Evolutionary Biology Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Evolutionary Biology is the study of the processes that have given rise to the diversity of life on Earth. This course explores fundamental concepts such as natural selection, genetic drift, mutation, and gene flow, examining how these mechanisms drive the evolution of species over time. Students will analyze patterns of inheritance, adaptation, speciation, and extinction, with an emphasis on both the molecular and ecological levels. The course also discusses the history of evolutionary thought, current research methods, and the relevance of evolutionary principles to topics such as medicine, conservation, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics Analysis and Principles 5th Edition by Robert Brooker
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The building blocks of DNA are the _____________.
A) amino acids
B) carbohydrates
C) enzymes
D) nucleotides
E) lipids
Answer: D
Q2) Gene expression involves the process of transcription and translation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Variation at the molecular level of a gene is called a(n) _________.
A) nucleotide
B) chromosome
C) allele
D) trait
E) None of the answers are correct
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the biological sciences, the null hypothesis is usually rejected if the P value is
A)Greater than 1
B)Less than 0.30
C)Less than 0.95
D)Less than 0.05
E)Less than 1
Answer: D
Q2) If a Punnett square is used to visualize a three-factor cross (trihybrid cross) how many boxes would be inside of the square?
A)3
B)8
C)48
D)64
E)Can't be determined
Answer: D
Q3) The Chi-square test is used to prove that a hypothesis is correct.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Chromosome Transmission During Cell Division and
Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) During this phase of the cell cycle the nuclear membrane reforms around the chromosomes:
A)Metaphase
B)Prometaphase
C)Telophase
D)Anaphase
E)Prophase
Answer: C
Q2) During this phase of the cell cycle the separated sister chromatids are considered independent chromosomes:
A)Metaphase
B)Prometaphase
C)Telophase
D)Anaphase
E)Prophase
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human blood groups are determined by antigens on the surface of red blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Paralogs are often functionally redundant and can compensate for the loss of either of the paralogs in a set.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An individual with type A blood and an individual with type B blood mate and have offspring. What blood type is not possible in their offspring?
A)Type O blood
B)Type A blood
C)Type B blood
D)Type AB blood
E)All blood types are possible
Q4) Male-pattern baldness is only an autosomal dominant trait in humans.
A)True
B)False
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6
Chapter 5: Non-Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a disease associated with extra nuclear inheritance?
A)Angelman Syndrome
B)Prader-Willi Syndrome
C)LHON
D)Muscular Dystrophy
Q2) What gene is encoded in the Xic?
A)Xce
B)Xist
C)Tsix
D)None of these
Q3) In maternal effect, the _______ of the mother determines the _______ of the offspring.
A)phenotype, genotype
B)genotype, phenotype
C)rRNA, tRNA
D)imprinting, genotype
Q4) Both parents usually imprint the same gene.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Q1) You have calculated the interference value for a given mapping experiment to be 30%. What does this mean?
A)30% more double crossovers occurred than expected
B)30% fewer double crossovers occurred than expected
C)70% more double crossovers occurred than expected
D)70% fewer double crossovers occurred than expected
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the principles of linkage that Morgan obtained from his experiments?
A) Genes that are on the same chromosome may be inherited together.
B) Crossing over exchanges pieces of chromosomes and creates new allele combinations.
C) The likelihood of crossing over occurring between two genes is dependent on the distance of the genes from one another.
D) Genes that are on the same chromosome are always transmitted together as a unit.
Q3) The genotype hsp+ HSP- is something that you could easily expect to find in the fungus Neurospora crassa.
A)True
B)False
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8
Chapter 7: Genetic Transfer and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Sample Questions
Q1) An episome is a segment of bacterial DNA that can exist as a plasmid or be integrated into the bacterial chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which mechanism of genetic transfer utilizes a sex pilus?
A) Transformation
B) Transduction
C) Conjugation
D) All of the answers are correct
Q3) What is the equation that would be used to determine the distance between two genes with a cotransduction frequency of 0.68?
