Exercise Science Exam Review
Course Introduction
Exercise Science explores the anatomical, physiological, biomechanical, and psychological principles underlying human movement and physical activity. This course examines how the body responds and adapts to exercise, including the effects on cardiovascular, respiratory, muscular, and nervous systems. Students will gain foundational knowledge in exercise testing, prescription, and program design, with consideration for health promotion, performance enhancement, and the prevention and management of chronic diseases. The course also introduces research methodologies, ethical considerations, and current trends in the field, preparing students for professional roles in health, fitness, rehabilitation, and sports performance settings.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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29 Chapters
4487 Verified Questions
4487 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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95 Verified Questions
95 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiovascular function is an example of A) histophysiology.
B) organ physiology.
C) systemic physiology.
D) pathological physiology.
E) physiological chemistry.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to the foot?
A) cervical
B) brachial
C) antebrachial
D) femoral
E) pedal
Answer: E
Q3) Are the following anatomical landmarks visible from the anterior or posterior view: dorsal, gluteal, calcaneal? (Figure 1-3)
A) anterior
B) posterior
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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183 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muddy lake water is an example of a(n)
A) colloid.
B) suspension.
C) solute.
D) solvent.
E) solution.
Answer: B
Q2) What is the [H+] in pure water?
A) 1X10-7 mol/L
B) 1X10-14 mol/L
C) 7 mol/L
D) 1X107 mol/L
E) 1X1014 mol/L
Answer: A
Q3) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.
Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.
Q4) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two reactants shown here that are necessary for energy production? What are the three productsshown here as a result of this reaction? (Figure 3-9)
A) oxygen and ATP; carbon dioxide, pyruvate, and water
B) oxygen and carbon dioxide; pyruvate, carbon dioxide, and water
C) water and pyruvate; oxygen, carbon dioxide, and ATP
D) oxygen and pyruvate; carbon dioxide, ATP, and water
E) carbon dioxide and pyruvate; oxygen, ATP, and water
Answer: D
Q2) Each of the following is an example of a nonmembranous organelle except A) lysosomes.
B) cilia.
C) centrioles.
D) ribosomes.
E) cytoskeleton.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Growth of cartilage by accumulation of new matrix around chondrocytes that are embedded in existing matrixis called ________ growth.
A) appositional
B) intrasitional
C) transitional
D) transformational
E) interstitial
Q2) Where is the tissue level of organization?
A) between cells and organs
B) between organelles and cells
C) between organs and organ systems
D) between atoms and molecules
E) between molecules and organelles
Q3) The function of ________ is to propagate electrical signals from one place to another.
A) muscle cells
B) neurons
C) transmitter cells
D) teleocytes
E) neuroglia
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterial infection that is often fatal in burn patients is called A) sepsis.
B) necrosis.
C) toxis.
D) pernicious.
E) noxious.
Q2) Glands that discharge an oily secretion into hair follicles are ________ glands.
A) ceruminous
B) apocrine sweat
C) merocrine sweat
D) sebaceous
E) mammary
Q3) The ________ glands in the axilla become active at the time of puberty.
A) ceruminous
B) apocrine sweat
C) merocrine sweat
D) sebaceous
E) axillary
Q4) Explain how to use the mnemonic ABCD when checking for signs of skin cancer.
Q5) Why is regional infection or inflammation of the skin usually very painful?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between ossification and calcification?
Q2) Intramembranous ossification begins with differentiation of ________ cells.
A) osteoclast
B) osteolytic
C) mesenchymal
D) osteoblast
E) osteocyte
Q3) The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones.
A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) irregular
E) sesamoid
Q4) The fracture of vertebrae subjected to extreme vertical stress is called a ________ fracture.
A) comminuted
B) greenstick
C) compression
D) transverse
E) spiral
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The role(s) of the sinuses include(s)
A) making the skull lighter.
B) production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air.
C) increasing surface area for gas exchange.
D) extra source of air and increasing surface area for gas exchange.
E) making the skull lighter and production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air.
Q2) What is the name of the structure labeled "8"?
A) sella turcica
B) foramen ovale
C) foramen rotundum
D) carotid canal
E) foramen spinosum
Q3) Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone except the
A) mastoid cells.
B) petrous portion.
C) sella turcica.
D) internal acoustic meatus.
E) mandibular fossa.
Q4) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The short projections at the distal ends of both the radius and ulna are the
A) styloid processes.
