-which is maintained by an accumulation of cartilaginous tissue-called?
A) Auricle
B) Stapes
C) External auditory meatus
D) Incus
Q4) Explain how to perform Weber's test and what is considered a positive test.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Head and Acute Cervical Spine Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43967
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is false concerning skull fractures?
A) Comminuted skull fractures result in fragmentation of the skull.
B) Depressed skull fractures can be life-threatening injuries.
C) Athletes wearing headgear have a lower chance of sustaining a skull fracture.
D) Skull fractures do not occur in those wearing a helmet.
Q2) What test is used to determine whether cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)is present in fluids leaking from a head-injury patient's nose or ears?
A) Halo test
B) Battle's test
C) Romberg's test
D) Babinski's test
Q3) Which CN is not associated with facial expression?
A) V
B) VII
C) XII
D) XI
Q4) The tandem walking test is failed if the patient's best time is greater than 14 seconds.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22