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Evolutionary Biology explores the fundamental processes and mechanisms that drive the diversity and adaptation of life on Earth. This course examines the principles of natural selection, genetic drift, mutation, gene flow, and speciation, providing an in-depth understanding of how organisms evolve over time. Topics include the origins of life, evolutionary history, phylogenetic relationships, and coevolution, as well as the latest advances in evolutionary theory and research. Through a combination of theoretical concepts and real-world examples, students gain insight into how evolutionary processes shape the living world and impact issues such as conservation, medicine, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Genetic Analysis 11th Edition by Anthony J.F. Griffiths
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Q1) Choose the best answer from the list below.Not all of the answers will be used.
a.alleles
b.de novo mutations
c.point mutations
d.nucleases
e.DNA polymerase
f.Tatum and Beadle
g.Gregor Mendel
1.___one-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis
2.___gene variants
3.___cut DNA at specific location
4.___unique DNA variants that exist in a child but neither of its parents.
5.___DNA replication
Answer: 1. ___f__one-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis
2. ___a__gene variants
3. ___d__cut DNA at specific location
4. ___b__unique DNA variants that exist in a child but neither of its parents.
5. ___e__DNA replication
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Q1) a)In families with four children,what proportion of the families will have at least one boy?
b)In families with two girls and one boy,what fraction of the families will have the boy as the second child?
c)In families with four children,what fraction of the families will have the gender order male-female-female-male?
Answer: a)0.9375,since 1 \(\times\) Prob.of 4 girls,or 1 \(\times\) (.5)<sup>4</sup> = 1 \(\times\) 0.0625.The frequency can be calculated more laboriously by expanding the binomial (p + q)<sup>4</sup> = p<sup>4</sup> + 4p<sup>3</sup>q + 6p<sup>2</sup>q<sup>2</sup> + 4pq<sup>3</sup> + q<sup>4</sup> and calculating that 15/16 (0.9375)of the distribution has one boy.
b)1/3,because the frequencies of MFF,FMF,and FFM families are equal.
c)Of four-child families,6/16 have two boys and two girls;only 1/6 of such families will have the birth order MFFM.Therefore,1/16 will have that particular birth order.The same answer can be derived as (0.5)<sup>4</sup>.
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Q1) If two mice of genotype F/f;G/g;H/h;I/i;J/j are repeatedly mated,how many different phenotypes will be found in the progeny? (Assume complete dominance for all genes.)
A)15
B)16
C)32
D)128
E)256
Answer: C
Q2) Two pure-breeding mutant plants were crossed: One had small leaves (wild-type leaves are large),and the other made pink flowers (wild-type flowers are purple).All F<sub>1</sub> individuals had small leaves and purple flowers.Assuming independent assortment,what proportion of the F<sub>2 </sub>individuals are expected to be phenotypically wild type?
A)1/16
B)3/16
C)1/4
D)9/16
E)3/4
Answer: B
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Q1) A second-division segregation ascus is an indication of:
A)absence of linkage between centromere and locus.
B)a crossover between centromere and locus.
C)a four-strand crossover between centromere and locus.
D)interference in the region between centromere and locus
E)a two-strand double crossover between centromere and locus.
Q2) In a linear tetrad analysis,the second division segregation (M<sub>II</sub>)frequency of the cyh locus is 16%.The map distance from this locus to its centromere is:
A)4 m.u.
B)8 m.u.
C)16 m.u.
D)32 m.u.
E)50 m.u.
Q3) Holliday junctions are:
A)formed during the process of crossing over.
B)the end products of the process of crossing over.
C)a type of mismatched DNA.
D)a type of mutation.
E)a type of heteroduplex DNA.

