Evolutionary Biology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Evolutionary Biology explores the mechanisms and processes that have shaped the diversity of life on Earth. The course covers foundational concepts such as natural selection, genetic drift, mutation, and gene flow, examining how these forces drive evolutionary change. Students investigate the origins of species, adaptation, phylogenetic relationships, and the development of complex traits, drawing on evidence from genetics, paleontology, and comparative anatomy. Through lectures, discussions, and practical activities, the course emphasizes both the historical context and the ongoing research that continue to refine our understanding of evolution and its impact on the natural world.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 10th Edition by Michael Cummings
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Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major point of controversy in deCODE's plan to establish a genetic database of the people of Iceland is
A) the large expense and minimal projected benefits.
B) the privacy and appropriate use of the information obtained.
C) the inadequacy of the database size.
D) the genetic isolation of Icelanders.
E) all of these.
Answer: B
Q2) Which is the correct arrangement of the components of a nucleotide in a strand of DNA?
A) Bases pair up inside with phosphates and sugars on the outside.
B) Phosphates and sugars pair up on the inside with bases pointing to the outside.
C) Phosphates, sugars, and bases alternate in a single linear molecule like beads on a string.
D) Bases connect with sugars on the inside and phosphate groups are on the outside.
E) Phosphates connect on the inside while sugars and bases connect to each other on the outside.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are 92 chromosomes in a normal human cell undergoing mitosis at the anaphase stage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following biomolecules is directly important for membrane structure and function?
A) Polysaccharides
B) Steroids
C) DNA
D) Phospholipids
E) ATP
Answer: D
Q3) In cell division, toward the end of nuclear division, the cytoplasm divides by a process called ______________ to produce two identical cells.
Answer: cytokinesis
Q4) In meiosis, sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles of the spindle during ____________________.
Answer: anaphase II
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Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes From Generation to Generation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a pedigree, a person whose symbol is filled in and who is associated with the roman numeral II _____.
A) is affected by the trait and in the second generation B) is not affected by the trait and in the second generation C) is affected by the trait and is the second-oldest child in the family D) is not affected by the trait and is the second-oldest child in the family E) is affected by the trait and has an identical twin
Answer: A
Q2) A man has the aa phenotype that causes albinism. As such, he does not express his PP genotype, which would have made his eyes brown. The relationship between these two genes is an example of ____________________.
Answer: epistasis
Q3) A person with genotype L L has the phenotype (blood type) M.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Dominant traits are expressed only in the heterozygous state.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Y-linked traits are
A) known as hemizygous traits.
B) known to skip alternate generations of males.
C) carried only by males and transmitted only to males.
D) known to skip alternate generations of males and are carried only by males and transmitted only to males.
E) known as hemizygous traits and are carried only by males and transmitted only to males.
Q2) Camptodactyly
A) causes bent, immobile little fingers.
B) is inherited as a dominant trait.
C) shows less than complete penetrance.
D) shows varying expressivity.
E) is characterized by all of these.
Q3) Color blindness only occurs in males.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The frequency of heterozygotes for cystic fibrosis shows ethnic variations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Complex Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name five human traits that could be described as multifactorial from twin studies and concordance rates.
Q2) Sickle cell disease exhibits a variety of symptoms and is more severe under stressful situations. Sickle cell disease is an example of a _____ genetic disorder.
A) discontinuous
B) continuous
C) polygenic
D) multifactorial
E) phenotypic
Q3) Scientists are now using an expanded definition of intelligence, beyond IQ, called
Q4) The tall and short phenotypes in pea plants are examples of A) polygenic traits. B) continuous traits. C) multifactorial traits. D) discontinuous traits.
E) gene interaction.
Q5) ______________ traits are those that result from the interaction of genes and the environment..
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics: Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The risk for Down syndrome increases in situations where the
A) mother is 20-29 years old.
B) father is 35-50 years old.
C) mother is 35-45 years old.
D) father is 20-29 years old.
E) both parents are 30-35 years old.
Q2) A chromosome whose centromere is near one end is termed
Q3) A translocation involving chromosome 21 can result in
A) a risk for Down syndrome independent of maternal age.
B) a risk for Down syndrome dependent on paternal age.
C) no increased risk outside of maternal age.
D) lowering the risk of Down syndrome.
E) no change in the risk for Down syndrome.
Q4) What is the number of chromosomes in a human tetraploid cell?
Q5) In general, how do sex chromosome aneuploidies differ from autosomal aneuploidies?
Page 8
Q6) What chromosomal mutation occurs in each of the following: Patau syndrome, Klinefelter syndrome, Turner syndrome, and Angelman syndrome?
Q7) _______ describes a chromosome that has a centrally-placed centromere.
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Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phenotypic sex depends most directly on
A) the presence of a Y chromosome.
