Exercise Science
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Exercise Science is the study of how physical activity, exercise, and sport affect the human body, both physiologically and psychologically. This course explores topics such as anatomy, biomechanics, exercise physiology, nutrition, and motor learning, providing students with a comprehensive understanding of how the body responds and adapts to physical activity. Students will also learn to design safe and effective exercise programs for diverse populations, develop critical thinking skills in analyzing human movement, and explore the role of exercise in health promotion, injury prevention, and disease management. The course prepares students for advanced study or careers in fitness, rehabilitation, sports science, and related healthcare fields.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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29 Chapters
4487 Verified Questions
4487 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kidneys and ureters are organs of the ________ system.
A) endocrine
B) digestive
C) respiratory
D) urinary
E) lymphatic
Answer: D
Q2) The thoracic cavity contains the
A) coelom.
B) pericardial cavity.
C) pelvic cavity.
D) pleural cavities.
E) pericardial and pleural cavities.
Answer: E
Q3) Are the following anatomical landmarks visible from the anterior or posterior view: dorsal, gluteal, calcaneal? (Figure 1-3)
A) anterior
B) posterior
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which property of water helps keeps body temperature stabilized?
A) kinetic energy
B) lubrication
C) surface tension
D) reactivity
E) thermal inertia
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is false?
A) Hydrogen bonds are strong attractive forces between hydrogen atoms and negatively charged atoms.
B) Hydrogen bonds can occur within a single molecule.
C) Hydrogen bonds can form between neighboring molecules.
D) Hydrogen bonds are important for holding large molecules together.
E) Hydrogen bonds are responsible for many of the properties of water.
Answer: A
Q3) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.
Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane may be influenced by all of the following except
A) the availability of ATP.
B) the presence of membrane channels for the substance.
C) its charge of the substance.
D) its concentration gradient.
E) its lipid solubility.
Answer: A
Q2) Before a cell divides, its DNA must be replicated to
A) provide a backup copy of DNA in case the original DNA is damaged during mitosis.
B) replace the DNA lost during transcription.
C) supply each new cell with a full set of the genetic material.
D) replace genetic instructions used by the original cell.
E) use as an energy source during cytokinesis.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three types of protein fibers in connective tissue are
A) tendons, ligaments, and elastic ligaments.
B) loose, dense, and irregular.
C) cartilage, bone, and collagen.
D) collagen, reticular, and elastic.
E) polar, cellular, and permeable.
Q2) Cartilage is separated from surrounding tissues by a fibrous
A) perichondrium.
B) ground substance.
C) periosteum.
D) chondroplasm.
E) matrix.
Q3) What is the only type of cell found in cartilage matrix? (Figure 4-16)
A) fibroblasts
B) osteoblasts
C) osteoclasts
D) chondroblasts
E) chondrocytes
Q4) Compare the three types of muscle tissue. List three similarities and three differences among them.
6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two components of the integumentary system are the
A) epidermis and dermis.
B) cutaneous membrane and hypodermis.
C) cutaneous membrane and accessory structures.
D) integument and hypodermis.
E) epidermis and superficial fascia.
Q2) The protein that reduces water loss at the skin surface is
A) eleidin.
B) collagen.
C) mucin.
D) keratin.
E) melanin.
Q3) Why is regional infection or inflammation of the skin usually very painful?
Q4) Fine hairs (like "velvet") that lack pigment and cover much of the body surface are called ________ hairs.
A) veneer
B) gossamer
C) lanugo
D) vellus
E) terminal
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) An open or ________ fracture projects through the skin.
A) external
B) exposed
C) complex
D) compound
E) complicated
Q2) If osteoclasts are more active than osteoblasts, bones will become
A) denser.
B) thicker.
C) osteopenic.
D) stronger.
E) calcified.
Q3) The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage?
A) elastic cartilage
B) synovial cartilage
C) hyaline cartilage
D) fibrocartilage
E) osseous cartilage
Q4) What is the difference between ossification and calcification?
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ passes through the ________.
A) vagus nerve; foramen magnum
B) optic nerve; foramen ovale
C) vestibulocochlear nerve; external acoustic meatus
D) internal jugular vein; jugular foramen
E) internal carotid artery; jugular foramen
Q2) The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the
A) nasal bones.
B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone.
C) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bone.
D) vomer and sphenoid bone.
E) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and sphenoid bone.
Q3) Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 10
D) 12
E) 24
Q4) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the four proximal carpal bones?