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Q1) A cross is made between an Hfr strain that is Str<sup>S</sup>a<sup>+</sup>b<sup>+</sup>d<sup>+</sup> in genotype and an F<sup>-</sup> strain that is Str<sup>R</sup>a<sup>-</sup>b<sup>-</sup>d<sup>-</sup> in genotype.Interrupted-mating studies show that b<sup>+</sup> enters the recipient strain last,and that the Str locus is very far away from b<sup>+</sup>,so it never enters the recipient strain.The b<sup>+</sup> recombinants are then tested for the presence of the a<sup>+</sup> and d<sup>+</sup> alleles.The following data were obtained: \(\begin{array} { l l l l }
a ^ { + } & b ^ { + } & d ^ { + } & 326 \\
a^ { -} & b ^ { + } & d ^ { + } & 2 \\
a ^ { + } & b ^ { + } & d^ { -} & 14 \\
a ^ { -}& b ^ { + } & d ^ { -}& \underline { 58 } \\
& && 400
\end{array}\)
a)What is the gene order?
A)a d b Str
B)b a d Str
C)b d a Str
D)d a b Str
E)d b a Str
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Q1) In chickens,the dominant allele Cr produces the creeper phenotype (having extremely short legs).However,the creeper allele is lethal in the homozygous condition.If two creepers are mated,what proportion of the living progeny will be creepers?
A)1/4
B)1/3
C)1/2
D)2/3
E)3/4
Q2) An A/a;B/b dihybrid is testcrossed,and about ¾ of the progeny phenotypically resembles the dihybrid parent,while ¼ resembles the tester parent.If the dihybrid parent was selfed,what would be the expected phenotypic ratio in the progeny?
A)9:3:4
B)9:7
C)12:3:1
D)13:3
E)15:1
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Q1) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase examined transformation using bacteriophage (bacterial DNA virus)and bacterial cells.In these experiments,they used radioactivity to label nucleic acids (in this case DNA)and proteins.What do radioactive sulfur and phosphate specifically label?
A)Sulfur labels DNA,and phosphate labels protein.
B)Sulfur labels both protein and DNA.
C)Phosphate labels both protein and DNA.
D)Sulfur labels protein,and phosphate labels DNA.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q2) Mendel identified evidence for the location of genes on separate structures (chromosomes)through his:
A)electrophoresis experiments.
B)purification of chromosomes from pea plants.
C)identification of dominant and recessive alleles of genes.
D)identification of independent assortment of distinct genes during meiosis.
E)use of high resolution microscopic techniques.
Q3) A-form DNA has very little external exposure of its nucleotide bases as compared to the B-form.B-DNA is the biologically significant form.Why do you think this is so?
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Q1) The experimental value of a "pulse-chase" cellular labeling experiment using radioactive uracil is that:
A)all RNAs within a cell are labeled and easily detected.
B)the radioactivity allows for easy purification of cellular nucleic acids.
C)all RNAs created during the pulse are labeled and detectable,revealing their stability and localization.
D)the spliceosome function is easily seen with radiolabeled RNAs in the cellular cytosol.
E)cells adapt to the pulse of radioactivity,revealing nucleic acid repair mechanisms.
Q2) The role of most microRNAs within a eukaryotic cell is to:
A)regulate the splicing of primary transcripts to mRNAs.
B)bind with other RNAs to stabilize their secondary structure.
C)associate with ribosomal proteins to facilitate translation.
D)regulate RNA polymerase activity in the nucleus.
E)repress the expression of genes by destroying mRNAs.
Q3) What are the three major classes of functional RNAs? Briefly describe the role of each class of functional RNA.
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Q1) In bacteria,the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is found on the mRNA and is recognized by the ________________________ to reveal
A)the 16S rRNA;the translation STOP codon
B)the 30S subunit;the translation START codon
C)initiator tRNA;the translation START codon
D)ribosome A site;the translation START codon
E)amber tRNA;the translation STOP codon
Q2) The ribosome is the primary site of:
A)oxidative phosphorylation.
B)protein packaging.
C)protein synthesis.
D)cellular respiration.
E)amino acid storage.
Q3) Describe the types of RNAs participating in translation.
Q4) The anticodon on the tRNA molecule:
A)binds to the mRNA in a complementary fashion.
B)is oriented and written in the 5 \(\to\) 3 direction.
C)is a catalytic part of protein synthesis.
D)is the same for all tRNA molecules.
E)contains amino-acyl-tRNA synthetase.
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Q1) Detection of a transgenic plant can be accomplished in a number of different ways,but often the initially transformed cells (in tissue culture)are enriched for the presence of a transgene by:
A)screening groups of cells using the polymerase chain reaction.