A) 0.68=(1 - d/2)<sup>3</sup>
B) d=.68<sup>3</sup> - 1
C) d=(1-.68)<sup>2</sup>
Q4) Acquired antibiotic resistance between two different species is an example of vertical gene transfer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and Number
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Q1) When scientists apply colchicine to plants to induce polyploidy, colchicine can also cause aneuploid cells to form. Scientists can often identify tetraploid parts of the plant because of morphological differences such as larger leaves or stems. Do you think scientists can identify aneuploid parts of the plant? Why or why not?
A)Yes, they will be the smaller parts of the plant.
B)Yes, they will also grow larger leaves and stems.
C)No, because the aneuploid parts of the plant will be indistinguishable from the normal parts of the plant.
D)No, because the aneuploid cells will probably die because of their missing chromosomes.
Q2) Which algebraic expression would be used to denote a trisomic organism?
A)3n
B)2n - 1
C)2n + 1
D)2n + 2
Q3) The majority of autosomal aneuploid conditions are lethal, but sex chromosome aneuploids are usually not lethal.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) A purine on one strand of the DNA is always paired with a pyrimidine on the other strand.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What was the conclusion of the Hershey-Chase experiments?
A)Their results suggested the presence of a transforming principle.
B)Their results suggested that DNA is a double helix
C)Their results suggested that A+G=T+C
D)Their results suggested that the DNA is the genetic material
Q3) An RNA strand with sequence 5'-GUACAAUGACUUAUGUAC-3' can potentially form which structure?
A)bulge loop
B)internal loop
C)multibranched junction
D)stem-loop
Q4) The backbone of the DNA molecule is formed by ________.
A)peptide bonds
B)ribose sugars
C)nitrogenous bases
D)phosphodiester bonds
11
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Chapter 10: Chromosome Organization and Molecular Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of the nonrepetitive genes in an organism are found in which of the following?
A)Unique sequences
B)Moderately repetitive sequences
C)Highly repetitive sequences
D)None of the answers are correct
Q2) Over winding of the DNA decreases the number of turns in the double helix, and thus results in super coils in the DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following assists the alignment of sister chromatids during metaphase?
A)Radial loop domains
B)Cohesin
C)Centromeres
D)Nucleosomes
E) Condensin
Q4) The majority of bacterial DNA is negatively super coiled.
A)True
B)False
12
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Chapter 11: DNA Replication
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Q1) You have isolated what appears to be alien DNA. While studying its replication, you performed the exact experiment Meselson and Stahl did. After three generations, the DNA is subjected to a CsCl gradient and only one band appears. What type of replication does this DNA undergo?
A)Semiconservative
B)Conservative
C)Dispersive
Q2) DNA polymerase III has an error in replication once every 100 million nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Meselson-Stahl experiments supported the model of dispersive DNA replication. A)True
B)False
Q4) Lesion-replicating polymerases are _________.
A)Only active in skin cells
B)Used to replicate damaged DNA
C)Used to induce genetic diversity
D)None of the answers are correct
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Chapter 12: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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Sample Questions
Q1) What basal transcription factor is a helicase?
A)TFIID
B)TFIIH
C)TFIIF
D)TFIIB
Q2) Where does the process of transcription initiate?
A)Promoter
B)Terminator
C)Regulation sequences
D)Transcription factors
Q3) A gene that undergoes rho-dependent termination has a mutation in the rut site. How will this influence transcriptional activity?
A)Transcription will terminate normally as Rho termiantion relies on the rut site to enhance termination; it is not essential for termination
B)Transcription will stop immediately because RNA polymerase will sense there is a mutation
C)Transcription will continue until another termination sequence, either Rho dependent or independent is reached
D)There will be no transcription initiation
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Translation of MRNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anticodon is located on ______.
A)DNA
B)mRNA
C)rRNA
D)tRNA
E)snRNA
Q2) During elongation, the polypeptide is removed from the tRNA in the P site and transferred to the amino acid in the A site.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What typically stops the process of translation?
A)Rho proteins
B)Aminoacyl tRNA synthase
C)rRNA
D)Stop codons
E)Introns
Q4) Transcription and translation may occur simultaneously in prokaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The regulation of the CAP complex using cAMP is an example of inducible genetic regulation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If CAP could not bind to its CAP site, then what would be the result? Assume lactose is present in each scenario.