B) the presence of the number of active X chromosomes.
C) the development of the ovaries.
D) the influence of hormones.
E) the degeneration of the Müllerian duct.
Q2) The result of X inactivation is ____________________ between the sexes.
Q3) The hormone that induces contractions that lead to birth is ____.
A) estrogen
B) prostaglandin
C) oxytocin
D) melatonin
E) progesterone
Q4) Individuals with androgen insensitivity are abnormal because
A) their ovarian ducts do not develop.
B) their testes do not produce testosterone.
C) they have no Müllerian ducts.
D) they are missing a receptor protein for testosterone.
E) they have two copies of the SRY gene.
Q5) X inactivation can lead to ____________________ in females.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: DNA Structure and Chromosomal Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basic unit of a DNA molecule is the
A) nitrogenous base.
B) sugar-phosphate backbone.
C) amino acid.
D) nucleotide.
E) ribose sugar.
Q2) What are the properties of genes that must be accounted for in proposing DNA or any other molecule as a carrier of genetic information?
Q3) The two strands of each polynucleotide chain in DNA are identical.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ proteins function in the packaging of DNA in the chromosome.
Q5) Which of the three parts of a nucleotide (nitrogen base, phosphate, sugar) lies between the other two? ____________________
Q6) In humans, ____________________ functions to transfer genetic information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
Q7) Describe the chemical composition and structure of DNA.
Q8) The sugar found in DNA is a ____________________.
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Chapter 9: Gene Expression: From Genes to Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the correct folding of a protein so important, and what ultimately determines the shape a protein will assume?
Q2) Which one of the following correctly describes the direction of translation?
A) DNA is read 3'-to-5' and RNA is synthesized 5'-to-3'.
B) DNA is read 3'-to-5' and RNA is synthesized 3'-to-5'.
C) DNA is read 5'-to-3' and RNA is synthesized 3'-to-5'.
D) DNA is read 5'-to-3' and RNA is synthesized 5'-to-3'.
E) The direction varies in different genes.
Q3) The sequences in mRNA that are not translated are the
Q4) Peptide bonds form between
A) two amino groups.
B) two carboxyl groups.
C) one carboxyl group and one R group.
D) one amino group and one carboxyl group.
E) one R group and one amino group.
Q5) What happens to human mRNA before it leaves the nucleus?
Q6) Watson and Crick proposed that genetic information is encoded in the ____________________ of ____________________ in DNA.
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Q7) RNA polymerase attaches to regions just outside genes called
Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use of succinylcholine as an anaesthetic is very dangerous for people with a genotype for the fast-acting form of the enzyme serum cholinesterase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In people who have PKU, phenylalanine cannot be converted into the amino acid
Q3) Why do you think some heterozygotes produce only half the normal amount of a given enzyme and yet have a normal phenotype?
Q4) A person with the genotype GD/g for the galactosemia gene would have ____________________ of the normal level of galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase.
Q5) Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with a defect in mitochondrial protein synthesis.
A)True B)False
Q6) Discuss therapeutic approaches in metabolic diseases.
Q7) The enzyme lactase splits the lactose molecule into ____________ and
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Q8) Phenylketonuria is a result of a deficiency of the enzyme
Chapter 11: Mutation: the Source of Genetic Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Frameshift mutations include nucleotide substitutions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nonsense mutations are mutations caused by nucleotide substitutions that change one amino acid into another.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fragile-X syndrome is an example of a genetic condition caused by a frameshift mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A mutation occurs that changes a C to a T in DNA such that, in the mRNA transcribed from this piece of DNA, a UGG codon is changed to UGA. This mutation is a A) substitution mutation.
B) missense mutation.
C) nonsense mutation.
D) substitution mutation and a missense mutation.
E) substitution mutation and a nonsense mutation.
Q5) Describe three ways that DNA mutations can alter the protein product.
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Products of tumor-suppressor genes act at control points in the cell cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most (90 percent) of all cases of ____________________ cancer involve mutations of the MSH2 or MLH1 genes, which destabilize the genome.
Q3) According to the American Cancer Society, 30 pecent of all cancer deaths is due to
A) ultraviolet light exposure.
B) automobile exhaust.
C) industrial pollutants.
D) pesticide and herbicide exposure.
E) smoking.
Q4) Which of the following best describes the effect of cancer-causing mutations on the cell cycle?
A) The mutations increase the speed of the cycle.
B) The mutations cause the cell to bypass checkpoints in the cycle.
C) The mutations eliminate one or more stages of the cycle.
D) The mutations interfere with S stage of the cycle.
E) None of these.
Q5) BRCA1 and BRCA2 are inherited in a ______________ fashion.
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Restriction enzymes recognize and cut DNA at specific nucleotide sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cloning by embryo splitting
A) uses an unfertilized egg as the starting point.
