Exercise Science Question Bank - 2056 Verified Questions

Page 1


Exercise Science

Question Bank

Course Introduction

Exercise Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the physiological, biomechanical, and psychological aspects of physical activity, exercise, and sport. This course examines how the human body responds and adapts to movement and physical training, with an emphasis on understanding foundational principles of anatomy, physiology, kinesiology, nutrition, and exercise prescription. Students will gain insight into the assessment of physical fitness, the management of injury prevention and rehabilitation, as well as the promotion of health and wellness through scientifically-backed exercise interventions.

Recommended Textbook

Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin

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30 Chapters

2056 Verified Questions

2056 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology

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84 Verified Questions

84 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most people think that ulcers are caused by psychological stress.It was discovered that an acid-resistant bacterium,Heliobacter pylori,lives in the lining of the stomach.If these bacteria cause ulcers,then treatment with an antibiotic should reduce ulcers.This line of investigation is an example of __________.

A) hypothetical reasoning

B) hypothetico-deductive reasoning

C) the inductive method

D) experimental design

E) statistical analysis

Answer: B

Q2) A surgeon needs to be familiar with different versions of anatomy.This is because of the phenomenon of _____.

A) cellular adaptation

B) holistic medicine

C) physiological variation

D) anatomical variation

Answer: D

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3

Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Oxygen has an atomic number of eight.When two oxygen atoms come together,they form a(n)__________ bond.

A) hydrogen

B) nonpolar covalent

C) polar covalent

D) ionic

E) Van der Waals

Answer: B

Q2) Minerals are organic elements extracted from the soil by plants.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) The most relevant free energy in human physiology is the energy stored in

A) electrolytes ionized in water

B) free radicals with an odd number of electrons

C) radioisotopes

D) the chemical bonds of organic molecules

E) Van der Waals forces

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) Microvilli and cilia differ in their function,but have the same internal structure.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Which of the following gives a cell structural support,determines the shape of a cell,and directs the movement of substances through a cell?

A) Cholesterol

B) The nucleus

C) The plasma membrane

D) The Golgi complex

E) The cytoskeleton

Answer: E

Q3) The most important advantage of the transmission electron microscope (TEM)over the light microscope (LM)is its higher resolution.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) The enzyme RNA polymerase participates in translation.

A)True

B)False

Q2) __________ are turned on or off by regulatory proteins in accordance with changing needs for the __________ they encode.

A) Enzymes;products

B) Ribosomes;proteins

C) Genes;proteins

D) Proteins;genes

E) Genes;ribosomes

Q3) In familial hypercholesterolemia,individuals with two abnormal alleles die of heart attacks in childhood,those with only one abnormal allele typically die as young adults,and those with two normal alleles have normal life expectancies.This exemplifies

A) penetrance

B) codominance

C) pleiotropy

D) complete dominance

E) incomplete dominance

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Histology

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Sample Questions

Q1) __________ secrete __________ into __________.

A) Goblet cells;mucus;the blood

B) Endocrine glands;hormones;ducts

C) Exocrine glands;hormones;ducts

D) Endocrine glands;hormones;the blood

E) Exocrine glands;mucus;the blood

Q2) Most growth in childhood is the result of hyperplasia.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The middle primary germ layer is called __________,which gives rise to a gelatinous material called __________,which then gives rise to different types of connective tissue such as bone,cartilage,and blood.

A) ectoderm;stem cells

B) mesoderm;mesenchyme

C) endoderm;mesenchyme

D) mesoderm;fibroblasts

E) ectoderm;mesenchyme

Q4) The secretory product of a gland is produced by its parenchyma,not its stroma.

A)True

B)False

Page 7

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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Variations in hair color arise from differing amounts of __________.

A) collagen and elastic filaments

B) keratin and melanin

C) carotene and hemoglobin

D) carotene and collagen

E) eumelanin and pheomelanin

Q2) The contraction of the piloerector muscles (pilomotor muscle or arrector pili)in humans causes __________.

A) hairs to stand on end,trapping an insulating layer of warm air next to the skin

B) generation of heat to raise the body temperature

C) hairs to stand on end to make the individual appear bigger

D) hairs to stand on end with no apparent function

E) increased ability to feel pain

Q3) Increased bilirubin levels cause a skin discoloration called __________.

A) erythema

B) jaundice

C) pallor

D) bronzing

E) cyanosis

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Bone Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) Adding pins and plates to a fracture to aid repair is called traction.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Arteriosclerosis is one example of ectopic ossification,which means __________.

A) the solubility product has been reached

B) artery mineralization by osteoblasts

C) abnormal calcification of a tissue

D) accumulation of collagenous fibers in blood vessels

E) ossification of an entire blood vessel

Q3) Which of the following is not a function of the skeleton?

