Course Introduction
Exercise Science Exam
Materials
Exercise Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the scientific principles underlying human movement, physical activity, and exercise. The course examines topics such as anatomy, physiology, biomechanics, and nutrition as they relate to physical performance, health, and disease prevention. Students will develop an understanding of how the body responds and adapts to exercise, and learn to design effective training and wellness programs for diverse populations. Throughout the course, evidence-based approaches to enhancing fitness, promoting lifelong health, and reducing the risk of chronic conditions are emphasized.
Recommended Textbook
Examination of Orthopedic Athletic Injuries 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
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20 Chapters
843 Verified Questions
843 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Examination Process
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered a sign of shock?
A) Slow, strong pulse
B) Deep breathing
C) High blood pressure
D) Excessive thirst
Answer: D
Q2) Blood accumulation can result in what type of tissue density change?
A) Dense/viscous
B) Dense thickening
C) Hard, warm
D) Spongy
Answer: C
Q3) In deep tendon reflex grading,hyperreflexia is graded as which of the following?
A) 0
B) 1+
C) 2+
D) 3+
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Examination and Management of Acute Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the inspection portion of the on-field evaluation,which of the following is not a finding that warrants immediate physician referral?
A) Obvious fracture
B) Unequal chest expansion
C) Obvious joint dislocation
D) Report of significant chest pain
Answer: D
Q2) After removal from the field,a more detailed examination process ensues.Which of the following is not a goal of this examination?
A) Obtain enough information to formulate a return-to-play decision.
B) Determine long-term rehabilitation goals.
C) Determine a diagnosis.
D) Decide on an immediate plan of care.
Answer: B
Q3) Assessing motor function distal to the site of injury is indicated whether or not you have to move the involved bone or joint.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Practice in the Diagnostic Process
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following choices represents the highest reliability?
A) 0.83
B) 0.91
C) 0.29
D) 0.50
Answer: B
Q2) What reliability coefficient should be used when comparing clinicians?
A) Kappa
B) Gamma
C) Delta
D) Alpha
Answer: A
Q3) What is a general term to describe how often results correctly identify whether a pathology is present?
A) Pretest probability
B) Prevalence
C) Efficacy
D) Diagnostic accuracy
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Injury Pathology Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests would be used to assess a patellar subluxation?
A) Valgus stress test
B) Varus stress test
C) Apprehension test
D) McMurray's test
Q2) What term is used to describe an inflammation of the muscle tendon sheath?
A) Tenosynovitis
B) Peritendinitis
C) Tendinitis
D) Tendinosis
Q3) What type of fracture typically results from direct trauma to flat bones?
A) Depressed fracture
B) Transverse fracture
C) Comminuted fracture
D) Compacted fracture
Q4) What type of muscle action is associated with the dynamic overload of a muscle?
A) Eccentric
B) Concentric
C) Isotonic
D) Isometric
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Chapter 5: Musculoskeletal Diagnostic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the oldest form of diagnostic imaging?
A) Radiograph
B) CT scan
C) MRI
D) Arthrogram
Q2) For which structure is an arthrogram best used to identify pathology?
A) Spinal canal
B) Blood vessels
C) Muscle
D) Articular cartilage lesions
Q3) Cortical bone appears darker than cancellous when looking at a radiograph.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following must be used when performing diagnostic ultrasound?
A) A coupling medium
B) A radiographic dye
C) An electrical current administered through the limbs
D) Electrodes, placed around the area being observed
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Chapter 6: Assessment of Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) When observing posture from the lateral side,which of the following structures is not one that should be on the plumb line?
A) Plumb line is slightly posterior to the lateral malleolus.
B) Plumb line is posterior to the lateral femoral condyle.
C) Plumb line bisects the greater trochanter.
D) Plumb line bisects the acromion process.
Q2) Which of the following is not a cause for a swayback posture?
A) Weak hamstrings
B) Poor postural sense
C) Tightened or shortened hip extensors
D) Weakened or elongated hip flexors or lower abdominals
Q3) When determining pelvic position,which of the following would be the measurement between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)and the posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS)if the patient had anterior pelvic tilt?
A) Less than a 10° angle between the ASIS and PSIS relative to horizontal
B) More than an 8° angle between the ASIS and PSIS relative to horizontal
C) More than a 10° angle between the ASIS and PSIS relative to horizontal
D) Less than an 8° angle between the ASIS and PSIS relative to horizontal
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8
Chapter 7: Evaluation of Gait
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the swing phase of gait,what compensation is associated with a hamstring strain?
A) Impaired ability to decelerate leg during the terminal swing
B) Decreased knee flexion during midswing
C) Decreased hip flexion during initial swing
D) Toeing out during initial swing
Q2) According to the evidence,which of the following has not been tied to increased magnitude of vertical ground reaction force?