B) radial head and ulnar head.
C) radial head and olecranon.
D) medial and lateral epicondyles.
E) medial and lateral malleolus.
Q2) In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius.
A) distal
B) proximal
C) medial
D) superior
E) lateral
Q3) Which of the following processes is not found on the ulna?
A) styloid process of ulna
B) olecranon
C) radial notch
D) coronoid process
E) trochlea
Q4) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoralgirdle?
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following movements is a good example of abduction?
A) opening the mouth
B) turning the hand palm upward
C) extreme bending of the head backwards
D) moving the hand toward the shoulder
E) spreading the fingers
Q2) Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints?
A) freely movable
B) lined by a secretory epithelium
C) covered by a serous membrane
D) contain synovial fluid
E) covered by a capsule
Q3) Contraction of the muscle that is attached to the radial tuberosity results in A) flexion of the forearm.
B) extension of the forearm.
C) abduction of the forearm.
D) adduction of the forearm.
E) rotation of the shoulder.
Q4) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce?
Q5) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle?
A) It would make the muscles less excitable.
B) It would produce muscle weakness.
C) It would cause muscles to stay contracted.
D) It would cause muscles to stay relaxed.
E) It would have little effect on skeletal muscles.
Q2) The type of contraction where the tension exceeds the load is called
A) isometric contraction.
B) isotonic eccentric contraction.
C) isotonic concentric contraction.
D) isometric concentric contraction.
E) isometric eccentric contraction.
Q3) In response to action potentials arriving along the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases
A) acetylcholine.
B) sodium ions.
C) potassium ions.
D) calcium ions.
E) hydrogen ions.
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles located close to the midline of the body may be called
A) rectus.
B) distalis.
C) proximal.
D) medialis.
E) lateralis.
Q2) Which of the following is not an extrinsic eye muscle?
A) inferior rectus
B) rectus abdominis
C) lateral rectus
D) medial rectus
E) superior oblique
Q3) The inferior rectus is innervated by which nerve?
A) abducens
B) trigeminal
C) facial
D) trochlear
E) oculomotor
Q4) Jeff is interested in toning his abdomen. What muscles would you tell Jeff to exercise to accomplish hisgoal? What movements would best exercise these muscles?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Branches that may occur along an axon are called
A) telodendria.
B) synaptic terminals.
C) collaterals.
D) hillocks.
E) synapses.
Q2) Below are the events that occur during continuous propagation of action potential. Select the correct order in which the events occur.
1) Adjacent membrane segment depolarizes.
2) Local current spreads to adjacent voltage gated channel.
3) Threshold is met.
4) Local current develops due to sodium moving in the cytosol.
A) 2,4,3,1
B) 2,4,1,3
C) 4,2,3,1
D) 4,2,1,3
E) 1,4,2,3
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reflexes based on synapses formed during development are ________ reflexes.
A) visceral
B) innate
C) acquired
D) somatic
E) intersegmental
Q2) These structures extending from the pia mater through to the dura mater support the spinal cord by preventing lateral movement.
A) coccygeal ligament
B) rami communicantes
C) cauda equina
D) denticulate ligaments
E) spinal ligaments
Q3) What is the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater? (Figure 13-3)
A) dura mater
B) subdural space
C) subarachnoid space
D) denticulate space
E) epidural space
Q4) What is a reflex arc? What components must be present to qualify?
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The region of the brain responsible for predicting the consequence of events or actions is the
A) prefrontal cerebral cortex.
B) occipital association cortex.
C) reticular formation.
D) temporal lobe.
E) premotor cortex.
Q2) The dural venous sinuses are located in the A) paranasal cavity.
B) arachnoid folds.
C) pia mater.
D) dural folds.
E) tentorium cerebelli.
Q3) The structure of the brain that carries ascending sensory information to the thalamus is the
A) midbrain.
B) cerebral aqueduct.
C) 4th ventricle.
D) basal ganglion.
E) cerebellum.
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The heart muscle is a ________ effector.
A) somatic
B) sympathetic
C) visceral
D) afferent
E) higher-order
Q2) Using the two-point discrimination test you can fairly accurately determine whether you have been touchedwith one point or two because of the density of the A) effectors.
B) perception.
C) labeled line.
D) receptor fields.
E) action potential.
Q3) The corticospinal pathway begins in which area of the brain?