A)Transcription would be difficult to repress in the presence of glucose
B)Transcription would be difficult to activate in the presence of glucose
C)Transcription would be difficult to activate in the absence of glucose
Q3) In the lac operon, the operator is an example of a trans-effect genetic regulation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the lac operon, the operator site is recognized by an activator protein. A)True
B)False
Q5) DNA that contains instructions for two or more structural genes produces monocistronic mRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes I: Transcriptional Regulation
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Q1) A mutation in which of the following would result in little or no effect on the expression of a gene regulated by a CRE?
A)G protein
B)Adenylyl cyclase
C)Protein kinase A
D)CREB
E) Glucocorticoid receptor
Q2) When cortisol binds to the glucocorticoid receptor, HSP90 is released.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Transcription factors are proteins that influence the ability of the RNA polymerase to transcribe a gene.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A transactivation domain is an example of a motif found in transcription factors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes II: Epigenetics and
Regulation at the RNA Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is frequently desirable to experimentally regulate gene regulation and then study the consequences of expressing or suppressing the specific gene. To accomplish this, different gene sequences are fused to promoters or sequences that will be expressed as mRNA. Which of the following would most likely result in regulatable expression?
A) ARE
B) IRE
C) IBP
D) ICR
Q2) The expression of a single allele is associated with which of the following?
A)X-inactivation
B)Genomic imprinting
C)Maternal inheritance
D)Extra nuclear inheritance
Q3) What is the molecular mechanism for imprinting a gene?
A)Acetylation
B)Nitration
C)Phosphorylation
D)Methylation
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Chapter 17: Genetics of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase copies
A)DNA to DNA.
B)DNA to RNA.
C)RNA to DNA.
D)RNA to RNA.
Q2) The virus that causes chickenpox can also cause ______ decades later when it switches from the latent state and starts making new viral particles.
A)shingles
B)herpes
C)cold sores
D)mononucleosis
Q3) A _______ uses the lytic cycle to begin the immediate manufacture of new phages in the host cells.
A) virulent phage
B) temperate phage
C) bacteria
D) eukaryotic cell
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Chapter 18: Gene Mutation and Dna Repair
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Q1) In the following sequence of DNA, the italicized base has been mutated. What type of mutation is this? 5' - G A T C T C C G A A T T - 3' original strand
5' - G A T C T C C C A A T T - 3' mutated strand
A)Transition
B)Transversion
C)Neither
Q2) The complete loss of either a guanine or adenine from DNA is an example of _____.
A)Depurination
B)Tautomeric shifts
C)Deamination
D)Demethylation
Q3) The mutation frequency is the ratio of the number of mutant alleles to the total number of alleles in a given population.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Ames test may be used to determine if an agent is a mutagen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Recombination and Transposition at the
Molecular Level
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Q1) Which of the following processes accounts for the tremendous variation in antibody structure?
A)RNA editing
B)Site-specific recombination
C)Integrase activity
D)Physiological adaptation
E)Hot spots of mutation in the immunoglobin genes
Q2) Site-specific recombination occurs between homologous sequences of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The formation of a D-loop is associated with which of the following models of recombination?
A)Double-stranded break model
B)Holliday model
C)Single-stranded break model
Q4) High numbers of LINEs and SINEs may be due to transposable element activity.
A)True
B)False
21
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Chapter 20: DNA Technologies
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Q1) What function does a competent cell have that makes it useful in cloning experiments?
A)Competent cells resist transfection by a viral vector.
B)Competent cells repair DNA strands without the aid of DNA ligase.
C)Competent cells utilize transposons as a vector.
D)Competent cells take up DNA from the external environment.
Q2) How might a probe for a colony hybridization experiment be obtained?
A)The sequence of the gene does not have to be known.
B)Using the known sequence of a similar gene from a closely related species.
C)The genomic DNA library.
D)Using competent cells.
Q3) What occurs during the annealing stage of a PCR reaction?
A)The DNA strands separate
B)The DNA polymerase copies the template DNA
C)The primers bind to complementary sequences of the template DNA
D)The reaction stops
Q4) Mutations generated during site-directed mutagenesis occur randomly in the genome.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reduction of pollutants in the environment by microorganisms is called biodegradation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A major disadvantage with current gene therapy techniques using viral vectors is the possibility of an immune response against the virus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following cells is not pluripotent?