A) Uphill running
B) Increased walking speed
C) Aging
D) Harder contact surface
Q3) What happens to the amount of time spent in the stance phase of gait during a running gait?
A) The amount of time increases.
B) The amount of time decreases.
C) There is no change from a walking gait to a running gait.
D) The stance phase disappears during a running gait.
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9
Chapter 8: Foot and Toe Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drop is considered normal when performing the navicular drop test?
A) 0.6 to 1.8 cm
B) 1.8 to 2.3 cm
C) 0 to 0.6 cm
D) 0 cm
Q2) What bone(s)of the foot is (are)responsible for assisting in absorbing and redirecting weight-bearing forces,reducing friction,and protecting the tendon?
A) Talus
B) Calcaneus
C) Sesamoids
D) Navicular
Q3) What structure serves to provide inferior support to the talus and is generally found one thumb's width below the medial malleolus?
A) Navicular
B) First cuneiform
C) Sustentaculum tali
D) Plantar fascia
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Chapter 9: Ankle and Leg Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What portion of the tibia is primarily covered only by skin?
A) Anterolateral
B) Anteromedial
C) Posterolateral
D) Posteromedial
Q2) What is the normal active range of motion (ROM)for ankle plantar flexion?
A) 0° to 75°
B) 0° to 20°
C) 0° to 60°
D) 0° to 50°
Q3) Joint stability tests (stress testing and special tests)are most accurate when they are performed how many days following injury?
A) 1 to 2 days
B) 2 to 4 days
C) 4 to 7 days
D) 7 to 10 days
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11
Chapter 10: Knee Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tibiofemoral joint has a double condyloid articulation that allows for how many degrees of freedom of movement?
A) 1°
B) 2°
C) 3°
D) 4°
Q2) During open-chained kinetic exercise,at what range of motion (ROM)is the strain on the ACL the greatest?
A) 0° to 30° of extension
B) 0° to 30° of flexion
C) Full extension
D) 120° of flexion
Q3) At which position should the knee be placed in order to palpate the menisci?
A) 15° of flexion
B) 30° of flexion
C) 45° of flexion
D) 0° of flexion
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12
Chapter 11: Patellofemoral Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What injury is indicated by a positive apprehension test?
A) Patellar malalignment
B) Patellar subluxation or dislocation
C) Patella alta
D) Patella baja
Q2) Which of the following techniques measures the Q angle?
A) Proximal arm: anterior inferior iliac spine; axis: tibial tuberosity; distal arm: lateral malleolus
B) Proximal arm: ASIS; axis: midpoint of patella; distal arm: tibial tuberosity
C) Proximal arm: ASIS; axis: midpoint of patella; distal arm: medial malleolus
D) Proximal arm: greater trochanter; axis: midpoint of patella; distal arm: tibial tuberosity
Q3) With the knee extended,which direction should a patella be moved in order to palpate the odd facet?
A) Lateral
B) Medial
C) Lateral or medial
D) The patella does not need to be moved.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Pelvis and Thigh Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the ligament that originates off of the ASIS and inserts at the pubic symphysis?
A) Ligamentum teres
B) Inguinal ligament
C) Iliofemoral ligament
D) Pubofemoral ligament
Q2) In what position is the hip when in Bonnet's position?
A) Extension, adduction, and internal rotation
B) Extension, abduction, and internal rotation
C) Flexion, abduction, and external rotation
D) Flexion, adduction, and external rotation
Q3) Which represents the modified Ober test?
A) The knee of the involved leg is placed in an extended position.
B) The knee of the involved leg is placed in 45° of knee flexion.
C) The knee of the involved leg is placed in 90° of knee flexion.
D) The knee of the involved leg is placed in full knee flexion.
Q4) When measuring hip abduction and adduction,the distal arm is placed parallel to the midline of the body.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Lumbosacral Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the amount of stress placed on the lumbar intervertebral discs when a person is sitting and leaning forward?
A) 165 lb (75 kg) of pressure
B) 220 lb (100 kg) of pressure
C) 386 lb (175 kg) of pressure
D) 606 lb (275 kg) of pressure
Q2) Which of the following tests is not used to identify intervertebral disc lesions?
A) Hoover test
B) Femoral nerve stretch test
C) Tension sign
D) Milgram's test
Q3) Which of the following describes the first sacral vertebra failing to unite with the remainder of the sacrum?
A) Lumbarization
B) Sacralization
C) Lamination
D) Delamination
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Chapter 14: Cervical and Thoracic Spine and Thorax Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is false?
A) Lymph nodes are palpable beneath the mandible and within the scalenes.