A) somatosensory cortex
B) primary motor cortex
C) midbrain
D) vestibular nuclei
E) red nuclei
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A state of unconsciousness in which an individual cannot be aroused even by strong stimuli is
A) somnolence.
B) sleep.
C) stupor.
D) coma.
E) a chronic vegetative state.
Q2) Nerve networks that include both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers that reach the same structure are called
A) somatic plexuses.
B) somatic ganglia.
C) autonomic plexuses.
D) autonomic ganglia.
E) central plexuses.
Q3) Which of the following is correctly matched?
A) sympathetic: short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers
B) sympathetic: short preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers
C) sympathetic: long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers
D) parasympathetic: short preganglion and long postganglionic fibers
Page 18
E) parasympathetic: contains only preganglionic fibers
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) When all three cone populations are stimulated equally, we perceive
A) red.
B) blue.
C) green.
D) white.
E) black.
Q2) ________ cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells.
A) Bipolar
B) Ganglion
C) Amacrine
D) Cone
E) Rod
Q3) If your vision is 20/15, this means that you can see
A) 20-point font at 15 feet.
B) objects at 20 feet that individuals with normal eyesight can see at 15 feet.
C) objects at 15 feet that individuals with eye problems see at 20 feet.
D) all 15 eye chart letters from 20 feet.
E) objects that are 20 feet or less away.
Q4) How would blockage of the auditory (Eustachian) tube at its exit in the nasopharynx by lymphatic tissue ("adenoids") affect ear function and health?
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intracellular calcium stores open in response to intracellular activation of A) protein kinase C, diacylglycerol, and inositol triphosphate.
B) calmodulin.
C) leukotrienes.
D) adenylate cyclase.
E) phosphodiesterase, adenylate cyclase, and prostacyclins.
Q2) In persons with untreated diabetes mellitus all of the following are true, except A) blood glucose levels are very high.
B) excessive thirst is shown.
C) glucose is present in the urine in large amounts.
D) a large excretion of urine occurs.
E) intracellular and tissue levels of glucose is very high.
Q3) Which of the following is not true regarding Type 1 Diabetes?
A) pancreatic destruction of beta cells
B) need insulin injections or infusion
C) tissues exhibit insulin resistance
D) accounts for only about 5% of cases of diabetes
E) usually diagnosed in children or young adults
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sign of thrombocytopenia would be A) a drop in oxygen-carrying capacity.
B) allergic reactions.
C) bacterial infections.
D) excessive clotting.
E) bleeding.
Q2) The process of lymphopoiesis occurs mainly in the A) spleen.
B) kidneys.
C) lymph nodes.
D) red bone marrow.
E) thymus.
Q3) Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called A) erythroblasts.
B) normoblasts.
C) megakaryocytes.
D) myeloblasts.
E) lymphoblasts.
Q4) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic?
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries.
A) pulmonary
B) coronary
C) circumflex
D) carotid
E) subclavian
Q2) The connective tissues of the heart are important for all of the following reasons except
A) they help distribute the forces of contraction.
B) they prevent overexpansion of the heart.
C) they provide support for blood vessels and nerves.
D) they produce the pericardial fluid.
E) they provide elasticity to help the heart return to its original shape after contraction.
Q3) Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of A) cardiac muscle cells.
B) chondrocytes.
C) epithelial cells.
D) fibrocytes.
E) smooth muscle cells.
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Veins from the spleen, pancreas, and lateral border of the stomach unite to form the
A) celiac trunk.
B) hepatic portal vein.
C) splenic vein.
D) gastric vein.
E) superior mesenteric vein.
Q2) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the head and neck is the ________ artery.
A) brachiocephalic
B) vertebral
C) subclavian
D) common carotid
E) cervical
Q3) In which of the following would the blood flow be highest?
A) a vessel 0.5 cm in diameter and 2 meters long
B) a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 10 meters long
C) a vessel 0.5 cm in diameter and 4 meters long
D) a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 2 meters long
Q4) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A T cell can only become activated after being physically or chemically stimulated by the abnormal targetcell in a process called
A) costimulation.
B) opsonization.
C) sensitization.
D) neutralization.
E) precipitation.
Q2) An important protein in the activation of the alternative pathway of complement activation is
A) properdin.
B) interferon.
C) histamine.
D) fibrin.
E) C1.
Q3) Which of the following statements about lymph flow in a node is false?