A)ES cells
B)EG cells
C)EC cells
D)All of the answers are pluripotent
E)None of the answers are pluripotent
Q4) Identical twins are an example of gene cloning.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An organism that can be regenerated by somatic cells is called multipotent.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Genomics I: Analysis of DNA
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Q1) The method of sequencing genomic fragments cloned straight from the genome is:
A)Cytogenetic mapping
B)Shotgun sequencing
C)Southern blotting
D)Polymerase chain reaction
Q2) Map units correspond to fixed physical distances.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A site that has variation within the members of the population is said to be
A)Monomorphic
B)Polymorphic
C)Trimorphic
Q4) Metagenomics is a common approach for studying the genes of a clonal population of bacteria in the laboratory.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a FISH procedure, the probe being used is labeled with a fluorescent tag.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Genomics II: Functional Genomics, Proteomics, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) _______ can be used to determine the amino acid sequence of a protein or peptide.
A)X-ray crystallography
B)Nuclear magnetic resonance
C)Mass spectrometry
D)The ChIP assay
Q2) A cluster analysis is used when reading a DNA microarray to identify genes whose expression follow a similar patterns.
A)True
B)False
Q3) DNA microarrays may be paired with chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) to A)assay the use of substrates by different enzymes.
B)determine mRNA folding patterns
C)identify DNA sequences bound by specific proteins.
D)identify protein-protein interactions.
Q4) What technique is used to separate cellular proteins for analysis?
A)Western blots
B)Antibody microarrays
C)Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis
D)Functional protein microarrays
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Chapter 24: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Q1) Dizygotic twins share _______ of their genetic information.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
Q2) Herceptin is a drug that is given to treat certain breast cancers. However, it is most effective on tumors that are overexpressing HER2. Therefore, patients are tested for HER2 overexpression before being given Herceptin. This is an example of A)concordance.
B)a haplotype.
C)personalized medicine.
D)karyotyping.
Q3) When are caspases active?
A)The normal cell cycle
B)Apotosis
C)Viral integration
D)DNA replication
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Chapter 25: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) A mutation in which the fate of cell lineages is not synchronized in an organism is called a ____.
A)heterochronic mutation
B)apoptotic mutation
C)homeotic mutation
D)homeobox mutation
Q2) The morphological features that a group of cells will eventually adopt is called the _______.
A) positional information
B) cell fate
C) cell adhesion model
D) embryogenesis
Q3) A Drosophila larva that develops from an oocyte that has no bicoid mRNA will have what developmental defect?
A)only ventral structures
B)no dorsal structures
C)only anterior structures
D)only posterior structures
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Chapter 26: Population Genetics
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Q1) Neutral evolutionary forces alter allele frequencies in a random manner.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The probability that a gene will be altered by a mutation is called the mutation rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In exon shuffling, the duplicated or rearranged exons appear as new domains in different genes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following types of selection favors one extreme of a phenotypic distribution?
A)Disruptive selection
B)Stabilizing selection
C)Directional selection
Q5) The measure of the reproductive success of a genotype is called Darwinian fitness.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) A population that is homozygous for a given allele is called polymorphic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) QTL mapping can rely on the relationship between genes for quantitative traits and which of the following?
A)The centromere
B)Transposon sites
C)Structural genes
D)Molecular markers such as RFLPs
Q3) Many organisms used in modern agriculture are a result of artificial selection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Since quantitative traits are frequently associated with a number of genes and the environment, it is difficult to assign accurate phenotypic classes for a Punnett square diagram.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Traits that fall into discrete categories are called continuous traits.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Evolutionary Genetics
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Q1) At the microevolutionary level, natural selection is based on genetic differences that give an individual a selective advantage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Many species of cats (including big cats like lions, tigers, etc.) have tails. For cats, tails are likely to be a ______.
A)synapomorphy
B)shared derived character
C)ancestral character
D)clade
Q3) The changing composition of a gene pool with regard to a particular allele over a measurable period of time is called _______.
A)microevolution
B)macroevolution
C)molecular evolution
D)None of the answers are correct
Q4) Orthologous genes may form gene families in a species.
A)True
B)False
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