A) Storage of calcium and phosphate ions

B) Storage of red blood cells

C) Providing support for most muscles

D) Protecting the brain

E) Protecting the spinal cord

Q4) Intramembranous ossification is common in children,whereas endochondral ossification is typical in young adults.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sutures are found between the cranial,facial,and sacral bones.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Rib 7 is a __________ rib.

A) true

B) floating

C) false

D) pelvic

E) cartilaginous

Q3) The antebrachium contains the __________.

A) radius and ulna

B) humerus

C) carpals and metacarpals

D) scapula and clavicle

E) phalanges

Q4) The mastoid process cannot be palpated on a living person.

A)True

B)False

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Joints

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Sample Questions

Q1) The talocrural joint is formed by the union of the __________,the _________,and the _________.

A) femur;calcaneus;talus

B) femur;tibia;patella

C) tibia;fibula;talus

D) tibia;fibula;calcaneus

E) tibia;calcaneus;talus

Q2) Radial (lateral)and ulnar (medial)collateral ligaments restrict side-to-side movements of the __________ joint.

A) shoulder

B) elbow

C) wrist

D) hip

E) knee

Q3) The temporomandibular joint is a(n)__________ joint.

A) osseous

B) cartilaginous

C) bony

D) fibrous

E) synovial

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Chapter 10: The Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The rectus femoris is an example of what muscle shape?

A) Fusiform

B) Parallel

C) Triangular

D) Elongated

E) Pennate

Q2) Injury to the deep fibular nerve would cause inability to extend ones toes.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is not a function of the muscular system?

A) Stability

B) Heat production

C) Control of openings

D) Secretion

E) Breathing

Q4) A sacral fracture affecting the S3 and S4 nerve roots would result in a person having difficulty with evacuation of the bowels.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) The process of engaging more motor units to increase the strength of a muscle contraction is called __________.

A) wave summation

B) recruitment

C) temporal summation

D) incomplete tetanus

E) complete tetanus

Q2) The sarcolemma of a resting muscle fiber is most permeable to __________.

A) calcium

B) potassium

C) sodium

D) lithium

E) magnesium

Q3) The sarcoplasmic reticulum is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of a muscle fiber.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Extensibility refers to the ability of a muscle to stretch.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the brain,neurons are more abundant than neuroglia.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Acetylcholine triggers the synthesis of the second messenger cAMP only in neurons of the PNS.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Most neurons have multiple dendrites.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A neuron receives a stimulus.Which of the following events happens next?

A) A local potential develops

B) Threshold is reached

C) Hyperpolarization of the membrane

D) Repolarization of the membrane

E) A resting membrane potential is established

Q5) Memories are formed by neural pathways of modified synapses.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord,spinal Nerves,and Somatic

Reflexes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a function associated with the spinal cord?

A) Protect neurons in both the ascending and descending tracts

B) Mediate a reflex,such as the withdrawal of a hand from pain

C) Conduct sensory information up to the brain

D) Conduct motor information down the cord

E) Coordinate the alternating contraction of several muscle groups associated with locomotion

Q2) The sensitivity of the muscle spindle is maintained by __________.

A) a stretch reflex

B) alpha motor neurons

C) gamma motor neurons

D) anulospiral endings

E) secondary afferent (group II)fibers

Q3) Which of the following is not considered a region of the spinal cord?

A) Cervical

B) Thoracic

C) Lumbar

D) Pelvic

E) Sacral

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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is 90% of the cerebral cortex referred to as the neocortex?

A) It developed recently evolutionarily when mammals diversified.

B) It is only found in humans.

C) It is last to develop in the fetus and is thus the youngest part of the brain.

D) It has the ability to regenerate the outermost three of its six layers.

Q2) __________ show more lateralization than __________.

A) Adult males;adult females

B) Young children;adults

C) Young children;elders

D) Adult females;adult males

E) Young male children;adult males

Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by choroid plexuses in the __________ ventricles and reabsorbed by arachnoid villi in the __________.

A) lateral,third,and fourth;superior sagittal sinus

B) lateral,and third;superior sagittal sinus

C) lateral,third,and fourth;central canal of the spinal cord

D) lateral;central canal of the spinal cord

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Page 16

Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral

Reflexes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is associated with the "flight-or-fight" reaction?

A) Pupillary constriction

B) Glycogen synthesis

C) Increased gastric motility

D) Reduced urinary output

E) Reduced heart rate

Q2) Sympathetic nerve fibers are not associated with situations involving __________.

A) anger

B) digestion

C) exercise

D) stress

E) arousal

Q3) The effect of autonomic fibers on target cells is _________.The effect of somatic fibers on target cells is __________.