B) does not require the use of a host uterus.
C) cannot be used for cloning human embryos.
D) is characterized by all of these.
E) is characterized by none of these
Q3) A genetic library contains all the DNA fragments of
A) the entire genome of a species.
B) a specific chromosome of a species.
C) all the genes expressed in a certain cell type.
D) any of these.
E) none of these.
Q4) Linked DNA segments from humans and vectors, such as plasmids, are called ____________________ molecules.
Q5) Heat is required for the polymerase chain reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once a gene has been cloned, it can be used for A) disease diagnosis.
B) detecting heterozygotes in the population.
C) making biosynthetic products for commercial use.
D) all of these.
E) none of these.
Q2) In DNA profiles
A) the bands are derived from variation in restriction cutting sites of DNA.
B) ideally, the pattern is unique for all individuals except identical twins.
C) variations in short tandem repeats produce the banding pattern.
D) all of these are true.
E) none of these are true.
Q3) In genetically altered mice, genes are transferred by injection into ____________________ that are ____________________ into a foster mother.
Q4) A ____________________ organism is one that carries a gene that has been transferred to it from another species.
Q5) Because embryonic stem cells can form any tissue in the human body, they are termed _____________; adult stem cells, on the other hand, are termed ______________.
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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following methods uses gene cloning and genomic libraries?
A) Whole genome sequencing
B) Map-based sequencing
C) DNA base sequencing
D) More than one of these
E) None of these
Q2) The field of study named ____________________ has developed software to efficiently store, analyze, and present genomic information.
Q3) Which of the following sequences indicates the promoter region of a gene?
A) CAAT
B) UAAG
C) CTTT
D) ACAT
E) TAAC
Q4) Positional cloning is a method used to determine linkage of genes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Human Genome Project was responsible for discovery of a new class of mutation, the ____________________.
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology, Genetic Testing, and Gene Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection is used by couples in which
A) the female has blocked oviducts.
B) the female has very irregular ovulation.
C) the female is approaching menopause.
D) the source of sperm is a sperm bank.
E) the male is infertile.
Q2) What condition has been the target of over half the gene therapy trials performed so far?
A) SCIDS
B) Cancer
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Osteogenesis imperfect
E) Diabetes
Q3) When a woman is artificially inseminated and surrenders the child to the father and his mate, the woman is both the gestational and the genetic mother.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the problems and benefits associated with presymptomatic testing for late-onset disorders such as Huntington disease?
19
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Chapter 17: Genes and the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an inflammatory response, the direct effect of histamine is to
A) dilate blood vessels causing increased blood flow to the area of infection
B) decrease heat accumulation in the area of infection
C) directly kill bacteria
D) attack cytotoxic T cells
E) cause B cells to release antibodies
Q2) Liver proteins called complement proteins circulate in the blood and are activated to destroy microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The chemical defense system that complements the immune system and supplements the inflammatory response is the ____________________ system.
Q4) Explain what B cells and T cells do in the human immune system.
Q5) What are HLAs? Where are they found? How are they inherited?
Q6) The ABO blood type that can receive transfusions of any other ABO blood type is
Q7) Once formed, B cells mature in the ___________________.
Q8) T cells become mature, programmed cells in the _______________.
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since sons adopted by alcoholic men show a rate of alcoholism more like that of their biological father, there is an argument for the role of genetic factors in this disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) MZ twin concordance values are less than 100 percent in both bipolar disorder and schizophrenia. This suggests that these disorders are ______________.
A) strictly polygenic
B) multifactorial
C) X-linked
D) genetically dominant
E) not genetically based
Q3) Alcoholism has been proposed as a genetically controlled or influenced trait. Outline some of the difficulties in studying the genetics of this behavior trait, beginning with the definition of the phenotype. Can you define the problem in such a way that will provide a hypothesis as to the nature of the disorder, allowing a genetic approach to be mounted?
Q4) Give evidence that might prove that human personality could be partially inherited.
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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutation as a force in genetic diversity serves to A) increase genetic diversity.
B) rapidly change allele frequencies.
C) maintain a genetic equilibrium.
D) work against selection.
E) do none of these.
Q2) In a hypothetical population of 1,000 people, there is a hypothetical trait called pink toe. People who are homozygous dominant have red toes; those who are homozygous recessive have white toes; those who are heterozygous have pink toes. If 400 people have red toes, the number of people with pink toes is ______________.
Q3) Heterozygotes for the Tay-Sachs disease allele appear to have greater than normal resistance to ____________________.
Q4) In areas where malaria is endemic, sickle cell disease heterozygote carriers are less fit than individuals homozygous for the normal allele.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Comparative genome studies show that humans and chimpanzees shared a common ancestor approximately ____________ million years ago.
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