A) scaphoid
B) lunate
C) pisiform
D) hamate
E) triquetrum
Q2) Identify the mismatched pair.
A) lunate; comma-shaped
B) triquetrum; boat-shaped
C) pisiform; pea-shaped
D) trapezoid; wedge-shaped
E) hamate; hook-shaped
Q3) Which structure articulates with the acetabulum?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 5
E) 9
Q4) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoralgirdle?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ankle joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint.
A) condylar
B) saddle
C) hinge
D) ball-and-socket
E) gliding
Q2) The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is a
A) suture.
B) gomphosis.
C) synchondrosis.
D) synotosis.
E) syndesmosis.
Q3) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different?
Q4) Which of the following movements is a good example of supination?
A) opening the mouth
B) turning the hand palm upward
C) extreme bending of the head backwards
D) moving the hand toward the shoulder
E) spreading the fingers
Q5) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the sarcomere the protein that forms two twisted strands around a central rod-like protein is called
A) titin.
B) actin.
C) G actin.
D) nebulin.
E) myosin.
Q2) Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle?
A) The striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin.
B) Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control.
C) Smooth muscle cells are uninucleate.
D) Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres.
E) The thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies.
Q3) Physical evidence that supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction includes
A) constant distance between Z lines during contraction.
B) decreased width of the H band during contraction.
C) increased width of the I band during contraction.
D) decreased width of the A band during contraction.
E) the I band + H band distance is constant during contraction.
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The origin of the frontalis muscle is the A) mandible.
B) frontal bone.
C) occipital bone.
D) epicranial aponeurosis.
E) forehead.
Q2) Give the origins of the heads of the triceps brachii. (Figure 11-17)
A) lateral surface of the humerus, infraglenoid tubercle of scapula, posterior surface of the humerus
B) lateral surface of the humerus, medial surface of the humerus, posterior surface of the humerus
C) lateral surface of the humerus, anterior surface of the humerus, posterior surface of the humerus
D) all on olecranon of ulna
E) coracoid process of scapula, supraglenoid tubercle of scapula, anterior surface of humerus
Q3) Shelly gives her son an ice-cream cone. The boy grasps the cone with his right hand, opens his mouth, andbegins to lick the ice cream. Which muscles does he use to perform these actions?
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Branches that may occur along an axon are called
A) telodendria.
B) synaptic terminals.
C) collaterals.
D) hillocks.
E) synapses.
Q2) When is the neuron in the relative refractory period?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) The largest and most numerous of the glial cells in the central nervous system are the
A) astrocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) microglia.
E) ependymal cells.
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14
Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following associations is incorrect?
A) 8 cervical spinal nerves
B) 11 thoracic spinal nerves
C) 5 lumbar spinal nerves
D) 5 sacral spinal nerves
E) 1 coccygeal spinal nerve
Q2) All of the following are true of muscle spindles except they
A) are found within skeletal muscle.
B) consist of specialized fibers called intrafusal fibers.
C) are found in tendons.
D) are the receptor for the stretch reflex.
E) are innervated by gamma motor neurons.
Q3) A motor neuron typically receives input from neurons that originate in various areas of the brain. Thistype of circuit is a
A) divergent circuit.
B) convergent circuit.
C) serial processing circuit.
D) parallel processing circuit.
E) reverberating circuit.
Q4) What is a reflex arc? What components must be present to qualify?
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rounded elevations of the cerebrum that increase its surface area are called
A) sulci.
B) fissures.
C) cortical folds.
D) gyri.
E) dural sinuses.
Q2) What contains a spider web-like network of cells and fibers through which cerebrospinal fluid flows?
A) subdural space
B) dural sinus
C) falx cerebri
D) subarachnoid space
E) pia mater
Q3) A tract of white matter that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the
A) amygdaloid body.
B) cingulate gyrus.
C) mammillary bodies.
D) hippocampus.
E) fornix.
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a progressive, degenerative disorder that affects upper and lower motor neurons causing skeletal muscle atrophy?
A) cerebral palsy
B) stroke
C) paralysis
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E) multiple sclerosis
Q2) The upper motor neurons of the medial pathway are located within any of the following except the
A) vestibular nuclei.
B) reticular formation.
C) superior colliculi.
D) inferior colliculi.
E) mammillary bodies.
Q3) Endorphins can reduce perception of sensations initiated by A) nociceptors.
B) mechanoreceptors.
C) thermoreceptors.
D) chemoreceptors.