B)examining if the phenotype of the cells has been altered.
C)placing the potentially transformed cells in the presence of a drug that inhibits the division of non-transgenic cells.
D)microscopically examining the cells and isolating those that have "extra" DNA.
E)None of the above.Transgenesis cannot be selected for in tissue culture.
Q2) A linear DNA molecule has n target sites for restriction enzyme EcoRI.How many fragments will be produced after complete digestion?
A)n - 1
B)n
C)n + 1
D)2n - 1
E)2n + 2
Q3) Human insulin can be made purer,and at a lower cost,using recombinant DNA technology.What sort of DNA clone might be ligated into a bacterial expression plasmid to be used in this strategy?
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Q1) In Bacillus,the presence of alternate forms of which molecule is responsible for the control of large numbers of genes?
A)DNA dependent RNA polymerase
B)TFII
C) factor
D)Trp repressor
E)Operator protein
Q2) small molecules that bind to regulatory molecule,such as repressor
A)temporal control
B)positive control
C)negative control
D)inducible
E)noninducible
F)repressible
G)constitutive
H)operator
I)repressor
J)effector molecule
K)feedback inhibition
L)suppressor mutation
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Q1) Histones are essentially identical in sequence/structure in all eukaryotic organisms from yeast to plants to animals.What does this say about the biophysical properties of DNA-packaging and the evolution of eukaryotic organisms?
Q2) In mice,the H19 allele is only expressed if it is:
A)inherited from the mother.
B)inherited from the father.
C)mutated in the mother.
D)mutated in the father.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q3) Methylation of H3 lysine residue 4:
A)is associated with activation of gene expression.
B)is associated with repression of gene expression.
C)has no effect on gene expression.
D)creates binding sites for other gene repressors.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q4) Describe the difference between transcriptional gene regulation and post-transcriptional gene regulation in eukaryotes.
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Q1) In the nematode worm,C.elegans,embryonic development is controlled largely by controlling _______________.
A)Bicoid
B)transcription
C)post-transcription
D)protein processing
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q2) In Drosophila,the vast majority of A-P axis genes that contribute to pattern formation encode:
A)transcription factors.
B)histones.
C)sugar-utilizing enzymes.
D)operons.
E)ligands.
Q3) The pre-mRNA for Sex-lethal,transformer,and doublesex are:
A)identical in both sexes.
B)shorter in females.
C)shorter in males.
D)longer in females.
E)longer in males.
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Q1) What is meant by "codon bias"?
A)Codons are specific for the amino acids they specify.
B)Certain viruses like to infect particular DNA sequences in our genome.
C)Some organisms will use specific codons for amino acids they specify.
D)Certain viruses like to infect particular DNA sequences in our genome,and some organisms will use specific codons for amino acids they specify.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is the most sensible order of techniques for mapping a chromosome and then locating a specific disease gene?
A)contig alignment;restriction mapping;RFLP linkage analysis;chromosomal walking
B)chromosomal walking;contig alignment;restriction mapping;RFLP linkage analysis
C)restriction mapping;chromosomal walking;contig alignment;RFLP linkage analysis
D)chromosomal walking;restriction mapping;RFLP linkage analysis;contig alignment
E)restriction mapping;contig alignment;RFLP linkage analysis;chromosomal walking
Q3) Please list three (3)approaches to reverse genetics.
Q4) Describe the information content of a genome.
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Q1) Compare and contrast IS elements,simple transposons,and composite transposons.Use diagrams to help in the comparison.
Q2) In D.melanogaster,when P cytotype (lab stock)females are crossed to M cytotype (wild)males,the resulting F<sub>1</sub> progeny are:
A)normal.
B)defective.
C)normal:defective in a 1:1 ratio.
D)normal:defective in a 1:2:1 ratio.
E)normal:defective in a 3:1 ratio.
Q3) A corn plant is homozygous for a mutant allele that results in no pigment in the seed (i.e.,white).The mutant is caused by Ds insertion that often exits late in seed development,when there is an active Ac element in the genome.If there is NO active Ac element,the seeds of this plant will be:
A)no pigment (i.e. ,white).
B)pigmented all over.
C)white with small spots of pigment.