A) always excitatory;always excitatory

B) excitatory or inhibitory;always excitatory

C) excitatory or inhibitory;excitatory or inhibitory

D) always inhibitory;excitatory or inhibitory

E) always inhibitory;always excitatory

17

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Chapter 16: Sense Organs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Where is the primary olfactory cortex located?

A) Parietal lobe

B) Insula

C) Occipital lobe

D) Frontal lobe

E) Temporal lobe

Q2) Sensory receptors sense only stimuli external to the body,such as light,sound waves,olfaction,and touch.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which cells are responsible for photopic (day)vision as well as trichromatic (color)vision?

A) Bipolar cells

B) Rods

C) Cones

D) Ganglion cells

E) Pigment cells

Q4) The middle ear consists of a fluid-filled chamber.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ___________ can be found as part of the epithalamus,near the superior colliculi of the midbrain.

A) hypothalamus

B) pituitary gland

C) pineal gland

D) hypophysis

E) adrenal gland

Q2) Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for the hormone that stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete ACTH?

A) CRH

B) GHRH

C) GHIH

D) APRH

E) TRH

Q3) Both the thymus and the pineal gland shrink after childhood.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Cholesterol is essential for the synthesis of steroid hormones.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Where does myeloid hemopoiesis take place in adults?

A) Thymus

B) Spleen

C) Red bone marrow

D) Yellow bone marrow

E) Liver

Q2) The ABO blood group is determined by __________ in the plasma membrane of RBCs.

A) glycolipids

B) glycoproteins

C) antibodies

D) antigen-antibody complexes

E) agglutinins

Q3) Which of the following is most likely to cause anemia?

A) High altitude

B) Air pollution other than by carbon monoxide

C) Renal disease

D) Smoking

E) Any factor that creates a state of hypoxemia

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Page 20

Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart

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Sample Questions

Q1) The __________ performs the work of the heart.

A) fibrous skeleton

B) pericardial cavity

C) endocardium

D) myocardium

E) epicardium

Q2) Parasympathetic stimulation reduces heart rate.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is the most superficial layer enclosing the heart?

A) Parietal pericardium

B) Visceral pericardium

C) Endocardium

D) Epicardium

E) Myocardium

Q4) The amount of blood pumped through the pulmonary circuit is less than the amount pumped through the systemic circuit.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most important force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary?

A) Oncotic pressure

B) Tissue fluid colloid osmotic pressure

C) Blood colloid osmotic pressure

D) Interstitial hydrostatic pressure

E) Blood hydrostatic pressure

Q2) Which of the following constitutes the principal venous drainage of the thoracic organs?

A) The branches of the celiac trunk

B) The azygos system

C) The mesenteric circulation

D) The hepatic portal system

E) The coronary and pulmonary veins

Q3) Which vessel supplies 80% of the cerebrum?

A) Superficial temporal artery

B) Occipital artery

C) Internal carotid artery

D) Anterior cerebral artery

E) Middle cerebral artery

22

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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Beta cell destruction that causes type 1 diabetes mellitus is a(n)__________.

A) anaphylactic hypersensitivity

B) type IV (delayed)hypersensitivity

C) type III (immune complex)hypersensitivity

D) type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic)hypersensitivity

E) type I (acute)hypersensitivity

Q2) Helper T cells respond only to epitopes attached to MHC proteins.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following does(do)not belong to the second line of defense?

A) The macrophage system

B) Natural killer cells

C) Inflammation

D) The gastric juices

E) Interferon and the complement system

Q4) Some antibodies against foreign antigens can react to similar self-antigens,causing an autoimmune disease.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The amount of air in excess of tidal volume that can be inhaled with maximum effort is the __________.

A) vital capacity

B) inspiratory reserve volume

C) expiratory reserve volume

D) residual volume

E) inspiratory capacity

Q2) Which of the following would slow down gas exchange between the blood and alveolar air?

A) An increase in membrane thickness

B) An increase in alveolar surface area

C) An increase in respiratory rate

D) A decrease in membrane thickness

E) A decrease in nitrogen solubility

Q3) How is the vital capacity calculated?

A) Inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory volume

B) Inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume

C) Expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume

D) Expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume

E) Respiratory volume + tidal volume

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Chapter 23: The Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cells in the cleft between the afferent and efferent arterioles and among capillaries of the glomerulus are known as mesangial cells.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The pigment responsible for the color of urine is called __________.

A) monochrome

B) urochrome

C) cyanochrome

D) multichrome

E) pyuria

Q3) The __________ muscle is located in the urinary bladder.

A) detrusor

B) distractor

C) pubococcygeus

D) corpus spongiosum

E) corpus cavernosum

Q4) Angiotensin-converting enzyme is found only in the kidneys and converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.