A) Lymph enters in an afferent lymphatic.
B) Lymph first enters the subcapsular space.
C) Lymph flows past dendritic cells.
D) The efferent lymphatic exits at the hilum.
E) The afferent lymphatic enters at the hilum.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name the primary muscles of inspiration. (Figure 23-14)
A) internal intercostal muscles and external intercostal muscles
B) diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
C) diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
D) rectus abdominis and transversus thoracis
E) serratus anterior and rectus abdominus
Q2) Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known?
A) respiratory minute volume
B) inspiratory reserve volume
C) expiratory reserve volume
D) anatomical dead space
E) forced vital capacity
Q3) If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally,
A) a person would stop breathing.
B) pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly.
C) the respiratory minute volume would increase.
D) tidal volumes would decrease.
E) alveolar ventilation would increase.
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why?
Q2) The stomach secretes the hormone ghrelin which functions to A) inhibit hunger.
B) initiate secretion of gastric juice containing enzymes and acid.
C) regulate the digestion of lipids.
D) stimulate hunger.
E) stimulate secretion of mucus from submucosal glands.
Q3) Which is not true of pancreatic enzymes?
A) Their primary site of action is the pancreas.
B) The majority are proteases.
C) Most are secreted as proenzymes.
D) They digest carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
E) They are produced by exocrine tissue.
Q4) Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis externa is the
A) mucosa.
B) submucosa.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) myenteric plexus.
E) submucosal neural plexus.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vitamin that is required for proper bone growth and for calcium absorption and retention is vitamin
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.
Q2) The strategy of eating starchy foods for several days before an athletic event is known as
A) carbohydrate craving.
B) the Atkins diet.
C) carbohydrate loading.
D) glycolysis reaction.
E) overeating.
Q3) The vitamin that is a constituent of coenzyme A is
A) folic acid (folate).
B) pantothenic acid.
C) pyridoxine (B6).
D) riboflavin.
E) niacin.
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The filtration of plasma takes place in the A) nephron loop (loop of Henle).
B) distal convoluted tubule.
C) papillary duct.
D) renal corpuscle.
E) ureter.
Q2) Prolonged aldosterone stimulation of the distal convoluted tubule may result in A) hypercalcemia.
B) hypocalcemia.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hyperkalemia.
E) alkalosis.
Q3) In glomerulonephritis, the normal filtration barrier is damaged and becomes far more permeable to plasmaproteins, such as albumin along with other solutes. How would that affect glomerular filtration?
Q4) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function.
Q5) What is the creatinine clearance test? How can it be used to estimate GFR? How accurate is it?
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two organs that play an important role in maintaining acid-base balance are the
A) liver and gallbladder.
B) liver and kidneys.
C) heart and lungs.
D) lungs and kidneys.
E) heart and liver.
Q2) Homeostatic mechanisms that monitor and adjust the composition of body fluids respond to changes in the ________ fluid.
A) lymphatic
B) intracellular
C) plasma
D) extracellular
E) cerebrospinal
Q3) Exchange between the two main subdivisions of ECF occurs primarily at the A) veins.
B) muscles.
C) tissues.
D) capillaries.
E) arteries.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ is the region of the vagina that surrounds the cervix.
A) rugae
B) vaginal fornix
C) dartos
D) fundus
E) external os
Q2) The PSA test is used for diagnosis of
A) testicular cancer.
B) penile cancer.
C) prostatitis.
D) premature puberty.
E) prostate cancer.
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "11."
A) bulbo-urethral gland
B) prostate gland
C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle)
D) epididymis
E) ductus deferens
Q4) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different?
Q5) Explain how estrogen and progesterone control each phase of the uterine cycle.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gene for normal skin pigment (A) can also code for the recessive trait of albinism (a). An albino manand a homozygous normal pigmented woman marry and have four children. What is the phenotype of the children?
A) 75% normal skin pigment and 25% albino
B) 100% normal skin pigment
C) 50% normal skin pigment and 50% albino
D) 25% normal skin pigment and 75% albino
E) 100% albino
Q2) Identify the stage labeled "8."
A) zygote
B) early morula
C) blastomere
D) trophoblast
E) advanced morula
Q3) Which of the following places the stages of labor in the correct order?
A) placental, expulsion, dilation
B) placental, dilation, expulsion
C) expulsion, dilation, placental
D) dilation, placental, expulsion
E) dilation, expulsion, placental
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