E) proprioceptors.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a true statement regarding the sympathetic division?
A) PNS ganglia are near the vertebral column.
B) Preganglionic fibers are relatively short.
C) Preganglionic neurons are located between T1 and L2 of the spinal cord.
D) The effects are not widespread but very specific and localized.
E) Postganglionic fibers are relatively long.
Q2) Postganglionic fibers that innervate targets in the body wall or thoracic cavity originate on neurons within
A) intramural ganglia.
B) collateral ganglia.
C) sympathetic chain ganglia.
D) suprarenal ganglia.
E) white rami communicantes.
Q3) Which of the following is not controlled by the ANS?
A) skeletal muscle system
B) cardiovascular system
C) respiratory system
D) digestive system
E) urinary system
Page 18
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is false concerning lacrimal glands?
A) They produce a strongly hypertonic fluid.
B) They produce most of the volume of tears.
C) They produce lysozyme.
D) They produce watery, slightly alkaline secretions.
E) They are located in recesses in the frontal bones.
Q2) The vestibular nuclei at the boundary of the pons and the medulla function in all of the following except
A) integrating the vestibular information arriving from each side of the head.
B) relaying vestibular information to the cerebellum.
C) relaying vestibular information to the cerebral cortex.
D) sending commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord.
E) sending information to the vestibular complex of the inner ear.
Q3) Our taste buds are most receptive to which of the following types of compounds?
A) sweet
B) salty
C) sweet and salty
D) bitter
E) umami
Q4) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Follicle cells synthesize a protein called
A) calcitonin.
B) thyroglobulin.
C) transthyretin.
D) albumin.
E) colloid.
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the second-messenger mechanism of hormone action?
A) Hormone effects are amplified.
B) G proteins and cAMP are used.
C) Receptors are on the cell surface.
D) Cellular operations are altered by direct stimulation of a gene.
E) Kinases may phosphorylate proteins.
Q3) Hormones known as "catecholamines" are
A) lipids.
B) peptides.
C) steroids.
D) derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine.
E) derivatives of reproductive glands.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jane has Type A blood; therefore, she
A) has antibodies to B agglutinogens.
B) can give blood to other people with Type A blood only.
C) can receive blood from other people with Type A blood only.
D) makes anti-A without ever having been exposed to Type A blood.
E) has B antigen on her RBCs.
Q2) Each molecule of heme contains a single ion of what element? (Figure 19-3)
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) magnesium
D) iron
E) calcium
Q3) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?
A) pancreas
B) heart
C) kidney
D) brain
E) liver
Q4) How does Rhogam prevent erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN, hemolytic disease of the newborn)?
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "19."
A) tricuspid valve
B) pulmonary semilunar valve
C) aortic semilunar valve
D) bicuspid valve
E) ligamentum arteriosum
Q2) The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the
A) foramen ovale.
B) interatrial septum.
C) coronary sinus.
D) fossa ovalis.
E) ligamentum arteriosus.
Q3) If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked,
A) the ventricles will beat faster.
B) the ventricles will beat more slowly.
C) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged.
D) cardiac output will increase.
E) the atria will contract more forcefully.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following opposes the flow of blood back to the heart?
A) vascular resistance
B) peripheral veins have valves to prevent backflow of blood
C) muscular pumps squeeze veins and move blood toward the heart
D) blood pressure
E) blood pressure gradient from arteries to veins
Q2) The developing fetus receives nutrient rich blood through the
A) umbilical artery.
B) placental artery.
C) gonadal artery.
D) umbilical vein.
E) placental vein.
Q3) When a person rises quickly from a sitting position, all of the following reactions will occur except
A) the carotid baroreceptors become less active.
B) venous return is decreased.
C) reflex vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels occurs.
D) heart rate is reflexively elevated.
E) cardiac output will decrease.
Q4) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The complement system works closely with and complements the action of A) interferons.
B) antibodies.
C) pyrogens.
D) phagocytes.
E) microphages.
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of anaphylaxis except A) the first exposure does not always lead to a reaction.
B) IgE antibodies are produced.
C) symptoms include capillary dilation, airway constriction, pain and itching.
D) helper T cells are destroyed.
E) sensitized mast cells and basophils are stimulated upon each exposure to an allergen.
Q3) If the thymus shrank and stopped making thymosins, we would expect to see an immediate decrease in the number of A) B lymphocytes.
B) NK cells.
C) T cells.
D) neutrophils.
E) red blood cells.
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24
Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the relationship between the pressures at label "3"?