A)True

B)False

Page 25

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Chapter 24: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Ina state of fluid balance, average daily fluid gains and losses are equal.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Fluid intake is governed mainly by hypothalamic neurons called .

A) baroreceptors

B) proprioceptors

C) nociceptors

D) osmoreceptors

E) mechanoreceptors

Q3) Where is the greatest volume of water in the body found?

A) Intracellular fluid (ICF)

B) Extracellular fluid(ECF)

C) Tissue(interstitial)fluid

D) Blood plasma and lymph

E) Transcellular fluid

Q4) Hypovolemia refers to a reduction in total body water while maintaining normal osmolarity.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 25: The Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The __________ synthesizes bile acids by metabolizing __________.

A) duodenum;neutral fats

B) ileum;bilirubin

C) gallbladder;cholesterol

D) pancreas;bile salts

E) liver;cholesterol

Q2) The oral phase of swallowing is under __________ control and the pharyngo-esophageal phase is __________.

A) central nervous system;also controlled by the central nervous system

B) central nervous system;controlled by autonomic reflexes

C) autonomic nervous system;controlled by autonomic reflexes

D) voluntary;also voluntary

E) involuntary;also involuntary

Q3) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the __________,whereas protein digestion begins in the __________.

A) liver;small intestine

B) small intestine;stomach

C) mouth;stomach

D) mouth;small intestine

E) stomach;small intestine

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Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the synthesis of glucose from amino acids called?

A) Glycogenesis

B) Glycogenolysis

C) Glycolysis

D) Gluconeogenesis

E) Glycogen catabolism

Q2) Fats should account for about __________ percent of the daily caloric intake.

A) 5

B) 10

C) 30

D) 60

E) 80

Q3) Which of the following is secreted during the postabsorptive state?

A) Gastrin

B) Insulin

C) Growth hormone

D) Cholecystokinin

E) Secretin

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28

Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Males produce sperm and females produce eggs.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following explains the neural mechanism of an erection?

A) It is an autonomic reflex mediated predominantly by parasympathetic nerve fibers.

B) It is an autonomic reflex mediated predominantly by sympathetic nerve fibers.

C) It is a somatic reflex mediated predominantly by parasympathetic nerve fibers.

D) It is a somatic reflex mediated predominantly by sympathetic nerve fibers.

E) It is an exclusively voluntary action mediated by the cerebral cortex.

Q3) Dilation of the __________ causes the lacunae to fill with blood and the penis to become erect.

A) helicine arteries

B) internal pudendal (penile)arteries

C) dorsal arteries

D) dorsal veins

E) deep arteries

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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The anterior margin of the ovary is anchored by a peritoneal fold called the

A) broad ligament

B) ovarian ligament

C) suspensory ligament

D) mesovarium

Q2) Pregnancy kits test for the presence of what hormone?

A) Progesterone

B) Human chorionic gonadotropin

C) Estrogen

D) Luteinizing hormone

E) Follicle-stimulating hormone

Q3) In the excitement phase,the uterus rises from its forward-tilted (anteverted)position.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Inhibin modulates the secretion of LH.

A)True

B)False

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the folllowing lists the stages or structures of prenatal development in the correct order?

A) Cleavage,zygote,morula,blastocyst,embryo,fetus

B) Zygote,morula,blastocyst,cleavage,embryo,fetus

C) Zygote,cleavage,morula,blastocyst,embryo,fetus

D) Zygote,embryo,morula,blastocyst,cleavage,fetus

E) Embryo,zygote,blastocyst,cleavage,morula,fetus

Q2) The _________ begins to develop about 11 days after conception,and is the sole source of fetal nutrition from the end of week 12 until birth.

A) yolk sac

B) placenta

C) amnion

D) trophoblast

E) blastocyst

Q3) Neonatal immunity depends on IgG and IgA acquired through the placenta and colostrum,respectively.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 30: Atlas a General Orientation to Human

Anatomy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The heart is in the __________ cavity and is covered by the __________.

A) thoracic;pleura

B) thoracic;pericardium

C) pericardial;pleura

D) pericardial;peritoneum

E) cranial;meninges

Q2) The cut of a guillotine (decapitation)is an example of a section done in the midsagittal plane.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The ___________ is an organ directly associated with the _________ and __________ systems.

A) stomach;digestive;reproductive

B) pancreas;digestive;endocrine

C) small intestine;digestive;integumentary

D) testis;male reproductive;urinary

E) ovary;female reproductive;lymphatic

Q4) The appendicular region consists of the head,neck and trunk.

A)True

B)False

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32

Turn static files into dynamic content formats.

Create a flipbook