D)white with large spots of pigment.
E)weakly pigmented.
Q4) Compare and contrast autonomous and nonautonomous transposable elements.
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Q1) A mouse is homozygous for a transversion that eliminated the splice site between the first exon and the first intron of gene "G." The resulting mutant mRNA is longer than the wild type,but the protein that it encodes is much shorter than its wild-type counterpart.Provide a logical and plausible explanation for these observations.
Q2) A mutation does not affect the length of a gene but results in an abnormally short protein.The mutation is most likely of a type called:
A)silent.
B)nonsense.
C)missense.
D)frameshift.
E)deletion.
Q3) Crossing over is a very precise process.Why is it important that the process of crossing over is so precise? What impact would there be if it were not precise? Draw a picture depicting an imprecise crossover and show the result of this imprecise event.
Q4) Both cytosines and 5' methyl-cytosines are susceptible to spontaneous deamination,which leads to GT to AT transitions.Do you expect cytosine nucleotides to be a "hot spot" for spontaneous mutations? Briefly explain your answer.
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Q1) A plant trisomic for a chromosome carrying the A gene has the genotype A/a/a.Which of the following represents a gamete this plant could NOT produce?
A)A/a
B)A
C)a
D)A/A
Q2) Suppose that in a certain diploid fish genes A and T are on chromosomes 4 and 7,respectively.A female fish is heterozygous at both loci and is also heterozygous for a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 1 and 4.The translocation breakpoint on chromosome 4 is 10 map units away from the a allele (A is located on the normal chromosome 4). If this female is crossed to a male of genotype a/a;t/t and with normal chromosomes,what percentage of the progeny is expected to be phenotypically A;T and have only normal chromosomes?
A)0%
B)2)5%
C)22.5%
D)25%
E)45%
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the frequency of alleles in a Hardy-Weinberg population?
A)p<sup>2</sup>
B)q<sup>2</sup>
C)p + q
D)2pq
E)None of the answers options are correct.
Q2) In a population of rats,35% of the individuals are genotypically B/B,10% are B/b,and 55% are b/b.Assuming there are no mutations,no selection and no migrations,the predicted frequency of the b/b genotype after one generation of random mating is: A)25%.
B)42.25%.
C)47.5%.
D)55%.
E)57.5%.
Q3) What processes increase genetic variation in a given population?
Q4) Apert syndrome (acrocephalosyndactyly)results from a dominant mutant allele.Among 322,182 births to normal parents,two infants were found with this syndrome.What is the mutation rate per gamete for this genetic disease?
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Q1) Imagine that an association mapping study revealed a particular variant of a SNP to be strongly associated with susceptibility to insomnia.From these data,you could infer that:
A)the SNP is closely linked to a locus that plays a role in insomnia.
B)the SNP is located in a gene that determines insomnia.
C)the SNP provides evidence that insomnia is a genetic condition.
D)the variant SNP most likely causes insomnia.
E)the variant SNP plays a role in insomnia.
Q2) The amount of milk produced per day by a cow is an example of a:
A)continuous trait.
B)discrete trait.
C)dominant trait.
D)meristic trait.
E)threshold trait.
Q3) In a natural population of outbreeding annual plants,the variance of the total number of seeds per plant is 16.From the natural population,20 plants are taken into the laboratory and each selfed for 10 generations.The average variance in the tenth generation in each of the 20 sets is about equal,and averages 5.8 across all the sets.Estimate the broad-sense heritability (H<sup>2</sup>)of seed number in this population.
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Q1) Which of these principles of evolution,as described by Darwin's theory,is correctly matched with its role in evolution?
A)Principle of variation: Offspring must resemble their parents more than they resemble unrelated individuals.
B)Principle of selection: Variation in morphology,physiology,and behavior must be present in a population for selection to occur.
C)Principle of variation: Variation in morphology,physiology,and behavior must be present in a population for selection to occur.
D)Principle of heredity: Some genotypes of a population should be more successful at surviving and reproducing than other genotypes in a given environment.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q2) An excess of nonsynonymous fixed mutations between species is likely due to:
A)natural selection.
B)random genetic drift.
C)a catastrophic event.
D)inbreeding.
E)immigration.
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