A) P outside = P inside
B) P outside > P inside
C) P outside < P inside
D) P outside + P inside
E) P outside - P inside
Q2) As an astronaut is lifted into Earth's orbit, what is the first change to take place in response to thedrop in cabin pressure?
A) increased hematocrit
B) renal hypoxia
C) increased alveolar ventilation rate
D) decreased alveolar PO2
E) decreased hemoglobin saturation
Q3) The ________ inhibit the apneustic centers and promote passive or active exhalation.
A) DRG
B) VRG
C) pheumotaxic centers
D) LRG
E) inspiratory centers
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fusion of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct forms the A) hepatic portal vein.
B) porta hepatis.
C) bile duct.
D) common pancreatic duct.
E) bile canaliculus.
Q2) In the center of a liver lobule there is a A) hepatic duct.
B) portal area.
C) sinusoid.
D) central vein.
E) portal vein.
Q3) The part of the stomach that functions as a mixing chamber for food and secretions is the
A) body.
B) antrum.
C) pyloric part.
D) cardia.
E) fundus.
Q4) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a way to conserve or generate heat?
A) shivering thermogenesis
B) nonshivering thermogenesis
C) vasoconstriction in the skin
D) increasing the depth of respirations
E) release of thyroxine
Q2) When NAD+ is ________ it becomes NADH. When NADH is ________ it becomes NAD+.
A) phosphorylated; deaminated
B) reduced; oxidized
C) made; recycled
D) phosphorylated; dephosphorylated
E) oxidized; reduced
Q3) What is the molecule labeled "2"?
A) hydrogen atoms
B) citric acid
C) NADH
D) carbon dioxide
E) FADH2
Q4) List and briefly describe the body's five metabolic components.
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Q5) What happens during protein catabolism? How is this related to nitrogen balance?
Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) The cells of the macula densa, the juxtaglomerular cells, and the extraglomerular mesangial cells form the
A) renal corpuscle.
B) filtration membrane.
C) nephron loop (loop of Henle).
D) juxtaglomerular complex.
E) afferent arteriole.
Q2) When the level of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) decreases,
A) a concentrated urine is produced.
B) less urine is produced.
C) the osmolarity of the urine decreases.
D) permeability to water in the collecting system increases.
E) water reabsorption increases in the nephron loop.
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "4."
A) renal pelvis
B) minor calyx
C) ureter
D) major calyx
E) renal column
Q4) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an adult female, the body consists of about ________ percent water.
A) 60
B) 50
C) 40
D) 70
E) 80
Q2) The normal pH range for ECF is
A) 6.5 to 7.5.
B) 6.8 to 7.2.
C) 7 to 7.5.
D) 7.35 to 7.45.
E) 7.5 to 8.0.
Q3) Administration of a medication in the elderly can result in a much higher dosage than the clinician might intend because
A) the metabolic rate in the elderly is so high.
B) the kidneys of the elderly do not work well.
C) the elderly have less water content in the body.
D) other medications they take might enhance the concentration of another drug.
E) they cannot regulate pH well.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contractions of the skeletal muscles of the pelvic floor result in
A) erection.
B) emission.
C) ejaculation.
D) detumescence.
E) impotence.
Q2) Which of the following statements about oogenesis is false?
A) The polar body is the egg cell which is then fertilized by the sperm cell.
B) Far fewer eggs are produced by the female than sperm produced by the male.
C) Meiosis I begins in the female fetus.
D) Meiosis II is not completed until after the egg cell makes contact with the sperm cell.
E) The lack of viable oogonia in the ovaries leads to menopause in the female.
Q3) In which structure does gestation occur?
A) 1
B) 4
C) 9
D) 11
E) 13
Q4) Explain how estrogen and progesterone control each phase of the uterine cycle.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The layer of follicle cells that surround the unfertilized egg is called the A) zona pellucida.
B) corona radiata.
C) Graafian follicle.
D) functional zone.
E) tunica follicularis.
Q2) What hormones stimulate and increase the excitability of the myometrium? (Figure 29-10)
A) oxytocin and prostaglandins
B) prolactin and prostaglandins
C) estrogen and progesterone
D) oxytocin and progesterone
E) estrogen and prostaglandins
Q3) The outer layer of the blastocyst that can penetrate the endometrium is the A) archegonium.
B) chorion.
C) gastrula.
D) blastula.
E) trophoblast.
Q4) What activity during oocyte activation prevents penetration by additional sperm?
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