B) The scalenes are located posterior to the sternocleidomastoid and at the C3-C6 vertebral level.
C) The larynx sits behind the thyroid cartilage and is found at the C4-C5 vertebral level.
D) The hyoid bone is located at the C3 vertebral level.
Q2) What is the least common form of thoracic outlet syndrome?
A) Neurogenic
B) Vascular
C) Nonspecific
D) Cervical rib
Q3) A congenital or acquired spasm of the sternocleidomastoid muscle that causes rotation of the chin opposite the side of the tilt is commonly referred to as what condition?
A) Stenosis
B) Scoliosis
C) Torticollis
D) Spondylolisthesis
Q4) The supraspinous ligament is called the _______ ________ in the cervical region.
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Chapter 15: Shoulder and Upper Arm Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the only member of the rotator cuff group that internally rotates the humerus?
A) Supraspinatus
B) Infraspinatus
C) Teres minor
D) Subscapularis
Q2) The scapular retraction test is used to identify which of the following?
A) Role of scapular dysfunction in pathology
B) Presence of impingement
C) Degree of anterior GH instability
D) Strength of the rhomboid major and minor
Q3) When performing a GH load and shift,the reliability between testers greatly improves if a two-point grading scale is used.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The GH joint generally lacks bony support,but due to the ligamentous and muscular support,it is a stable joint.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name all the muscles that have a direct action on the scapula.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Elbow and Forearm Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the structures within the cubital fossa.
Q2) What forms the lateral humeral articulating surface on the distal border of the lateral epicondyle?
A) Trochlea
B) Capitellum
C) Radial fossa
D) Semilunar notch
Q3) Name the four individual articulations of the elbow.
Q4) Which of the following nerves is compressed as a result of pronator teres syndrome?
A) Anterior interosseous
B) Ulnar
C) Median
D) Radial
Q5) What is the typical carrying angle of the elbow for men?
A) 0° to 5°
B) 5° to 19°
C) 11° to 14°
D) 15° to 21°
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Wrist, Hand, and Finger Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which wrist pathology is commonly associated with clicking on the ulnar side of the wrist?
A) Trigger finger
B) Triangular fibrocartilage tear
C) Tenosynovities
D) De Quervain syndrome
Q2) Which of the following does not pass through the carpal tunnel?
A) Median nerve
B) Flexor pollicis longus
C) Flexor digitorum profundus tendons
D) Flexor pollicis brevis
Q3) The deep branch of what nerve innervates the hypothenar eminence?
A) Radial
B) Ulnar
C) Median
D) Interosseous
Q4) Name the two muscles of the flexor grouping that are not innervated by the median nerve.
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Chapter 18: Eye Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The efferent lesion associated with a positive pupillary reaction test can affect the retina or optic nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is 20/20 vision,or the ability to read the letters on the 20-foot line of a Snellen chart?
A) Emmetropia
B) Myopia
C) Hypermetropia
D) Diplopia
Q3) Which condition describes an infection of a ciliary gland?
A) Hyphema
B) Stye
C) Iritis
D) Corneal abrasion
Q4) What are you looking for when assessing eye movement?
Q5) When checking pupillary reaction,what is considered a positive test?
Q6) Name the bones that form the eye orbit.
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Chapter 19: Face and Related Structure Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A blow that crushes which of the following would result in an inability to speak?
A) Hyoid bone
B) Cricoid ring
C) Larynx
D) Thyroid cartilage
Q2) The nasal septum is formed on its posterior half by the vomer bone and the perpendicular plate of which of the following?
A) Hard palate
B) Soft palate
C) Maxillary bones
D) Ethmoid bone
Q3) What structure covers the larynx superiorly?
A) Thyroid cartilage
B) Cricoid cartilage
C) Hyoid bone
D) Greater cornua
Q4) What are three signs and symptoms of a potentially catastrophic injury resulting from a blow to the throat?
Q5) Explain how to perform Weber's test and what is considered a positive test.
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Chapter 20: Head and Acute Cervical Spine Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents a component of the diagnostic criteria for postconcussion syndrome under the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM)but not the World Health Organization's International Classification of Diseases?
A) Headache
B) Dizziness
C) Fatigue
D) Apathy
Q2) What is the outermost meningeal covering of the brain called?
A) Dura mater
B) Arachnoid mater
C) Pia mater
D) Subarachnoid space
Q3) What is considered to be a normal pulse pressure?
A) 20 mm Hg
B) 30 mm Hg
C) 40 mm Hg
D) 50 mm Hg
Q4) List two ways to elicit a pain response from an unconscious patient.
Q5) Which cranial nerve(s)are responsible for eye movement?
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